Congenital and Perinatal Infections Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

What is perinatal infection?

A

Infectious during time of delivery

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2
Q

When is ascending infection most common?

A

When the placenta has ruptured

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3
Q

How does maternal infection lead to premature delivery or fetal death

A

Direct end-organ damage, chronic infection

non-specific effect. Mum is too weak to have baby

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4
Q

When is the Varicella virus vaccine given?

A

at 18 months, with the MMRV vaccine

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5
Q

Why is MMR given at 12 months?

A

Prevent cross reaction with maternal antibody

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6
Q

What is anthem and enanthem?

A
anthem = rash on surface of the body 
enanthem = rash on mouth
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7
Q

What are the common herpes virus that affect humans

A

CMV
HSV type 1 + 2
Varicella Zoster
EBV

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8
Q

What is chicken pox?

A

Primary VZV infection

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9
Q

Where does VZV become dormant? What is it called if it reactivates?

A

DRG

Shingles

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10
Q

What is the typical presentation of VZV?

A

fever, lethargy, rash in 24 hours
Pruritic vesicular rash with ulcerated areas

Vesicles shed virus

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11
Q

What are the complication of VZV infection?

A

Secondary bacterial infection due to skin lesions
Pneumonitis
Acute cerebellar ataxia

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12
Q

At what stage of pregnancy is immune-suppression most obvious?

A

third trimester, so primary infection here is most dangerous as baby is most unprotected

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13
Q

T/F Smoking is an independent variable to fetal defect

A

True, it increases the risk of pneumonitis specifically

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14
Q

When is the fetus most susceptible to mental retardation and developmental abnormalities if the mother gets infected by VZV?

A

Primary infection in the first trimester

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15
Q

When will VZV infection cause perinatal varicella

A

Primary infection within 7 days before delivery, as mum doesn’t have the time to mount immune response

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16
Q

What is VZIG?

A

Concentrated preformed immunoglobulin given prophylactically within 96 hours post-exposure

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17
Q

what is the management of acute chicken pox in mothers

A

Acyclovir + negative pressure chamber to limit the spread

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18
Q

T/F We can clear cytomegalovirus

A

False, the infection is life-long

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19
Q

What kind of cell is produced when infected with CMV?

A

multinuclear giant cell

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20
Q

Where does CMV stay latent in?

A

White blood cells

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21
Q

T/F Reactivated CMV is much more infectious

A

False, primary infection is more infectious

22
Q

What is the mode of transmission for CMV?

A

via any body liquid

23
Q

T/F Most of the CMV exposures occur in adults of the developed world

A

True, and most exposures in the developing world are in children

24
Q

What are the common ways for babies to get CMV?

A

horizontal transmission (in day-care centre), or breast milk from mum postnatally

25
2% of the live births will have congenital CMV. How much of the infected will be symptomatic? What are the symptoms?
10% | calcification around brain, microcephaly, significant long term sequelae
26
Can asymptomatic babies develop long term sequelae
Yes, 10-15% will have long term sequelae such as unilateral sensory deafness
27
How do we determine whether CMV infection is early or late?
IgG avidity test for how strongly the antibody binds. Late infection will test for higher avidity
28
T/F IgM is a good diagnosis for acute CMV infection
False, IgM for CMV can persist for a long time, up to 18 months Reactivated CMV can also cause rise of IgM
29
Why is it important to retest for infections
To detect for rising titres of antibody
30
How do we confirm fetal CMV infection?
amniotic fluid testing 6-8 weeks after primary infection, or at 20 weeks gestation
31
If the foetus is symptomatic, what is the management option?
ultrasound to check for microcephaly or calcification
32
Can we assume the baby is safe if the baby has asymptomatic congenital CMV?
No, we need to follow them up, as deafness can take five years to develop
33
What is the treatment of CMV?
Ganciclovir IV for 6 weeks to half the rate of deafness Valganiciclovir can also be added
34
T/F Rubella viral infection can be infectious before symptoms are present
True, virus is shed is large amount in nasopharyngeal secretion
35
What are the typical signs of rubella?
fever, lymphadenopathy in the occipital nodes
36
What is the classic triad of congenital rubella syndrome?
ophthalmological, | cardiac and auditory abnormalities
37
T/F Rubella infection is linked to diabetes and thyroid illness
True, they are the rarer presentations
38
T/F Risk of congenital damage is highest in the third trimester
False, it's in the first trimester when all the organs are forming
39
How do we diagnose congenital rubella syndrome?
fetal amniotic fluid test for rising IgG and IgM (acute infection)
40
Which virus causes "slapped cheek" syndrome?
Parvovirus
41
T/F Parvovirus is self-limiting
True
42
What are the presentations of parvovirus infection?
fine reticular rash on body, cheeck | circum-oral pallor
43
What is Hydrops foetalis?
Parvovirus with haematological abnormalities (sickled cell) that reduce RBC lifespan. HF is a significant anaemia
44
What is the treatment of Hydrops foetalis?
Intrauterine transfusion until the virus is cleared
45
T/F HSV-1 is genital specific
False, HSV-2 is typically genital specific
46
How will HSV be transmitted from the mother to baby?
perinatally during delivery if there is primary infection or reactivation
47
What are the symptoms of congenital HSV infection
skin-eye-mouth disease skin vesicle delayed encephalitis disseminated intravascular coagulation
48
What is the management of herpes?
acyclovir
49
What is the causative agent of syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
50
What are the diagnostic tests for syphilis?
EIA and RPR
51
What symptom can the baby develop if there is congenital Toxoplasma gondii infection?
delayed retinopathy