Component 1: Preliminary EMT

Question 1

Define:

proximate causation

Answer 1

It is when you are negligent and your breach is the direct cause of the patient’s damages.

Question 2

List the four levels of NREMT certification.

Answer 2

1. EMR (Emergency Medical Responder)
2. EMT (Emergency Medical Technician)
3. AEMT (Advanced Emergency Medical Technician)
4. Paramedic

Question 3

List three obvious signs of death.

Answer 3

• dependent lividity
• rigor mortis
• putrefaction

Question 4

Fill in the blank.

Advance Directives include __ ___ ___________.

Answer 4

Do Not Resuscitate

(DNR)

Question 5

Fill in the blank.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act considers all patient information to be ______________ _________ ___________ .

(HIPAA)

Answer 5

Protected Health Information

(PHI)

Question 6

What legal aspect needs to be intact for a patient to refuse any form of treatment or transport?

Answer 6

The patient must be deemed competent, meaning they have decision-making capacity.

Question 7

True or False:

The Federal Communications Commission created the first EMT curriculum in the early 1970s.

(FCC)

Answer 7

False

The U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) created the first EMT curriculum.

Question 8

What was the original published name of the “White Paper”?

Answer 8

Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society

Question 9

What does the “White Paper” allow for?

Answer 9

It led to the EMS Systems Act via the National Highway Safety Act and enabled federal EMS funding and development.

Administered by the Department of Transportation (DOT) through the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).

Question 10

List the three hierarchies of the National EMS Scope of Practice.

Answer 10

1. medical direction
2. state EMS offices
3. National EMS Scope of Practice Model

Question 11

Which consent is applied when the patient is unconscious and unresponsive?

Answer 11

implied consent

Question 12

Quality Control and Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) exist under which component of the EMS Agenda for the Future Components?

Answer 12

evaluation

Question 13

List the six bars of the Star of Life.

Answer 13

1. Detection
2. Reporting
3. Response
4. On-scene care
5. Care in transit
6. Transfer to definitive care

Question 14

What is the EMTs’ first and ongoing responsibility on every scene?

Answer 14

safety

Question 15

Stressors from work, home, family, and finances are examples of which type of stress?

Answer 15

cumulative

Question 16

What are the three types of stressors?

Answer 16

1. acute
2. delayed
3. cumulative

Question 17

True or False:

Correct handwashing is the best way to resist infectious diseases.

Answer 17

True

Wash hands with soap and warm water for at least 20 seconds.

Question 18

What are the five stages of grief?

Answer 18

1. denial
2. anger
3. bargaining
4. depression
5. acceptance

Question 19

The spouse of the patient has just been informed that the patient has died, and they respond by slamming furniture and punching the wall.

Which stage of grief is the spouse demonstrating?

Answer 19

anger

Question 20

Where can I find key Brainscape advice on how to pass the NREMT Paramedic exam and overcome common test prep challenges?

Answer 20

Brainscape’s Paramedic & EMT Academy

Rate this card a 5 if you don’t need to see it again.

Discover:
* How to crush your EMT training
* What to expect from EMT school
* The best EMS YouTube podcast for EMT students

Question 21

True or False:

Bargaining is the first stage experienced when someone is going through the five stages of grief.

Answer 21

False

The stages of grief are not experienced in a fixed order and vary by individual and situation.

Question 22

Whose signatures must be on a Do Not Resuscitate form?

(DNR)

Answer 22

• doctor
• power of attorney for the patient
• patient

Question 23

Fill in the blank.

A Patient Care Report (PCR) is protected by ______ ________ _______ ___ _____________ ___.

(HIPAA)

Answer 23

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

A Patient Care Report is also considered Protected Health Information (PHI).

Question 24

Which seems to be the problem today, open or closed communication?

Answer 24

open communication

Question 25

List **five special populations** that would require additional considerations during **communication**.

Answer 25

* elderly * pediatric * hearing impaired * visually impaired * language barriers

Question 26

Why does the National Emergency Medical Services Information System **collect information** from prehospital or patient care report (PCR)? | (NEMSIS)

Answer 26

research ## Footnote Go to [EMS Gov](http://www.ems.gov) for additional research information.

Question 27

List the **five** components of documentation using the **CHART Method**.

Answer 27

* **C**hief Complaint/Complaining of * **H**istory of event/pertinent medical * **A**ssessment * **R** (RX) treatment plan * **T**ransport

Question 28

# True or False: Documentation of patient care provides for continuity of patient care and is a legal document.

Answer 28

True

Question 29

The following is a list of information that is documented in what section of a **patient care report**? * Times of procedures * Physical and patient historical findings * Care provided * Patient responses or changes * Scene observations * Patient disposition * Refusal considerations * Staff person(s) name that received patient

Answer 29

narrative

Question 30

You have **written incorrect information** on a paper patient care report. What should you do?

Answer 30

Draw a **single line through the error**, write your initials, and include the date of the correction.

Question 31

# Fill in the blank. If information was accidentally **not recorded** on the patient care report, the EMT should submit a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 31

addendum ## Footnote An addendum is a signed and dated supplement to the original report, explaining the omission.

Question 32

# True or False: When providing patient care and documenting, it is acceptable to estimate vital signs after a baseline set has been taken.

Answer 32

False

Question 33

# Define: base station

Answer 33

It is any **radio equipment containing a receiver and transmitter** that is located in a fixed space, typically placed in the cab of an ambulance.

Question 34

# True or False: A repeater-based system will both repeat any information you speak into it and intensify a signal on a second frequency.

Answer 34

True ## Footnote A repeater receives a signal and retransmits it at a higher power on a different frequency, extending communication range.

Question 35

Which **agency** is responsible for **licensing base stations and assigning appropriate call signs** for those stations?

Answer 35

Federal Communications Commission | (FCC)

Question 36

List the **six contacts** with dispatch when **responding to a call**.

Answer 36

1. Receiving call information 2. En route to the call 3. On scene 4. Transport 5. Arrival at the hospital or receiving facility 6. Return to service

Question 37

# True or False: The patient handoff report should be more detailed than the radio call-in when communicating patient care and transport information.

Answer 37

True ## Footnote Radio reports are brief summaries due to time and bandwidth limits; in-person handoffs allow for a complete history, vitals, treatment response, and concerns.

Question 38

# Fill in the blank. The act of **providing care** for a patient who is **competently refusing care** is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 38

battery ## Footnote Battery occurs when care is administered without informed consent, even with good intent. Informed refusal must be documented and respected.

Question 39

You have stopped at a motor vehicle collision that you have witnessed while off duty. The occupant has been ejected and is found to be pulseless and apneic. You initiate CPR with gloves and a face shield. Upon EMS arrival, the patient is pronounced dead. You and the care you provided is **protected by what law**?

Answer 39

Good Samaritan Law

Question 40

What **two factors** commonly define an **EMT's Scope of Practice**?

Answer 40

* The state in which the EMT is **certified** * The protocols and guidance provided by the **medical director** ## Footnote State laws establish legal boundaries, while the medical director sets the local clinical expectations through protocols.

Question 41

# Define: expressed consent

Answer 41

It is when a competent patient **verbally or nonverbally** agrees to receive care after you explain the nature, risks, and benefits of the treatment.

Question 42

List **three** strategies that improve **therapeutic communications**.

Answer 42

1. gentle eye contact 2. body language including facial expressions 3. voice tempo and volume

Question 43

# True or False: It is unnecessary to complete a patient care report including vital signs for a patient who is competent to refuse treatment and transport.

Answer 43

False ## Footnote A PCR must be completed for every patient encounter, even if the patient refuses treatment or transport. Documenting refusals with vital signs, capacity assessment, and signatures protects both patient and provider legally.

Question 44

What are **written standards** of care and allowable treatments called?

Answer 44

standing orders or protocols

Question 45

List **three** examples of **administrative information** found on a patient care report.

Answer 45

* any information provided for billing * equipment and disposable supplies used * run times and mileage

Question 46

# : List **four** components that make up medical terms.

Answer 46

1. word root 2. prefix 3. suffix 4. combining vowels

Question 47

# True or False: The **most** common **combining vowel** in medical terminology is the letter A (a).

Answer 47

False ## Footnote *“O”* helps link word roots and suffixes to make pronunciation easier (e.g., cardi/o/logy).

Question 48

What is a **concern** when using **abbreviations**?

Answer 48

Using abbreviations **correctly or incorrectly** may **cause confusion or errors** leading to inaccurate patient care.

Question 49

# Deconstruct Hyperemesis

Answer 49

Hyper/emesis hyper - (prefix meaning "excessive") emesis - (root word meaning "vomiting") ## Footnote hyperemesis = excessive vomiting

Question 50

# Deconstruct: Asymptomatic

Answer 50

a/symptom/atic * a = prefix meaning “without” * symptom = root meaning “symptom” * atic = suffix meaning “pertaining to” ## Footnote asymptomatic = the absence of symptoms or complaints of symptoms

Question 51

# Deconstruct: Abdominopelvic cavity

Answer 51

Abdomin/o/pelvic cavity * abdomin - (root word meaning "abdomen") * o - combining vowel * pelvic - (root word meaning "pelvis") * cavity - an unfilled space within a mass

Question 52

What is the **abbreviation** for hypertension?

Answer 52

HTN ## Footnote HTN is the commonly used abbreviation in EMS documentation and medical charts.

Question 53

# Describe: anatomical position

Answer 53

It is a person facing **forward** with arms at their side, palms forward.

Question 54

# Describe: coronal plane

Answer 54

The coronal (or frontal) plane **divides the body** into **anterior** (front) and **posterior** (back) sections.

Question 55

At what **anatomical landmark**, does the **transverse or axial plane separate** the top from the bottom body portions?

Answer 55

The transverse (axial) plane runs **horizontally** through the body, commonly referenced at the level of the **umbilicus**.

Question 56

**Differentiate** ligaments and tendons.

Answer 56

* Ligaments connect **bone(s) to bone(s)** * Tendons connect **muscle to bone(s)**

Question 57

Refer to the attached picture and label the skeleton from top left down to top right down.

Answer 57

* Cranium/Skull * Shoulder Girdle/Clavicle * Humerus * Pelvis * Femur * Patella * Tarsels * Cervical Vertebrae * Ribs/Intercostal Spaces * Sternum * Radius * Ulna * Tibia * Fibula

Question 58

List **facial bones** of the cranium.

Answer 58

* Frontal * Nasal bone (cartilage) * Zygomatic (cheek bone) * Maxilla (upper jaw) * Mandible (lower jaw)

Question 59

From the top of the spine to the bottom, what are the **vertebrae named and how many** are there?

Answer 59

* Cervical: 7 vertebrae (C1–C7) * Thoracic: 12 vertebrae (T1–T12) * Lumbar: 5 vertebrae (L1–L5) * Sacral: 5 fused vertebrae (S1–S5) * Coccyx: 3–5 fused vertebrae (commonly 4)

Question 60

# True or False: The Appendicular Skeleton includes joints and extremities.

Answer 60

True ## Footnote The appendicular skeleton consists of the limbs and girdles (shoulder and pelvic) that attach them to the axial skeleton.

Question 61

**Differentiate** flexion and extension.

Answer 61

* **Flexion** is a movement that decreases the angle between body parts (bending). * **Extension** increases the angle (straightening).

Question 62

What are **two** examples of a **ball and socket joint**?

Answer 62

**hip** and **shoulder girdle**

Question 63

List **three** bones of the **shoulder girdle**.

Answer 63

* clavicle * scapula * humerus

Question 64

# True or False: The greater trochanter and lesser trochanter are anchor points of the femur.

Answer 64

True ## Footnote The greater and lesser trochanter are located at the proximal portion of the femur. These are major muscle attachment sites used as landmarks in assessing hip injuries.

Question 65

# True or False: The index phalange is distal to the ulna.

Answer 65

True ## Footnote “Distal” means further from the trunk. The index finger lies beyond (distal to) the ulna in anatomical position.

Question 66

List **three** types of muscles and whether they are **voluntary** or **involuntary**.

Answer 66

1. **skeletal** (voluntary) 2. **smooth** (involuntary) 3. **cardiac** (involuntary)

Question 67

What are **common phrases** when referring to the **sympathetic** and **parasympathetic** nervous systems?

Answer 67

* Sympathetic Autonomic Nervous System: "**fight, flight or freeze**" * Parasympathetic Autonomic Nervous System: "**rest and digest**" ## Footnote These describe the body’s autonomic responses to stress vs. recovery.

Question 68

What does the **sagittal plane** divide the body into?

Answer 68

1. right/left 2. medial/lateral

Question 69

What body plane divides the body into **inferior/superior**?

Answer 69

transverse plane

Question 70

List the **organs** that chyme passes through, starting from the point it is formed in the digestive tract. ## Footnote Following the path of digestion, starting at the mouth.

Answer 70

* Stomach * Small intestine (duodenum → jejunum → ileum) * Large intestine (cecum → ascending colon → transverse colon → descending colon → sigmoid colon) * Rectum * Anus ## Footnote Chyme is formed in the stomach when food is mixed with gastric secretions. It then travels through the small and large intestines for nutrient absorption and waste elimination.

Question 71

What is the **function** of the gallbladder?

Answer 71

It **stores bile** produced from the liver and **delivers the bile** into the **small intestine to break down fatty food**.

Question 72

What are the **two components** that make up the **central nervous system**? | (CNS)

Answer 72

* brain * spinal cord

Question 73

**Differentiate** Anatomy and Physiology.

Answer 73

* **Anatomy** identifies **structures of organs and tissues**. * **Physiology** is the **study of body functions**.