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Pharma 1 (DUMP) > Derma Pharm - Redo > Flashcards

Derma Pharm - Redo Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following antibiotics is derived from Pseudomonic acid A?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Retapamulin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate
A

b) Mupirocin
Rationale: Mupirocin is derived from Pseudomonic acid A and is effective against most gram-positive aerobic bacteria.

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2
Q
  1. Bacitracin is primarily effective against which type of organisms?
    a) Gram-negative
    b) Gram-positive
    c) Both
    d) Neither
A

b) Gram-positive
Rationale: Bacitracin is active against gram-positive organisms.

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3
Q
  1. Which antibiotic is associated with irritation of mucous membranes due to the polyethylene glycol vehicle?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Neomycin
    d) Retapamulin
A

b) Mupirocin
Rationale: Intranasal mupirocin ointment can cause irritation due to the polyethylene glycol vehicle.

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4
Q
  1. Which antibiotic is available only for topical use due to systemic toxicity?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Gramicidin
    d) Retapamulin
A

c) Gramicidin
Rationale: Gramicidin is available only for topical use because of its systemic toxicity.

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5
Q
  1. Retapamulin is NOT effective against which bacteria?
    a) S. aureus
    b) Group A B-hemolytic streptococci
    c) MRSA
    d) Neisseriae
A

c) MRSA
Rationale: Retapamulin is used for infections caused by group A B-hemolytic streptococci and S. aureus, excluding MRSA.

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6
Q

Polymyxin B Sulfate is a ________ antibiotic.
a) Peptide
b) Aminoglycoside
c) Pseudomonic acid
d) None of the above

A

a) Peptide
Rationale: Polymyxin B Sulfate is classified as a peptide antibiotic.

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following antibiotics is NOT active against E. coli?
    a) Neomycin
    b) Gentamicin
    c) Bacitracin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate
A

c) Bacitracin
Rationale: Bacitracin is primarily active against gram-positive organisms, while the others are active against gram-negative organisms, including E. coli.

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8
Q
  1. Which antibiotic is used for impetigo caused by S. aureus found in the nasal passages?
    a) Mupirocin
    b) Retapamulin
    c) Bacitracin
    d) Gramicidin
A

c) Bacitracin
Rationale: Bacitracin is used for impetigo caused by S. aureus that resides in the nasal passages.

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following antibiotics can lead to potential nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, and ototoxicity in cases of renal failure?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Neomycin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate
A

c) Neomycin
Rationale: In cases of renal failure, aminoglycoside antibiotics like Neomycin can accumulate, leading to potential nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, and ototoxicity.

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10
Q
  1. Which antibiotic is effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Neomycin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate
A

d) Polymyxin B Sulfate
Rationale: Polymyxin B Sulfate is effective against gram-negative organisms, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a peptide antibiotic?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Polymyxin B Sulfate
    c) Neomycin
    d) Gramicidin
A

c) Neomycin
Rationale: Neomycin and Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, while the others are peptide antibiotics.

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12
Q
  1. Which antibiotic is effective against MRSA?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Retapamulin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate
A

b) Mupirocin
Rationale: Mupirocin is effective against most gram-positive aerobic bacteria, including MRSA.

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following antibiotics is NOT active against gram-negative organisms?
    a) Neomycin
    b) Gentamicin
    c) Bacitracin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate
A

c) Bacitracin
Rationale: Bacitracin is primarily active against gram-positive organisms.

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14
Q
  1. Which antibiotic is derived from Pseudomonic acid A and is effective against S. aureus?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Neomycin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate
A

b) Mupirocin
Rationale: Mupirocin is derived from Pseudomonic acid A and is effective against S. aureus.

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following antibiotics is NOT associated with potential nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, and ototoxicity?
    a) Neomycin
    b) Gentamicin
    c) Bacitracin
    d) A&B
A

c) Bacitracin
Rationale: Aminoglycoside antibiotics like Neomycin and Gentamicin can lead to these toxicities in cases of renal failure.

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16
Q
  1. Which antibiotic is used for uncomplicated superficial skin infections caused by group A B-hemolytic streptococci?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Retapamulin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate
A

c) Retapamulin
Rationale: Retapamulin is used for such infections caused by group A B-hemolytic streptococci.

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17
Q
  1. Which antibiotic is poorly absorbed through the skin?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Neomycin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate
A

a) Bacitracin
Rationale: Bacitracin is poorly absorbed through the skin, making systemic toxicity rare.

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following antibiotics is effective against Neisseriae?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Neomycin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate
A

a) Bacitracin
Rationale: Bacitracin is sensitive to several organisms, including:
- Neisseriae.
- Tetanus bacilli
- Diphtheria bacilli

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19
Q
  1. Which antibiotic is available only for topical use due to its systemic toxicity?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Neomycin
    d) Gramicidin
A

d) Gramicidin
Rationale: Gramicidin is available only for topical use because of its systemic toxicity.

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following antibiotics is NOT a peptide antibiotic?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Polymyxin B Sulfate
    c) Neomycin
    d) Gramicidin
A

c) Neomycin
Rationale: Neomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic, while the others are peptide antibiotics.

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21
Q

Which bacteria is primarily targeted by Clindamycin in the treatment of acne?

A) Escherichia coli
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Propionibacterium acnes
D) Streptococcus pyogenes

A

C) Propionibacterium acnes
Rationale: Clindamycin is used to target Propionibacterium acnes, which is responsible for acne.

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22
Q

What percentage of an applied dose of Clindamycin is typically absorbed?

A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 50%
D) 90%

A

B) 10%
Rationale: Approximately 10% of an applied dose of Clindamycin is absorbed.

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23
Q

Which combination is NOT available for Clindamycin?

A) Benzoyl peroxide
B) Tretinoin
C) Salicylic acid
D) None of the above

A

C) Salicylic acid
Rationale: Clindamycin is available in combination with benzoyl peroxide and tretinoin but not with salicylic acid.

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24
Q

Erythromycin’s presumed mechanism of action in treating acne is due to its inhibitory effects on:

A) Neutrophil cellular function
B) Propionibacterium acnes
C) Demodex brevis
D) p-aminobenzoic acid utilization

A

B) Propionibacterium acnes
Rationale: Erythromycin is believed to work due to its inhibitory effects on Propionibacterium acnes.

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25
Q

Metronidazole is primarily used to treat:

A) Acne
B) Rosacea
C) Eczema
D) Psoriasis

A

B) Rosacea
Rationale: Metronidazole is primarily used for the treatment of rosacea.

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26
Q

Which mite is targeted by Metronidazole?

A) Sarcoptes scabiei
B) Demodex folliculorum
C) Demodex brevis
D) Ixodes scapularis

A

C) Demodex brevis
Rationale: Metronidazole targets Demodex brevis.

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27
Q

Sodium Sulfacetamide inhibits Propionibacterium acnes by:

A) Destroying its cell wall
B) Inhibiting protein synthesis
C) Competitive inhibition of p-aminobenzoic acid utilization
D) Disrupting its DNA replication

A

C) Competitive inhibition of p-aminobenzoic acid utilization
Rationale: Sodium Sulfacetamide works by competitively inhibiting p-aminobenzoic acid utilization.

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28
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for Sodium Sulfacetamide?

A) Pregnancy
B) Hypersensitivity to sulfonamides
C) Liver disease
D) Kidney disease

A

B) Hypersensitivity to sulfonamides
Rationale: Sodium Sulfacetamide is contraindicated in patients with a known hypersensitivity to sulfonamides.

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29
Q

The exact mechanism of action for which drug is unknown?

A) Clindamycin
B) Erythromycin
C) Dapsone
D) Metronidazole

A

C) Dapsone
Rationale: The exact mechanism of action for Dapsone is unknown.

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30
Q

Which side effect is associated with the combination of Dapsone gel and benzoyl peroxide?
A) Red discoloration of the skin
B) Temporary yellow discoloration of the skin and hair
C) Severe itching
D) Formation of blisters

A

B) Temporary yellow discoloration of the skin and hair
Rationale: Applying dapsone gel followed by benzoyl peroxide can cause a temporary yellow discoloration of the skin and hair.

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31
Q

Which condition might be exacerbated in patients with G6PD deficiency when using Dapsone?
A) Anemia
B) Hypertension
C) Diabetes
D) Asthma

A

A) Anemia
Rationale: A slight decrease in hemoglobin concentration can occur in patients with G6PD deficiency when using Dapsone, suggesting mild hemolysis or anemia.

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32
Q

Which medication has a direct effect on neutrophil cellular function?
A) Clindamycin
B) Erythromycin
C) Metronidazole
D) Dapsone

A

C) Metronidazole
Rationale: Metronidazole has a direct effect on neutrophil cellular function.

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33
Q

Which medication is available in a fixed-combination with benzoyl peroxide?
A) Clindamycin
B) Erythromycin
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

A

C) Both A and B
Rationale: Both Clindamycin and Erythromycin are available in fixed-combinations with benzoyl peroxide.

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34
Q

Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with a known hypersensitivity to sulfonamides?
A) Clindamycin
B) Erythromycin
C) Sodium Sulfacetamide
D) Dapsone

A

C) Sodium Sulfacetamide
Rationale: Sodium Sulfacetamide is contraindicated in patients with a known hypersensitivity to sulfonamides.

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a topical azole derivative?

A) Clotrimazole
B) Econazole
C) Ciclopirox Olamine
D) Miconazole

A

C) Ciclopirox Olamine
Rationale: Ciclopirox Olamine is not an azole derivative; it belongs to a different class of antifungals.

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36
Q
  1. Which antifungal agent is recommended for twice-daily applications to treat seborrheic dermatitis?

A) Clotrimazole
B) Ketoconazole
C) Terbinafine
D) Nystatin

A

B) Ketoconazole
Rationale: Ketoconazole is recommended for twice-daily applications to treat seborrheic dermatitis.

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37
Q
  1. What is the primary action site of Ciclopirox Olamine in fungi?

A) Fungal cell nucleus
B) Fungal cell wall
C) Fungal cell membrane
D) Fungal mitochondria

A

C) Fungal cell membrane
Rationale: Ciclopirox Olamine likely acts on the fungal cell membrane.

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38
Q
  1. Which antifungal has a complete cure rate of less than 12% in clinical trials for onychomycosis?

A) Ketoconazole
B) Terbinafine
C) Ciclopirox Olamine
D) Butenafine

A

C) Ciclopirox Olamine
Rationale: 8% ciclopirox olamine (Penlac nail lacquer) has a complete cure rate of less than 12% in clinical trials for onychomycosis.

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an activity of Allylamines?

A) Highly active against dermatophytes
B) Treatment of athlete’s foot
C) Effective against Candida
D) Treatment of ringworm

A

C) Effective against Candida
Rationale: Allylamines are less active against yeasts like Candida.

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40
Q
  1. Butenafine is structurally related to which of the following?

A) Azoles
B) Allylamines
C) Nystatin
D) Tolnaftate

A

B) Allylamines
Rationale: Butenafine is a benzylamine that is structurally related to the allylamines.

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41
Q
  1. Which antifungal agent is effective against Epidermophyton, Microsporum, and Trichophyton but not against Candida?

A) Tolnaftate
B) Ketoconazole
C) Terbinafine
D) Nystatin

A

A) Tolnaftate
Rationale: Tolnaftate is effective against Epidermophyton, Microsporum, and Trichophyton but not against Candida.

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42
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a use of Nystatin?

A) Treatment of oral thrush
B) Treatment of onychomycosis
C) Vaginal infections
D) Topical therapy of C albicans infections

A

B) Treatment of onychomycosis
Rationale: Nystatin is not used for the treatment of onychomycosis, NOT EFFECTIVE AGAINST DERMATOPHYTES.

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43
Q
  1. Which antifungal agent inhibits the epoxidation of squalene?

A) Butenafine
B) Terbinafine
C) Ketoconazole
D) Tolnaftate

A

A) Butenafine
Rationale: Butenafine inhibits the epoxidation of squalene, blocking ergosterol synthesis in fungal cell membranes.

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44
Q
  1. Which of the following antifungals is NOT effective against dermatophytes?

A) Nystatin
B) Tolnaftate
C) Ketoconazole
D) Terbinafine

A

A) Nystatin
Rationale: Nystatin and Amphotericin B are useful for the topical therapy of C albicans infections but is ineffective against dermatophytes.

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45
Q
  1. What is the primary mechanism of action of Ciclopirox Olamine?

A) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
B) Inhibition of protein synthesis
C) Inhibition of the uptake of precursors of macromolecular synthesis
D) Disruption of fungal cell wall

A

C) Inhibition of the uptake of precursors of macromolecular synthesis
Rationale: Ciclopirox Olamine appears to inhibit the uptake of precursors of macromolecular synthesis.

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46
Q
  1. Which of the following antifungals is also used in the treatment of dandruff?

A) Clotrimazole
B) Ketoconazole
C) Ciclopirox Olamine
D) Terbinafine

A

C) Ciclopirox Olamine
Rationale: Ciclopirox Olamine is also used in the treatment of dandruff.

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47
Q
  1. Which antifungal agent is recommended for the treatment of athlete’s foot, ringworm, and jock itch?

A) Naftifine
B) Ketoconazole
C) Ciclopirox Olamine
D) Nystatin

A

A) Naftifine
Rationale:
Allylamines, including Naftifine & Terbinafine are recommended for the treatment of skin infections caused by fungi, including athlete’s foot, ringworm, and jock itch.

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48
Q
  1. Which of the following antifungals is a benzylamine?

A) Butenafine
B) Terbinafine
C) Ketoconazole
D) Tolnaftate

A

A) Butenafine
Rationale: Butenafine is a benzylamine that is structurally related to the allylamines.

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49
Q
  1. Which antifungal agent is used as a vaginal tablet or suppository?

A) Ketoconazole
B) Terbinafine
C) Ciclopirox Olamine
D) Nystatin

A

D) Nystatin
Rationale: Nystatin is used as a vaginal tablet or suppository for the treatment of C albicans infections.

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50
Q
  1. Which antifungal agent has a combination with corticosteroids to provide rapid symptomatic improvement?

A) Clotrimazole
B) Tolnaftate
C) Terbinafine
D) Nystatin

A

A) Clotrimazole
Rationale: Topical azole derivatives, including Clotrimazole, have combinations with corticosteroids to provide rapid symptomatic improvement.

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51
Q
  1. Which antifungal agent acts by inhibiting the epoxidation of squalene?

A) Butenafine
B) Terbinafine
C) Ketoconazole
D) Tolnaftate

A

A) Butenafine
Rationale: Butenafine inhibits the epoxidation of squalene, blocking ergosterol synthesis in fungal cell membranes.

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52
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a use of Ciclopirox Olamine?

A) Treatment of dermatomycosis
B) Treatment of candidiasis
C) Treatment of oral thrush
D) Treatment of tinea versicolor

A

C) Treatment of oral thrush
Rationale: Ciclopirox Olamine is not used for the treatment of oral thrush. It is used for dermatomycosis, candidiasis, and tinea versicolor.

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53
Q

Which oral antifungal agent displays a high degree of water solubility?

A) Itraconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Fluconazole

A

D) Fluconazole
Rationale: Fluconazole is known for its high water solubility and good cerebrospinal fluid penetration.

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54
Q

Which agent is derived from a species of penicillium?

A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

B) Griseofulvin
Rationale: Griseofulvin is a very insoluble fungistatic drug derived from a species of penicillium.

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55
Q

Which antifungal agent inhibits the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase?

A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

C) Terbinafine
Rationale: Terbinafine interferes with ergosterol biosynthesis by inhibiting the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase.

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56
Q

Which antifungal agent’s absorption is increased by food and low gastric pH?

A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

D) Itraconazole
Rationale: Itraconazole’s absorption from capsules is increased by food and by low gastric pH.

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56
Q

Which antifungal agent is recommended for onychomycosis with a dose of 250 mg/day?

A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

C) Terbinafine
Rationale: Terbinafine is recommended for onychomycosis with a dose of 250 mg/day.
Itraconazole : 200 mg/day

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56
Q

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for Fluconazole?

A) Combining with midazolam
B) Combining with triazolam
C) Combining with HMG-Co reductase inhibitors
D) Combining with aspirin

A

D) Combining with aspirin
Rationale: There’s no specific contraindication mentioned for combining fluconazole with aspirin.

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56
Q

Which antifungal agent binds to keratin in newly forming skin?

A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

B) Griseofulvin
Rationale: Griseofulvin binds to keratin in newly forming skin, protecting the skin from new infection.

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56
Q

Which antifungal agent is known to have the widest therapeutic index among azoles?

A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

A) Fluconazole
Rationale: Due to fewer hepatic enzyme interactions and better gastrointestinal tolerance, fluconazole has the widest therapeutic index of the azoles.

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56
Q

Which antifungal agent is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare?

A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

B) Griseofulvin
Rationale: Griseofulvin is effective against dermatophyte infections but is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare.

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56
Q

Which antifungal agent’s absorption is best in an acidic medium?
A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

D) Itraconazole
Rationale: Itraconazole is best absorbed in an acidic medium.

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56
Q

Which antifungal agent does not seem to affect the P450 system?
A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

C) Terbinafine
Rationale: Terbinafine does not seem to affect the P450 system and has demonstrated no significant drug interactions to date.

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56
Q

Which antifungal agent’s absorption is not affected by food?
A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

A) Fluconazole
Rationale: Fluconazole’s absorption is not mentioned to be affected by food, unlike Itraconazole.

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56
Q

Which antifungal agent is used extensively in the treatment of dermatophytoses and onychomycosis?
A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

D) Itraconazole
Rationale: Itraconazole is used extensively in the treatment of dermatophytoses and onychomycosis.

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56
Q

Which antifungal agent’s mechanism of action at the cellular level is unclear but is deposited in newly forming skin?
A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

B) Griseofulvin
Rationale: Griseofulvin’s mechanism of action at the cellular level is unclear, but it is deposited in newly forming skin where it binds to keratin.

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57
Q

Which antifungal agent is used prophylactically in bone marrow transplant recipients and AIDS patients?
A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

A) Fluconazole
Rationale: Prophylactic use of fluconazole has been demonstrated to reduce fungal disease in bone marrow transplant recipients and AIDS patients.

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58
Q

Which antifungal agent is derived from a species of penicillium and is very insoluble?
A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

B) Griseofulvin
Rationale: Griseofulvin is a very insoluble fungistatic drug derived from a species of penicillium.

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59
Q

Which antifungal agent’s absorption is increased when taken with fruit juice?
A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

D) Itraconazole
Rationale: Itraconazole is best absorbed in an acidic medium, and taking it with fruit juice will facilitate the absorption of the drug.

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60
Q

Which antifungal agent is known for its pulse dosing recommendation?
A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

D) Itraconazole
Rationale: Itraconazole has a recommendation for pulse dosing, especially for onychomycosis.

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61
Q

Which antifungal agent is recommended for mucocutaneous candidiasis with a dose of 100 mg/day?
A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

A) Fluconazole
Rationale: Fluconazole is recommended for mucocutaneous candidiasis with a dose of 100 mg/day.

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62
Q

Which antifungal agent is known to be keratophilic?
A) Fluconazole
B) Griseofulvin
C) Terbinafine
D) Itraconazole

A

B) Griseofulvin
Rationale: Griseofulvin is known to be keratophilic as it binds to keratin in newly forming skin.

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63
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a synthetic guanine analog with inhibitory activity against the herpesvirus family?

A) Acyclovir

B) Valacyclovir

C) Penciclovir

D) Amoxicillin

A

D) Amoxicillin

Rationale: Amoxicillin is an antibiotic and not a synthetic guanine analog used against herpesviruses.

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64
Q

Topical penciclovir (Denavir) is available as a ___ cream.

A) 0.5%

B) 1%

C) 2%

D) 5%

A

B) 1%

Rationale: The text mentions that topical penciclovir (Denavir) is available as a 1% cream.

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65
Q

Acyclovir selectively inhibits the replication of which of the following viruses?

A) HSV-1 only

B) HSV-2 only

C) Both HSV-1 and HSV-2

D) Neither HSV-1 nor HSV-2

A

C) Both HSV-1 and HSV-2

Rationale: Acyclovir inhibits the replication of both HSV types 1 and 2.

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66
Q
  1. Which enzyme converts acyclovir to acyclovir monophosphate?

A) DNA polymerase

B) Ribonuclease

C) Thymidine kinase

D) Helicase

A

C) Thymidine kinase

Rationale: Acyclovir is converted to acyclovir monophosphate by virally encoded thymidine kinase.

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67
Q
  1. Acyclovir triphosphate inhibits which enzyme?

A) DNA ligase

B) RNA polymerase

C) DNA polymerase

D) Reverse transcriptase

A

C) DNA polymerase

Rationale: Acyclovir triphosphate competitively inhibits viral DNA polymerase.

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68
Q
  1. The absence of which group in acyclovir triphosphate results in chain termination when incorporated into viral DNA?

A) 5’ phosphate group

B) 2’ hydroxyl group

C) 3’ hydroxyl group

D) Methyl group

A

C) 3’ hydroxyl group

Rationale: The absence of a 3’ hydroxyl group in acyclovir triphosphate prevents the attachment of additional nucleosides, leading to chain termination.

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69
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of acyclovir triphosphate?

A) Acts as an analog to dGTP

B) Converts RNA to DNA

C) Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

D) Causes chain termination in viral DNA

A

B) Converts RNA to DNA

Rationale: Acyclovir triphosphate does not convert RNA to DNA. It acts as an analog to dGTP, inhibits viral DNA polymerase, and causes chain termination in viral DNA.

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70
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is available as a 5% ointment?

A) Penciclovir

B) Famciclovir

C) Valacyclovir

D) Acyclovir

A

D) Acyclovir

Rationale: Acyclovir is available as a 5% ointment.

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71
Q
  1. Which virus is NOT mentioned as being inhibited by acyclovir?

A) HSV-1

B) HSV-2

C) VZV

D) HIV

A

D) HIV

Rationale: The text mentions that acyclovir inhibits HSV-1, HSV-2, and VZV, but not HIV.

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72
Q
  1. Which of the following is a nucleoside analog?

A) Acyclovir

B) Penicillin

C) Insulin

D) Epinephrine

A

A) Acyclovir

Rationale: Acyclovir is described as a nucleoside analog that selectively inhibits the replication of certain viruses.

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73
Q
  1. Which of the following is a use of Imiquimod?
    A) Treatment of fungal infections
    B) Treatment of external genital and perianal warts in adults
    C) Treatment of bacterial infections
    D) Treatment of viral respiratory infections
A

B) Treatment of external genital and perianal warts in adults
Rationale: Imiquimod is used for the treatment of external genital and perianal warts in adults.

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74
Q
  1. What concentration of Imiquimod is found in Zyclara?
    A) 1%
    B) 2.5%
    C) 3.75%
    D) 5%
A

C) 3.75%
Rationale: Zyclara contains Imiquimod in a concentration of 3.75%.

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75
Q
  1. Which cytokine is NOT stimulated by Imiquimod?
    A) IL-1
    B) IL-5
    C) IL-6
    D) TNF-a
A

B) IL-5
Rationale: Imiquimod stimulates the production of IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, and TNF-a, but not IL-5.

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76
Q
  1. Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus are primarily used for which skin condition?
    A) Psoriasis
    B) Acne
    C) Atopic dermatitis
    D) Rosacea
A

C) Atopic dermatitis
Rationale: Both Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus are indicated for the treatment of mild to moderate atopic dermatitis.

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77
Q
  1. Which of the following is an off-label use of Tacrolimus?
    A) Vitiligo
    B) Psoriasis
    C) Acne
    D) Rosacea
A

A) Vitiligo
Rationale: Tacrolimus has an off-label use for the treatment of vitiligo.

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78
Q
  1. Which drug is the drug of choice for Molluscum contagiosum in children?
    A) Tacrolimus
    B) Pimecrolimus
    C) Imiquimod
    D) Acyclovir
A

C) Imiquimod
Rationale: Imiquimod is the drug of choice for treating Molluscum contagiosum in children.

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79
Q
  1. What is the most common side effect of both Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus?
    A) Dryness
    B) Itching
    C) Burning sensation
    D) Redness
A

C) Burning sensation
Rationale: The most common side effect of both drugs is a burning sensation in the applied area.

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80
Q
  1. Which drug has a black box warning due to animal tumorigenicity data?
    A) Imiquimod
    B) Tacrolimus
    C) Pimecrolimus
    D) Both B and C
A

D) Both B and C
Rationale: Both Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus have a black box warning due to animal tumorigenicity data.

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81
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a mode of action of Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus?
    A) Inhibition of T-lymphocyte activation
    B) Stimulation of macrophages
    C) Prevention of inflammatory cytokine release from mast cells
    D) Stimulation of peripheral mononuclear cells
A

D) Stimulation of peripheral mononuclear cells
Rationale: Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus inhibit T-lymphocyte activation and prevent the release of inflammatory cytokines from mast cells but do not stimulate peripheral mononuclear cells.

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82
Q
  1. Imiquimod is applied how many times per week for wart treatment?
    A) Once
    B) Twice
    C) Three times
    D) Daily
A

C) Three times
Rationale: Imiquimod is applied to the wart tissue three times per week.

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83
Q
  1. Which drug is used for the treatment of actinic keratoses on the face and scalp?
    A) Tacrolimus
    B) Pimecrolimus
    C) Imiquimod
    D) Acyclovir
A

C) Imiquimod
Rationale: Imiquimod is used for the treatment of actinic keratoses on the face and scalp.

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84
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is NOT a macrolide immunosuppressant?
    A) Tacrolimus
    B) Pimecrolimus
    C) Imiquimod
    D) Both A and B
A

C) Imiquimod
Rationale: Only Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus are classified as macrolide immunosuppressants.

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85
Q
  1. What is the absorption rate of Imiquimod following a single-dose application?
    A) Less than 0.9%
    B) About 5%
    C) About 10%
    D) More than 20%
A

A) Less than 0.9%
Rationale: Percutaneous absorption of Imiquimod is minimal, with less than 0.9% absorbed following a single-dose application.

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86
Q
  1. Which drug is approved for use in children older than 2 years of age for atopic dermatitis?
    A) Tacrolimus 0.03% ointment
    B) Pimecrolimus 1% cream
    C) Both A and B
    D) Neither A nor B
A

C) Both A and B
Rationale: Both Tacrolimus 0.03% ointment and Pimecrolimus 1% cream are approved for use in children older than 2 years of age for atopic dermatitis.

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87
Q
  1. Imiquimod stimulates the release of which interferon?
    A) Interferon beta
    B) Interferon gamma
    C) Interferon alpha
    D) Interferon delta
A

C) Interferon alpha
Rationale: Imiquimod stimulates peripheral mononuclear cells to release interferon alpha.

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88
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the mode of action of Imiquimod?
    A) Inhibition of T-lymphocyte activation
    B) Stimulation of macrophages to produce IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, TNF-a
    C) Prevention of inflammatory cytokine release from mast cells
    D) Direct antiviral activity
A

B) Stimulation of macrophages to produce IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, TNF-a
Rationale: Imiquimod stimulates macrophages to produce interleukins (IL-1, IL-6, IL-8) and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a).

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89
Q
  1. Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus primarily act by:
    A) Stimulating peripheral mononuclear cells to release interferon alpha
    B) Directly killing bacteria on the skin
    C) Inhibiting T-lymphocyte activation
    D) Increasing the production of sebum
A

C) Inhibiting T-lymphocyte activation
Rationale: Both Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus inhibit T-lymphocyte activation as their primary mode of action.

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90
Q

Which of the following best describes the primary mode of action of Imiquimod?
A) Direct antiviral activity against HPV.
B) Inhibition of DNA replication in rapidly dividing cells.
C) Stimulation of peripheral mononuclear cells to release interferon alpha and stimulation of macrophages to produce various interleukins.
D) Inhibition of T-lymphocyte activation.

A

C) Stimulation of peripheral mononuclear cells to release interferon alpha and stimulation of macrophages to produce various interleukins.
Rationale: Imiquimod’s primary MOA involves stimulating peripheral mononuclear cells to release interferon alpha and stimulating macrophages to produce interleukins (IL-1, IL-6, IL-8) and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a). It does not have direct antiviral activity or inhibit T-lymphocyte activation.

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91
Q
  1. Which of the following is toxic to Sarcoptes scabiei?

A. Spinosad
B. Ivermectin
C. Permethrin
D. Lindane

A

C. Permethrin
Rationale: Permethrin is listed as toxic to Sarcoptes scabiei.

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92
Q
  1. Which drug is derived from the fermentation of a soil Actinomyces bacterium?

A. Permethrin
B. Spinosad
C. Ivermectin
D. Lindane

A

B. Spinosad
Rationale: Spinosad is derived from the fermentation of a soil Actinomyces bacterium.

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93
Q
  1. Which drug should not be repeated without health care provider recommendation?

A. Permethrin
B. Spinosad
C. Ivermectin
D. Lindane

A

C. Ivermectin
Rationale: Ivermectin is for single use only and should not be repeated without a health care provider’s recommendation.

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94
Q
  1. Lindane is concentrated in which of the following after absorption?

A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Fatty tissues
D. Blood

A

C. Fatty tissues
Rationale: After absorption, Lindane is concentrated in fatty tissues, including the brain.

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95
Q
  1. Which drug has an unpleasant odor and is disagreeable to use?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

B. Sulfur
Rationale: Sulfur has an unpleasant odor and is known to be disagreeable to use.

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96
Q
  1. Which drug is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

C. Malathion
Rationale: Malathion is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor.

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97
Q
  1. Which drug’s treatment must be repeated after 7 days as it is not ovicidal?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

D. Benzyl Alcohol
Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol is not ovicidal, so its treatment must be repeated after 7 days.

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98
Q
  1. Which drug is used as a 1% shampoo or lotion for pediculosis capitis or pubis?

A. Permethrin
B. Spinosad
C. Ivermectin
D. Lindane

A

D. Lindane
Rationale: Lindane is used as a 1% shampoo or lotion for pediculosis capitis or pubis.

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99
Q
  1. Which drug’s mechanism of action is not known?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

A. Crotamiton
Rationale: The mechanism of action for Crotamiton is not known.

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100
Q
  1. Which drug is available as a 5% lotion for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

D. Benzyl Alcohol
Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol is available as a 5% lotion for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months.

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101
Q
  1. Which drug is hydrolyzed and inactivated by plasma carboxylesterases much faster in humans than in insects?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

C. Malathion
Rationale: Malathion is hydrolyzed and inactivated by plasma carboxylesterases much faster in humans than in insects.

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102
Q
  1. Which drug is toxic to Pthirus pubis?

A. Permethrin
B. Spinosad
C. Ivermectin
D. Lindane

A

A. Permethrin
Rationale: Permethrin is listed as toxic to Pthirus pubis.

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103
Q
  1. Which drug is derived from a soil Actinomyces bacterium?

A. Permethrin
B. Spinosad
C. Ivermectin
D. Lindane

A

B. Spinosad
Rationale: Spinosad is derived from the fermentation of a soil Actinomyces bacterium.

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104
Q
  1. Which scabicide drug’s treatment involves 2 applications to the entire body from the chin down at 24-hour intervals?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

A. Crotamiton
Rationale: Crotamiton’s suggested treatment involves 2 applications to the entire body from the chin down at 24-hour intervals.

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105
Q
  1. Which drug is an alternative for infants and pregnant women?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

B. Sulfur
Rationale: Sulfur is an alternative drug for infants and pregnant women.

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106
Q
  1. Which drug is available as a 0.5% lotion that should be applied to the hair when dry?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

C. Malathion
Rationale: Malathion is available as a 0.5% lotion that should be applied to the hair when dry.

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107
Q
  1. Which drug has a known adverse effect of eye irritation?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

D. Benzyl Alcohol
Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol has a known adverse effect of eye irritation.

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108
Q
  1. Which drug’s treatment involves a single application of lotion (1%)60mL application to the entire body from the neck down?

A. Permethrin
B. Spinosad
C. Ivermectin
D. Lindane

A

D. Lindane
Rationale: Lindane’s treatment involves a single 60mL application to the entire body from the neck down.

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109
Q
  1. Which drug is toxic to Pediculus humanus?

A. Permethrin
B. Spinosad
C. Ivermectin
D. Lindane

A

A. Permethrin
Rationale: Permethrin is listed as toxic to Pediculus humanus.

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110
Q
  1. Which drug is used for the topical treatment of head lice in patients 4 years old and older?

A. Permethrin
B. Spinosad
C. Ivermectin
D. Lindane

A

B. Spinosad
Rationale: Spinosad is used for the topical treatment of head lice in patients 4 years old and older.

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111
Q
  1. Which drug has a known adverse effect of allergic contact dermatitis?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

D. Benzyl Alcohol
Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol has a known adverse effect of allergic contact dermatitis.

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112
Q
  1. Which drug’s mechanism of action involves inhibiting cholinesterase?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

C. Malathion
Rationale: Malathion is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor.

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113
Q
  1. Which drug is used as a scabicide with some antipruritic properties?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

A. Crotamiton
Rationale: Crotamiton is used as a scabicide with some antipruritic properties.

114
Q
  1. Which drug’s treatment must be applied to dry hair and left for 10 minutes prior to rinsing off with water?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

D. Benzyl Alcohol
Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol’s treatment must be applied to dry hair and left for 10 minutes prior to rinsing off with water.

115
Q
  1. Which drug is used as a scabicide and is an alternative for infants and pregnant women?

A. Crotamiton
B. Sulfur
C. Malathion
D. Benzyl Alcohol

A

B. Sulfur
Rationale: Sulfur is used as a scabicide and is an alternative drug for infants and pregnant women.

116
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a type of sunscreen?

A. Chemical Sunscreen
B. Physical Sunscreen
C. Reflective Sunscreen
D. Sunshades

A

C. Reflective Sunscreen
Rationale: The provided information mentions Chemical Sunscreens and Physical Sunscreens (also known as Sunshades) but does not mention any “Reflective Sunscreen.”

117
Q
  1. Which compound is most effective in the UVB region?

A. Benzophenones
B. Dibenzoylmethane
C. p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
D. Titanium Dioxide

A

C. p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
Rationale: PABA and its esters are mentioned as the most effective absorbers in the UVB region.

118
Q
  1. Which compound has maximum absorption at 360 nm?

A. Oxybenzone
B. Dibenzoylmethane
C. PABA
D. Sulisobenzone

A

B. Dibenzoylmethane
Rationale: Dibenzoylmethane absorbs wavelengths throughout the longer UVA range, with maximum absorption at 360 nm.

119
Q
  1. Chronic exposure to which UV range can lead to skin aging and photocarcinogenesis?

A. 250-280 nm
B. 280-320 nm
C. 320-360 nm
D. 360-400 nm

A

B. 280-320 nm
Rationale: The UVB range of 280-320 nm is responsible for most of the erythema and sunburn, and chronic exposure to this range can lead to skin aging and photocarcinogenesis.

120
Q
  1. What does SPF measure?

A. The transparency of the sunscreen
B. The thickness of the sunscreen layer
C. The sunscreen’s effectiveness in absorbing erythrogenic ultraviolet light
D. The sunscreen’s water resistance

A

C. The sunscreen’s effectiveness in absorbing erythrogenic ultraviolet light
Rationale: SPF measures a sunscreen’s effectiveness in absorbing erythrogenic ultraviolet light.

121
Q
  1. Which of the following provides a broader spectrum of absorption from 250-360 nm?

A. PABA
B. Dibenzoylmethane
C. Benzophenones
D. Titanium Dioxide

A

C. Benzophenones
Rationale: Benzophenones, including oxybenzone, dioxybenzone, and sulisobenzone, provide a broader spectrum of absorption from 250-360 nm.

122
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with sensitivity to UVA wavelengths?

A. Polymorphous light eruption
B. Cutaneous lupus erythematosus
C. Melasma
D. Drug-induced photosensitivity

A

C. Melasma
Rationale: The provided information mentions polymorphous light eruption, cutaneous lupus erythematosus, and drug-induced photosensitivity as conditions sensitive to UVA wavelengths, but not melasma.

123
Q
  1. What is the maximum SPF value that can be claimed on sunscreen labels according to FDA regulations?

A. SPF 30
B. SPF 50
C. SPF 50+
D. SPF 100

A

C. SPF 50+
Rationale: The FDA regulation limits the claimed maximum SPF value on sunscreen labels to 50+.

124
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a type of Benzophenone?

A. Oxybenzone
B. Dioxybenzone
C. Sulisobenzone
D. Methoxybenzone

A

D. Methoxybenzone
Rationale: The provided information lists oxybenzone, dioxybenzone, and sulisobenzone as types of Benzophenones.

125
Q
  1. Which of the following sunscreens is opaque and reflects light?

A. Chemical Sunscreen
B. Sunshades
C. PABA
D. Dibenzoylmethane

A

B. Sunshades
Rationale: Sunshades, also known as Physical Sunscreens, are opaque materials that reflect light.

126
Q
  1. Beyond SPF 50, the increments of protection provided by higher SPF values are:

A. Significant
B. Minimal
C. Double
D. Half

A

B. Minimal
Rationale: Beyond SPF 50, the increments of protection provided by higher SPF values are minimal.

127
Q
  1. Products claiming to be water-resistant must indicate their effectiveness while swimming or sweating for either:

A. 20 or 40 minutes
B. 40 or 80 minutes
C. 60 or 90 minutes
D. 30 or 60 minutes

A

B. 40 or 80 minutes
Rationale: Products claiming to be water-resistant must indicate whether they remain effective for 40 minutes or 80 minutes while swimming or sweating.

128
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of sunscreens?

A. Absorbing UV light
B. Reflecting light
C. Enhancing tanning
D. Preventing erythema

A

C. Enhancing tanning
Rationale: Sunscreens are designed to absorb or reflect UV light and prevent erythema, not to enhance tanning.

129
Q
  1. Which of the following compounds provides less effectiveness in the UVB erythema range than PABA?

A. Oxybenzone
B. Sulisobenzone
C. Dioxybenzone
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above
Rationale: Benzophenones, which include oxybenzone, dioxybenzone, and sulisobenzone, have less effectiveness in the UVB erythema range than PABA.

130
Q
  1. Broad Spectrum Sunscreen is defined as a sunscreen that:

A. Only protects against UVB radiation
B. Only protects against UVA radiation
C. Protects against both UVA and UVB radiation
D. Provides water resistance

A

C. Protects against both UVA and UVB radiation
Rationale: Broad Spectrum Sunscreen passes the standard test comparing the amount of UVA radiation protection in relation to the amount of UVB protection.

131
Q
  1. Retinoic acid is formed by the oxidation of which group?
    A. Carboxyl group
    B. Ketone group
    C. Alcohol group
    D. Amine group
A

C. Alcohol group
Rationale: Retinoic acid is formed by the oxidation of the alcohol group.

132
Q

Which of the following is the acid form of Vitamin A?
A. Retinol
B. Retinoic acid
C. Tazarotene
D. Adapalene

A

B. Retinoic acid
Rationale: Retinoic acid is the acid form of Vitamin A.

133
Q
  1. What percentage of topically applied retinoic acid is absorbed into the circulation?
    A. Less than 5%
    B. 20-30%
    C. Less than 10%
    D. 50-60%
A

C. Less than 10%
Rationale: When applied topically, less than 10% of retinoic acid is absorbed into the circulation.

134
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of retinoic acid?
    A. Increases prostaglandin E2
    B. Decreases ribonucleic acid polymerase activity
    C. Stabilizes lysosomal membranes
    D. Increases cAMP levels
A

B. Decreases ribonucleic acid polymerase activity
Rationale: Retinoic acid increases ribonucleic acid polymerase activity, not decreases.

135
Q
  1. Which drug may enhance the tumorigenic potential of ultraviolet radiation based on animal studies?
    A. Benzoyl Peroxide
    B. Azelaic Acid
    C. Retinoic Acid
    D. Brimonidine
A

C. Retinoic Acid
Rationale: Animal studies suggest that retinoic acid might enhance the tumorigenic potential of ultraviolet radiation.

136
Q
  1. Adapalene is a derivative of which acid?
    A. Benzoic acid
    B. Naphthoic acid
    C. Retinoic acid
    D. Azelaic acid
A

B. Naphthoic acid
Rationale: Adapalene is a derivative of naphthoic acid.

137
Q
  1. Which drug is photochemically stable and retains its efficacy when combined with benzoyl peroxide?
    A. Tazarotene
    B. Isotretinoin
    C. Adapalene
    D. Retinoic Acid
A

C. Adapalene
Rationale: Adapalene is photochemically stable and shows little decrease in efficacy when used in combination with benzoyl peroxide.

138
Q
  1. Tazarotene is a prodrug that is converted to its active form by which enzyme?
    A. Oxidase
    B. Esterase
    C. Reductase
    D. Hydrolase
A

B. Esterase
Rationale: Tazarotene is a prodrug that is hydrolyzed to its active form by an esterase.

139
Q
  1. Which drug is used for severe cystic acne that doesn’t respond to standard therapies?
    A. Adapalene
    B. Benzoyl Peroxide
    C. Tazarotene
    D. Isotretinoin
A

D. Isotretinoin
Rationale: Isotretinoin is used for severe cystic acne that is recalcitrant to standard therapies.

140
Q
  1. Which of the following side effects does NOT resemble hypervitaminosis A?
    A. Dryness of the skin
    B. Headaches
    C. Increased appetite
    D. Itching of mucous membranes
A

C. Increased appetite
Rationale: Side effects of isotretinoin that resemble hypervitaminosis A include dryness and itching of the skin and mucous membranes, but not increased appetite.

141
Q
  1. Benzoyl peroxide primarily gets converted metabolically to which compound within the skin?
    A. Benzoic acid
    B. Acetic acid
    C. Lactic acid
    D. Uric acid
A

A. Benzoic acid
Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide is metabolically converted to benzoic acid within the epidermis and dermis.

142
Q
  1. Which drug has antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and exhibits peeling and comedolytic effects?
    A. Azelaic Acid
    B. Brimonidine
    C. Benzoyl Peroxide
    D. Retinoic Acid
A

C. Benzoyl Peroxide
Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide has antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and exhibits peeling and comedolytic effects.

143
Q
  1. Azelaic acid inhibits the conversion of which hormone?
    A. Estrogen to estradiol
    B. Testosterone to dihydrotestosterone
    C. Progesterone to pregnenolone
    D. Cortisol to cortisone
A

B. Testosterone to dihydrotestosterone
Rationale: Azelaic acid has in vitro inhibitory effects on the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone.

144
Q
  1. Brimonidine is primarily used for the topical treatment of what condition?
    A. Acne vulgaris
    B. Psoriasis
    C. Facial erythema of rosacea
    D. Eczema
A

C. Facial erythema of rosacea
Rationale: Brimonidine is indicated for the topical treatment of persistent facial erythema of rosacea.

145
Q
  1. Which drug works through direct vasoconstriction?
    A. Adapalene
    B. Tazarotene
    C. Brimonidine
    D. Isotretinoin
A

C. Brimonidine
Rationale: Brimonidine works through direct vasoconstriction.

146
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of isotretinoin?
    A. Dryness of the skin
    B. Hair loss
    C. Increased sebaceous gland size
    D. Headaches
A

C. Increased sebaceous gland size
Rationale: Isotretinoin inhibits sebaceous gland size and function, so an increase in gland size is not a side effect.

147
Q
  1. Which drug is a derivative of naphthoic acid?
    A. Tazarotene
    B. Adapalene
    C. Retinoic Acid
    D. Benzoyl Peroxide
A

B. Adapalene
Rationale: Adapalene is a derivative of naphthoic acid.

148
Q
  1. Which drug is an α2-adrenergic agonist?
    A. Azelaic Acid
    B. Brimonidine
    C. Benzoyl Peroxide
    D. Retinoic Acid
A

B. Brimonidine
Rationale: Brimonidine is an α2-adrenergic agonist.

149
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs promotes dermal collagen synthesis and new blood vessel formation?
    A. Adapalene
    B. Tazarotene
    C. Tretinoin
    D. Isotretinoin
A

C. Tretinoin
Rationale: Prolonged use of tretinoin (a form of retinoic acid) promotes dermal collagen synthesis and new blood vessel formation.

150
Q
  1. Which drug should be used with caution in patients with severe cardiovascular conditions due to its potential to lower blood pressure?
    A. Azelaic Acid
    B. Brimonidine
    C. Benzoyl Peroxide
    D. Retinoic Acid
A

B. Brimonidine
Rationale: Brimonidine, as an α2 agonist, can lower blood pressure and should be used cautiously in patients with severe or unstable cardiovascular conditions.

151
Q

Which drug is a metabolite of the aromatic retinoid etretinate?

A) Tazarotene
B) Calcipotriene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

D) Acitretin
Rationale: Acitretin is a metabolite of the aromatic retinoid etretinate and is used for the treatment of psoriasis.

152
Q

Which drug should not be used by women who may become pregnant during treatment or for at least 3 years after treatment ends?

A) Tazarotene
B) Alefacept
C) Acitretin
D) Calcipotriene

A

C) Acitretin
Rationale: Acitretin is highly teratogenic and should not be used by women who are or may become pregnant.

153
Q

Which drug is a topical acetylenic retinoid prodrug?

A) Tazarotene
B) Calcipotriene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

A) Tazarotene
Rationale: Tazarotene is a topical acetylenic retinoid prodrug that is hydrolyzed to its active form by an esterase.

154
Q

Which drug is NOT a TNF inhibitor?

A) Etanercept
B) Infliximab
C) Ustekinumab
D) Adalimumab

A

C) Ustekinumab
Rationale: Ustekinumab is a cytokine inhibitor, while the others listed are TNF inhibitors.

155
Q

Which drug is a synthetic vitamin D3 derivative?

A) Alefacept
B) Tazarotene
C) Calcipotriene
D) Acitretin

A

C) Calcipotriene
Rationale: Calcipotriene is a synthetic vitamin D3 derivative used for the treatment of psoriasis.

156
Q

Which drug interferes with lymphocyte activation?

A) Calcipotriene
B) Tazarotene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

C) Alefacept
Rationale: Alefacept interferes with lymphocyte activation, which plays a role in the pathophysiology of psoriasis.

157
Q

Which drug may potentiate photosensitizing medications?

A) Tazarotene
B) Calcipotriene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

A) Tazarotene
Rationale: Tazarotene may potentiate photosensitizing medications, and patients should be cautioned about sunlight exposure.

158
Q

Which drug combination is more effective than its individual components for treating psoriasis?

A) Calcipotriene and betamethasone dipropionate
B) Tazarotene and alefacept
C) Acitretin and ustekinumab
D) Infliximab and etanercept

A

A) Calcipotriene and betamethasone dipropionate
Rationale: The combination of calcipotriene and betamethasone dipropionate is more effective than its individual ingredients for treating psoriasis.

159
Q

Which drug is NOT available locally?

A) Calcipotriene
B) Tazarotene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

B) Tazarotene
Rationale: The text mentions that Tazarotene is not available locally.

160
Q

Which drug should be avoided in patients with a history of systemic malignancy due to a potential increased risk?
A) Calcipotriene
B) Tazarotene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

C) Alefacept
Rationale: Alefacept is an immunosuppressive agent, and due to the possibility of an increased risk of malignancy, it should not be administered to patients with a history of systemic malignancy.

161
Q

Which drug’s mechanism of action in psoriasis is still unknown but may relate to anti-inflammatory and antiproliferative actions?
A) Calcipotriene
B) Tazarotene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

B) Tazarotene
Rationale: The exact mechanism of action of Tazarotene in psoriasis remains unknown but may be related to anti-inflammatory and antiproliferative actions.

162
Q

Which drug is associated with elevations in cholesterol and triglycerides?
A) Calcipotriene
B) Tazarotene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

D) Acitretin
Rationale: Acitretin therapy can lead to elevations in cholesterol and triglycerides.

163
Q

Which drug is associated with hepatotoxicity and liver enzyme elevations?
A) Calcipotriene
B) Tazarotene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

D) Acitretin
Rationale: Acitretin therapy has been reported to cause hepatotoxicity with liver enzyme elevations.

164
Q

Which drug requires patients to have their CD4 lymphocyte counts monitored weekly during treatment?
A) Calcipotriene
B) Tazarotene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

C) Alefacept
Rationale: Patients taking Alefacept should have their CD4 lymphocyte counts monitored weekly.

165
Q

Which drug should not be given to patients with significant infections?
A) Calcipotriene
B) Tazarotene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

C) Alefacept
Rationale: Alefacept is an immunosuppressive agent and should not be given to patients with significant infections.

166
Q

Which drug is better tolerated in sensitive and intertriginous areas?
A) Calcipotriene
B) Calcitriol
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

B) Calcitriol
Rationale: Calcitriol is better tolerated in sensitive and intertriginous areas compared to other drugs.

167
Q

Which drug is a cytokine inhibitor?
A) Etanercept
B) Infliximab
C) Ustekinumab
D) Adalimumab

A

C) Ustekinumab
Rationale: Ustekinumab is a cytokine inhibitor, while the others listed are TNF inhibitors.

168
Q

Which drug has a prolonged elimination time of more than 3 months?
A) Calcipotriene
B) Tazarotene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

D) Acitretin
Rationale: Acitretin has a prolonged elimination time of more than 3 months.

169
Q

Which drug’s active metabolite binds to retinoic acid receptors, resulting in modified gene expression?
A) Calcipotriene
B) Tazarotene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

B) Tazarotene
Rationale: The active metabolite of Tazarotene, tazarotenic acid, binds to retinoic acid receptors, altering gene expression.

170
Q

Which drug is associated with a risk of teratogenic systemic concentrations if applied to over 20% of the total body surface area?
A) Calcipotriene
B) Tazarotene
C) Alefacept
D) Acitretin

A

B) Tazarotene
Rationale: Tazarotene is absorbed through the skin, and teratogenic systemic concentrations might be achieved if applied to over 20% of the total body surface area.

171
Q
  1. Which of the following was the original topical glucocorticoid?
    a) Dexamethasone
    b) Betamethasone
    c) Hydrocortisone
    d) Triamcinolone
A

c) Hydrocortisone

Rationale: The text mentions that hydrocortisone was the original topical glucocorticoid.

172
Q
  1. Which modification to betamethasone makes it over 300 times more active than hydrocortisone for topical use?
    a) Adding a hydroxyl group
    b) Attaching a 5-carbon valerate chain to the 17-hydroxyl position
    c) Fluorination at the 9a position
    d) Removing its 17-hydroxyl position
A

b) Attaching a 5-carbon valerate chain to the 17-hydroxyl position

Rationale: The text specifies that attaching a 5-carbon valerate chain to betamethasone’s 17-hydroxyl position increases its activity significantly.

173
Q
  1. Which dermatologic disorder is considered very responsive to topical corticosteroids?
    a) Keloids
    b) Psoriasis of palms and soles
    c) Atopic dermatitis
    d) Alopecia areata
A

c) Atopic dermatitis

Rationale: Atopic dermatitis is listed under the “Very Responsive” category for dermatologic disorders responsive to topical corticosteroids.

174
Q
  1. Which adverse effect is NOT associated with topical corticosteroids?
    a) Atrophy
    b) Hypertrichosis
    c) Hypertension
    d) Perioral dermatitis
A

c) Hypertension

Rationale: The provided list of adverse effects does not mention hypertension as a side effect of topical corticosteroids.

175
Q
  1. How often is hydrocortisone typically applied to areas like the face, axilla, and groin?
    a) Once a day
    b) Twice a day
    c) Thrice a day
    d) Four times a day
A

b) Twice a day

Rationale: The text mentions that hydrocortisone is typically applied twice a day to areas like the face, axilla, and groin.

176
Q
  1. Which condition requires intralesional injection due to its least responsiveness to topical corticosteroids?
    a) Seborrheic dermatitis
    b) Psoriasis of the genitalia
    c) Keloids
    d) Lichen simplex chronicus
A

c) Keloids

Rationale: Keloids are listed under the “Least Responsive” category, indicating that they require intralesional injections.

177
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a local adverse effect of topical corticosteroids?
    a) Atrophy
    b) Increased intraocular pressure
    c) Allergic contact dermatitis
    d) Tachycardia
A

d) Tachycardia

Rationale: Tachycardia is not mentioned in the list of local adverse effects of topical corticosteroids.

178
Q
  1. Which topical corticosteroid is mentioned alongside dexamethasone as a 9a-fluorinated steroid?
    a) Triamcinolone
    b) Hydrocortisone
    c) Betamethasone
    d) Prednisolone
A

c) Betamethasone

Rationale: The text mentions dexamethasone and betamethasone as 9a-fluorinated steroids.

179
Q
  1. Which condition is considered less responsive to topical corticosteroids but NOT requiring intralesional injections?
    a) Keloids
    b) Psoriasis of palms and soles
    c) Alopecia areata
    d) Atopic dermatitis
A

b) Psoriasis of palms and soles

Rationale: Psoriasis of palms and soles is listed under the “Less Responsive” category, indicating that it’s less responsive but doesn’t necessarily require intralesional injections.

180
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential systemic adverse effect of absorbable topical corticosteroids?
    a) Suppression of the HPA-axis
    b) Atrophy
    c) Telangiectasia
    d) Steroid acne
A

a) Suppression of the HPA-axis

Rationale: The text mentions that all absorbable topical corticosteroids possess the potential to suppress the HPA-axis, indicating a systemic effect.

181
Q
  1. Which property of tar compounds makes them valuable in treating chronic lichenified dermatitis?

a) Anti-inflammatory

b) Antipruritic

c) Antibacterial

d) Antifungal

A

b) Antipruritic

Rationale: Tar compounds are known for their antipruritic (anti-itch) properties, which makes them valuable in treating conditions like chronic lichenified dermatitis.

182
Q
  1. Which constituent of tar compounds is responsible for their antipruritic properties?

a) Alkaloids

b) Terpenes

c) Phenolic

d) Flavonoids

A

c) Phenolic

Rationale: The phenolic constituents of tar compounds give them their antipruritic properties.

183
Q
  1. In which condition might even weak tar preparations cause irritation?

a) Chronic psoriasis

b) Lichen simplex chronicus

c) Acute dermatitis with vesiculation and oozing

d) Subacute dermatitis

A

c) Acute dermatitis with vesiculation and oozing

Rationale: In cases of acute dermatitis with vesiculation and oozing, even weak tar preparations might be irritating.

184
Q
  1. Tar compounds offer an alternative to the use of which of the following in treating dermatitis and psoriasis?

a) Topical antibiotics

b) Topical antifungals

c) Topical corticosteroids

d) Oral antihistamines

A

c) Topical corticosteroids

Rationale: Tar compounds can be useful in the subacute and chronic stages of dermatitis and psoriasis, offering an alternative to topical corticosteroids.

185
Q
  1. What is the most common adverse reaction to coal tar compounds?

a) Allergic contact dermatitis

b) Photo irritation

c) Irritant folliculitis

d) Hyperpigmentation

A

c) Irritant folliculitis

Rationale: Irritant folliculitis is the most common adverse reaction to coal tar compounds.

186
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a recommended use of tar compounds in dermatology?

a) Treatment of psoriasis

b) Treatment of lichen simplex chronicus

c) Treatment of fungal infections

d) Treatment of dermatitis

A

c) Treatment of fungal infections

Rationale: Tar compounds are primarily used for their antipruritic properties and are not typically used for treating fungal infections.

187
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential side effect of using tar compounds?

a) Photo irritation

b) Increased hair growth

c) Hypopigmentation

d) Reduced skin elasticity

A

a) Photo irritation

Rationale: Photo irritation is a potential side effect of using tar compounds.

188
Q

Which of the following describes the action of Salicylic acid on the stratum corneum?

A) Enhances cell surface proteins
B) Dissolves cell surface proteins
C) Increases cell surface proteins
D) None of the above

A

B) Dissolves cell surface proteins
Rationale: Salicylic acid may dissolve cell surface proteins maintaining the stratum corneum, leading to the shedding of keratotic debris.

189
Q

In which concentration is Salicylic acid keratolytic?

A) 1-2%
B) 3-5%
C) 6-7%
D) 8-10%

A

B) 3-5%
Rationale: Salicylic acid acts as a keratolytic agent in 3-5% concentrations.

190
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential effect of Salicylic acid?

A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Increased blood glucose
D) Neurotoxicity

A

C) Increased blood glucose
Rationale: Salicylic acid can lead to metabolic acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, and neurotoxicity, but it reduces brain glucose.

191
Q

At what serum salicylate level does toxicity begin in adults?

A) 0.5 mg/dL
B) 10-20 mg/dL
C) 30-50 mg/dL
D) 60-80 mg/dL

A

C) 30-50 mg/dL
Rationale: Toxicity starts at 30-50 mg/dL for serum salicylate levels in adults.

192
Q

Which group is more susceptible to salicylism?

A) Adults
B) Elderly
C) Children
D) Pregnant women

A

C) Children
Rationale: Children can have higher serum levels, making them more susceptible to salicylism.

193
Q

What is the primary use of Propylene glycol in topical products?

A) As a preservative
B) As a fragrance
C) As a vehicle for organic compounds
D) As a coloring agent

A

C) As a vehicle for organic compounds
Rationale: Propylene glycol is widely used in topical products as it’s an effective vehicle for organic compounds.

194
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of Urea?

A) Acts as a humectant
B) Increases blood circulation
C) Softens the stratum corneum
D) Acts as a keratolytic agent

A

B) Increases blood circulation
Rationale: Urea softens and moisturizes the stratum corneum, acts as a humectant, and is also keratolytic. It doesn’t increase blood circulation.

195
Q

Which concentration of Urea is used as a keratolytic agent?

A) 2%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 50%

A

C) 20%
Rationale: Urea is used as a keratolytic agent in 20% concentration.

196
Q

Which of the following is a potential side effect of Podophyllum resin?

A) Increased appetite
B) Muscle weakness
C) Hair growth
D) Improved vision

A

B) Muscle weakness
Rationale: Overuse of Podophyllum resin can lead to symptoms like muscle weakness.

197
Q
  1. What is the primary function of Salicylic acid in facial and acne cleansers?
    A) Moisturizing the skin
    B) Exfoliating dead skin
    C) Protecting against UV rays
    D) Reducing inflammation
A

B) Exfoliating dead skin
Rationale: Salicylic acid is known for its exfoliating properties, which help in shedding keratotic debris.

198
Q
  1. What is the primary use of Propylene glycol in topical products?
    A) As a fragrance
    B) As a colorant
    C) As a vehicle for organic compounds
    D) As a preservative
A

C) As a vehicle for organic compounds
Rationale: Propylene glycol is widely used in topical products as an effective vehicle for organic compounds.

199
Q
  1. Urea increases the water content of the stratum corneum due to its:
    A) Keratolytic properties
    B) Hygroscopic nature
    C) Anti-inflammatory effects
    D) Antioxidant properties
A

B) Hygroscopic nature
Rationale: Urea’s ability to increase the water content of the stratum corneum is attributed to its hygroscopic characteristics.

200
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a treatment use for Podophyllum resin?
    A) Treating acne
    B) Treating condyloma acuminatum
    C) Treating warts
    D) Skin peeling
A

A) Treating acne
Rationale: Podophyllum resin is used for treating condyloma acuminatum and warts, but not acne.

201
Q
  1. Sinecatechins 15% ointment is derived from:
    A) Aloe vera
    B) Lavender extract
    C) Green tea leaves
    D) Rose petals
A

C) Green tea leaves
Rationale: Sinecatechins 15% ointment is derived from a water extract of green tea leaves.

202
Q
  1. Fluorouracil disrupts the synthesis of:
    A) Proteins
    B) Lipids
    C) DNA and RNA
    D) Carbohydrates
A

C) DNA and RNA
Rationale: Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthetase, disrupting DNA and RNA synthesis.

203
Q
  1. Ingenol Mebutate is derived from which plant?
    A) Camellia sinensis
    B) Euphorbia peplus
    C) Aloe vera
    D) Lavandula
A

B) Euphorbia peplus
Rationale: Ingenol Mebutate is derived from Euphorbia peplus.

204
Q
  1. Which NSAID has shown moderate efficacy in treating actinic keratoses in a 3% gel formulation?
    A) Ibuprofen
    B) Naproxen
    C) Diclofenac
    D) Aspirin
A

C) Diclofenac
Rationale: A 3% gel formulation of the NSAID diclofenac (Solaraze) has shown moderate efficacy in treating actinic keratoses.

205
Q
  1. At what concentration is Salicylic acid used for skin peeling and wart removal?
    A) Less than 3%
    B) 3-5%
    C) Greater than 6%
    D) Exactly 6%
A

C) Greater than 6%
Rationale: Concentrations above 6% of Salicylic acid can damage tissues, making it suitable for skin peeling and wart removal.

206
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of acute Salicylism?
    A) Tinnitus
    B) Hyperventilation
    C) Diarrhea
    D) Acidosis
A

C) Diarrhea
Rationale: Diarrhea is not listed as a symptom of acute Salicylism.

207
Q
  1. Propylene glycol can act as an irritant in concentrations above:
    A) 5%
    B) 10%
    C) 15%
    D) 20%
A

B) 10%
Rationale: Propylene glycol can irritate the skin in concentrations above 10%.

208
Q
  1. Urea acts as a keratolytic agent by altering:
    A) Collagen and elastin
    B) Melanin
    C) Prekeratin and keratin
    D) Sebum
A

C) Prekeratin and keratin
Rationale: Urea acts as a keratolytic agent by altering prekeratin and keratin.

209
Q
  1. Which of the following is a known side effect of Podophyllum resin when used excessively?
    A) Increased appetite
    B) Muscle weakness
    C) Hair growth
    D) Weight loss
A

B) Muscle weakness
Rationale: Muscle weakness is listed as a side effect of Podophyllum resin when used excessively.

210
Q
  1. The exact mechanism of action for which drug is unknown?
    A) Salicylic acid
    B) Urea
    C) Sinecatechins
    D) Fluorouracil
A

C) Sinecatechins
Rationale: The exact mechanism of action for Sinecatechins is unknown.

211
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of Urea?
    A) Softening the stratum corneum
    B) Protecting against UV rays
    C) Increasing water content of the stratum corneum
    D) Acting as a keratolytic agent
A

B) Protecting against UV rays
Rationale: Urea does not have properties to protect against UV rays.

212
Q
  1. Which drug is contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential cytotoxic effects on the fetus?
    A) Urea
    B) Propylene glycol
    C) Podophyllum resin
    D) Sinecatechins
A

C) Podophyllum resin
Rationale: The use of Podophyllum resin during pregnancy is contraindicated due to potential fetal cytotoxic effects.

213
Q
  1. Which drug is used topically for the treatment of actinic keratosis?
    A) Ingenol Mebutate
    B) Diclofenac
    C) Both A and B
    D) Neither A nor B
A

C) Both A and B
Rationale: Both Ingenol Mebutate and Diclofenac are used topically for the treatment of actinic keratosis.

214
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of Ingenol Mebutate?
    A) Crusting
    B) Swelling
    C) Hair loss
    D) Vesiculation
A

C) Hair loss
Rationale: Hair loss is not listed as a side effect of Ingenol Mebutate.

215
Q
  1. Which drug is derived from a water extract of green tea leaves?
    A) Urea
    B) Sinecatechins
    C) Propylene glycol
    D) Fluorouracil
A

B) Sinecatechins
Rationale: Sinecatechins 15% ointment is derived from a water extract of green tea leaves.

216
Q
  1. Which drug inhibits thymidylate synthetase, disrupting DNA and RNA synthesis?
    A) Salicylic acid
    B) Urea
    C) Propylene glycol
    D) Fluorouracil
A

D) Fluorouracil
Rationale: Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthetase, disrupting DNA and RNA synthesis.

217
Q
  1. Which of the following is a natural metabolic product?
    A) Salicylic acid
    B) Urea
    C) Propylene glycol
    D) Podophyllum resin
A

B) Urea
Rationale: Urea is a natural product of metabolism.

218
Q
  1. Which drug is used as a vehicle for organic compounds in topical products?
    A) Urea
    B) Sinecatechins
    C) Propylene glycol
    D) Fluorouracil
A

C) Propylene glycol
Rationale: Propylene glycol is widely used in topical products as an effective vehicle for organic compounds.

219
Q
  1. Which drug increases the stratum corneum’s water content due to its hygroscopic nature?
    A) Salicylic acid
    B) Urea
    C) Propylene glycol
    D) Podophyllum resin
A

B) Urea
Rationale: Urea’s ability to increase the water content of the stratum corneum is attributed to its hygroscopic characteristics.

220
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs has an unknown mechanism of action?
    A) Salicylic acid
    B) Urea
    C) Sinecatechins
    D) Fluorouracil
A

C) Sinecatechins
Rationale: The exact mechanism of action for Sinecatechins is unknown.

221
Q
  1. Which drug can cause muscle weakness when used excessively?
    A) Urea
    B) Sinecatechins
    C) Propylene glycol
    D) Podophyllum resin
A

D) Podophyllum resin
Rationale: Muscle weakness is listed as a side effect of Podophyllum resin when used excessively.

222
Q
  1. Which drug is contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential cytotoxic effects on the fetus?
    A) Urea
    B) Sinecatechins
    C) Propylene glycol
    D) Podophyllum resin
A

D) Podophyllum resin
Rationale: The use of Podophyllum resin during pregnancy is contraindicated due to potential fetal cytotoxic effects.

223
Q
  1. Which drug is used topically for the treatment of actinic keratosis?
    A) Ingenol Mebutate
    B) Diclofenac
    C) Both A and B
    D) Neither A nor B
A

C) Both A and B
Rationale: Both Ingenol Mebutate and Diclofenac are used topically for the treatment of actinic keratosis.

224
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of Ingenol Mebutate?
    A) Crusting
    B) Swelling
    C) Hair loss
    D) Vesiculation
A

C) Hair loss
Rationale: Hair loss is not listed as a side effect of Ingenol Mebutate.

225
Q
  1. Which drug is a topical formulation of 9-cis-retinoic acid?
    A. Bexarotene
    B. Vismodegib
    C. Alitretinoin
    D. Vorinostat
A

C. Alitretinoin
Rationale: Alitretinoin (Panretin) is described as a topical formulation of 9-cis-retinoic acid.

226
Q
  1. Bexarotene selectively binds and activates which receptor subtype?
    A. Retinoid Y receptor
    B. Retinoid X receptor
    C. Retinoid Z receptor
    D. Hedgehog pathway receptor
A

B. Retinoid X receptor
Rationale: Bexarotene is a member of a subclass of retinoids that selectively binds and activates retinoid X receptor subtypes.

227
Q
  1. Vismodegib is primarily used for the treatment of what?
    A. AIDS-related Kaposi’s sarcoma
    B. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
    C. Metastatic basal cell carcinoma
    D. Progressive T-cell lymphoma
A

C. Metastatic basal cell carcinoma
Rationale: Vismodegib is used for the treatment of metastatic basal cell carcinoma or locally advanced basal cell carcinoma in adults.

228
Q
  1. Which drugs are histone deacetylase inhibitors?
    A. Alitretinoin and Bexarotene
    B. Vismodegib and Vorinostat
    C. Vorinostat and Romidepsin
    D. Romidepsin and Bexarotene
A

C. Vorinostat and Romidepsin
Rationale: Both Vorinostat and Romidepsin are described as histone deacetylase inhibitors.

229
Q
  1. Which drug is approved for the treatment of cutaneous lesions in patients with AIDS-related Kaposi’s sarcoma?
    A. Vismodegib
    B. Bexarotene
    C. Alitretinoin
    D. Vorinostat
A

C. Alitretinoin
Rationale: Alitretinoin (Panretin) is approved for the treatment of cutaneous lesions in patients with AIDS-related Kaposi’s sarcoma.

230
Q
  1. Which drug is the first hedgehog pathway inhibitor available for oral administration?
    A. Romidepsin
    B. Vorinostat
    C. Vismodegib
    D. Bexarotene
A

C. Vismodegib
Rationale: Vismodegib is described as the first hedgehog pathway inhibitor available for oral treatment.

231
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is NOT used for the treatment of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?
    A. Bexarotene
    B. Vorinostat
    C. Romidepsin
    D. Vismodegib
A

D. Vismodegib
Rationale: Vismodegib is used for the treatment of metastatic basal cell carcinoma, not cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

232
Q
  1. Which drug selectively binds and activates retinoid X receptor subtypes?
    A. Alitretinoin
    B. Bexarotene
    C. Vismodegib
    D. Romidepsin
A

B. Bexarotene

233
Q
  1. Which drug is used for patients with cutaneous T-cell lymphoma that is progressive, persistent, or recurrent disease after prior systemic therapy?
    A. Alitretinoin
    B. C&D
    C. Romidepsin
    D. Vorinostat
A

B. C&D

Vorinostat (Zolinza) & Romidepsin (Istoda): Treatment of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma in patients with progressive, persistent, or recurrent disease after prior systemic therapy.

234
Q
  1. Which drug is NOT a histone deacetylase inhibitor?
    A. Vorinostat
    B. Romidepsin
    C. Bexarotene
    D. A&B
A

C. Bexarotene

235
Q
  1. Which drug is approved for the oral treatment of metastatic basal cell carcinoma?
    A. Romidepsin
    B. Vorinostat
    C. Vismodegib
    D. Bexarotene
A

C. Vismodegib
Rationale: Vismodegib is described as a drug available for the oral treatment of metastatic basal cell carcinoma.

236
Q
  1. Which of the following is a member of a subclass of retinoids?
    A. Alitretinoin
    B. Bexarotene
    C. Vismodegib
    D. Romidepsin
A

B. Bexarotene
Rationale: Bexarotene is described as a member of a subclass of retinoids.

237
Q
  1. Which drug is NOT used for the treatment of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?
    A. Alitretinoin
    B. Bexarotene
    C. Vorinostat
    D. Romidepsin
A

A. Alitretinoin
Rationale: Alitretinoin is used for the treatment of cutaneous lesions in patients with AIDS-related Kaposi’s sarcoma, not cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

238
Q
  1. Which drug is a topical formulation used for AIDS-related Kaposi’s sarcoma?
    A. Romidepsin
    B. Vorinostat
    C. Vismodegib
    D. Alitretinoin
A

D. Alitretinoin
Rationale: Alitretinoin (Panretin) is a topical formulation used for the treatment of cutaneous lesions in patients with AIDS-related Kaposi’s sarcoma.

239
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs selectively activates the hedgehog pathway?
    A. Romidepsin
    B. Vorinostat
    C. Vismodegib
    D. Bexarotene
A

C. Vismodegib
Rationale: Vismodegib is described as the first hedgehog pathway inhibitor available for oral administration.

240
Q
  1. Which drug’s mechanism of action on hair follicles remains unknown?

A) Eflornithine
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Minoxidil

A

D) Minoxidil
Rationale: Minoxidil’s exact mechanism by which it promotes hair growth is not fully understood.

241
Q
  1. What happens if the treatment with Minoxidil is stopped?

A) Hair growth accelerates
B) No change in hair growth
C) Hair loss occurs in 4-6 months
D) Immediate hair loss

A

C) Hair loss occurs in 4-6 months
Rationale: The effects of Minoxidil are temporary. If treatment is stopped, any newly grown hair will likely be lost within 4-6 months.

242
Q
  1. Finasteride is an inhibitor of which enzyme?

A) Ornithine decarboxylase
B) 5α-reductase
C) Polyamine synthase
D) Prostaglandin synthase

A

B) 5α-reductase
Rationale: Finasteride inhibits the enzyme 5α-reductase, responsible for converting testosterone to dihydrotestosterone.

243
Q
  1. Which side effect is NOT associated with Finasteride?

A) Decreased libido
B) Conjunctival hyperemia
C) Ejaculation disorders
D) Erectile dysfunction

A

B) Conjunctival hyperemia
Rationale: Conjunctival hyperemia is a side effect associated with Bimatoprost, not Finasteride.

244
Q
  1. Bimatoprost is primarily used to treat:

A) Vertex balding
B) Hypotrichosis of the eyelashes
C) Frontal balding
D) Facial hair growth

A

B) Hypotrichosis of the eyelashes
Rationale: Bimatoprost is used for treating hypotrichosis of the eyelashes and can help in lengthening them.

245
Q
  1. Eflornithine inhibits which enzyme?

A) 5α-reductase
B) Prostaglandin synthase
C) Ornithine decarboxylase
D) Polyamine synthase

A

C) Ornithine decarboxylase
Rationale: Eflornithine is an irreversible inhibitor of the enzyme ornithine decarboxylase, affecting polyamine synthesis.

246
Q
  1. Which drug is effective in reducing facial hair growth in women when used for 6 months?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

D) Eflornithine
Rationale: Eflornithine has been found effective in reducing facial hair growth in about 30% of women when used consistently for 6 months.

247
Q
  1. Which drug is associated with a risk of permanent brown pigmentation of the iris if instilled into the eye?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

C) Bimatoprost
Rationale: Bimatoprost carries a risk of permanent brown pigmentation of the iris if the solution gets into the eye.

248
Q
  1. Which area is more responsive to Minoxidil therapy?

A) Frontal balding
B) Vertex balding
C) Eyelashes
D) Facial hair

A

B) Vertex balding
Rationale: Minoxidil is more effective in treating vertex (crown) balding than frontal balding.

249
Q
  1. Which drug is an oral tablet used to promote hair growth and prevent further hair loss?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

B) Finasteride
Rationale: Finasteride is taken orally in tablet form and is used for promoting hair growth and preventing further hair loss.

250
Q
  1. Which drug is associated with side effects like stinging, burning, and folliculitis?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

D) Eflornithine
Rationale: Eflornithine users may experience local adverse effects like stinging, burning, and folliculitis.

251
Q
  1. Which drug is a prostaglandin analog?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

C) Bimatoprost
Rationale: Bimatoprost is a prostaglandin analog used primarily for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes.

252
Q
  1. Which drug’s mechanism involves inhibiting polyamine synthesis?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

D) Eflornithine
Rationale: Eflornithine inhibits polyamine synthesis by being an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase.

253
Q
  1. Which drug can cause decreased libido as a side effect?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

B) Finasteride
Rationale: One of the potential side effects of Finasteride is decreased libido.

254
Q
  1. Which drug is applied nightly to the upper eyelid margins?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

C) Bimatoprost
Rationale: Bimatoprost is applied nightly to the skin of the upper eyelid margins at the base of the eyelashes.

255
Q
  1. Which drug is NOT applied topically?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

B) Finasteride
Rationale: Finasteride is taken orally in tablet form, while the other drugs are applied topically.

256
Q
  1. Which drug is associated with side effects like pruritus and erythema of the eyelids?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

C) Bimatoprost
Rationale: Bimatoprost has potential side effects like itching (pruritus) and redness (erythema) of the eyelids.

257
Q
  1. Which drug is used mainly for promoting hair growth on the scalp?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

A) Minoxidil
Rationale: Minoxidil is primarily used for promoting hair growth on the scalp, especially in areas of balding.

258
Q
  1. Which drug blocks the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

B) Finasteride
Rationale: Finasteride inhibits the enzyme 5α-reductase, which is responsible for converting testosterone to its more potent form, dihydrotestosterone.

259
Q
  1. Which drug is effective in lengthening the eyelashes?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

C) Bimatoprost
Rationale: Bimatoprost is used for treating hypotrichosis of the eyelashes and can help in lengthening them.

260
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist?

a) Pramoxine

b) Hydrocortisone

c) Doxepin

d) Lidocaine

A

c) Doxepin

Rationale: Doxepin acts as a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist, blocking the action of histamines.

261
Q
  1. Pramoxine is primarily used as a:

a) Antidepressant

b) Topical anesthetic

c) Antihistamine

d) Diuretic

A

b) Topical anesthetic

Rationale: Pramoxine is a topical anesthetic agent that numbs the skin to provide temporary relief from itching.

262
Q
  1. Which drug may cause marked burning and stinging as a local adverse effect?

a) Pramoxine

b) Doxepin

c) Hydrocortisone

d) Lidocaine

A

b) Doxepin

Rationale: Doxepin can cause adverse local effects, including marked burning and stinging.

263
Q
  1. Pramoxine is available in all of the following formulations EXCEPT:

a) 1% cream

b) Lotion

c) Gel

d) Tablet

A

d) Tablet

Rationale: Pramoxine is available as a 1% formulation in cream, lotion, or gel but not in tablet form.

264
Q
  1. Doxepin is contraindicated in patients with:

a) Hypertension

b) Diabetes

c) Untreated narrow-angle glaucoma

d) Asthma

A

c) Untreated narrow-angle glaucoma

Rationale: Doxepin is contraindicated in patients with untreated narrow-angle glaucoma or those who have a tendency to retain urine.

265
Q
  1. Which drug can be found combined with hydrocortisone acetate?

a) Doxepin

b) Pramoxine

c) Lidocaine

d) Aspirin

A

b) Pramoxine

Rationale: Pramoxine can be found combined with hydrocortisone acetate.

266
Q
  1. Which of the following side effects is associated with Doxepin?

a) Drowsiness

b) Increased appetite

c) Weight loss

d) Hyperactivity

A

a) Drowsiness

267
Q
  1. Which drug works by numbing the skin?

a) Doxepin

b) Pramoxine

c) Hydrocortisone

d) Aspirin

A

b) Pramoxine

Rationale: Pramoxine is a topical anesthetic agent that works by numbing the skin.

268
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action of Doxepin?

a) H1 receptor antagonist

b) H2 receptor antagonist

c) Topical anesthetic

d) A&B

A

c) Topical anesthetic

Rationale: Doxepin acts as a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist and can have anticholinergic effects, but it is not a topical anesthetic.

269
Q
  1. Which drug provides temporary relief from (pruritus) itching associated with mild eczematous skin conditions?

a) Lidocaine

b) Aspirin

c) Doxepin

d) Pramoxine

A

d) Pramoxine

Rationale: Pramoxine is a topical anesthetic agent that provides temporary relief from itching (pruritus) associated with mild eczematous skin conditions.

270
Q

Which of the following drugs is NOT a BRAF inhibitor?

A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) Ipilimumab

A

D) Ipilimumab
Rationale: Ipilimumab is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody, not a BRAF inhibitor.

271
Q

Which drug specifically inhibits both BRAF V600E and V600K mutations?

A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) Pegylated Interferon

A

C) Trametinib
Rationale: Trametinib inhibits both BRAF V600E and V600K mutations.

272
Q

Which drug is associated with a defined risk of cardiomyopathy?

A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) Ipilimumab

A

C) Trametinib
Rationale: Trametinib use is associated with a risk of cardiomyopathy.

273
Q

Ipilimumab acts by:

A) Inhibiting BRAF mutations
B) Blocking CTLA-4
C) Acting as an adjuvant therapy
D) Increasing the risk of cutaneous malignancies

A

B) Blocking CTLA-4
Rationale: Ipilimumab is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody.

274
Q

Which of the following drugs can result in severe and fatal immune-mediated adverse reactions due to T-cell activation and proliferation?

A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) Ipilimumab

A

D) Ipilimumab
Rationale: Ipilimumab can cause severe immune-mediated reactions because of its action on T-cells.

275
Q

Pegylated Interferon is used as:

A) Treatment for BRAF wild-type melanoma
B) Adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients
C) Kinase inhibitor of BRAF V600E mutation
D) CTLA-4 blocker antibody

A

B) Adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients
Rationale: Pegylated Interferon is used as an adjuvant therapy for specific melanoma patients.

276
Q

Which drugs increase the risk for new primary cutaneous malignancies?

A) Vemurafenib and Dabrafenib
B) Trametinib and Ipilimumab
C) Ipilimumab and Pegylated Interferon
D) Dabrafenib and Trametinib

A

A) Vemurafenib and Dabrafenib
Vemurafenib and dabrafenib can increase the risk of new primary cutaneous malignancies, including:
-squamous cell carcinoma
-keratoacanthoma,
-new primary melanomas.

277
Q

Which drug is NOT approved for the treatment of BRAF wild-type melanoma?

A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above
Rationale: None of the BRAF inhibitors are approved for BRAF wild-type melanoma.

278
Q

Which of the following is a common adverse reaction of Ipilimumab?

A) Enterocolitis
B) Cardiomyopathy
C) New primary melanomas
D) Flu-like symptoms

A

A) Enterocolitis

Ipilimumab:
Can cause severe immune-mediated reactions, with common reactions being:
-enterocolitis,
-hepatitis,
-dermatitis,
-neuropathy,
-endocrinopathy.

279
Q

Which drug acts by increasing T-cell-mediated antitumor immune responses?
A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) Ipilimumab

A

D) Ipilimumab

280
Q

Which of the following drugs is a kinase inhibitor of only the BRAF V600E mutation?
A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) A&B
D) None of the above

A

C) A&B

281
Q

Which drug is associated with a risk of ophthalmologic complications?
A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above
Rationale: All BRAF inhibitors, including Vemurafenib, Dabrafenib, and Trametinib, are associated with ophthalmologic complications.

282
Q

Which drug is NOT a kinase inhibitor?
A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) Ipilimumab

A

D) Ipilimumab
Rationale: Ipilimumab is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody and not a kinase inhibitor.

283
Q

Which of the following drugs is used as an adjuvant therapy for melanoma?
A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) Pegylated Interferon

A

D) Pegylated Interferon
Rationale: Pegylated Interferon is used as an adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients.

284
Q

Which drug is associated with the risk of severe dermatologic reactions?
A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above
Rationale: All BRAF inhibitors, including Vemurafenib, Dabrafenib, and Trametinib, are associated with severe dermatologic reactions.

285
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common adverse reaction of Ipilimumab?
A) Enterocolitis
B) Hepatitis
C) Cardiomyopathy
D) Dermatitis

A

C) Cardiomyopathy
Rationale: Cardiomyopathy is associated with Trametinib, not Ipilimumab.

286
Q

Which drug is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody?
A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) Ipilimumab

A

D) Ipilimumab
Rationale: Ipilimumab is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody.

287
Q

Which of the following drugs is NOT associated with serious hypersensitivity reactions?
A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) Pegylated Interferon

A

D) Pegylated Interferon
Rationale: The BRAF inhibitors (Vemurafenib, Dabrafenib, and Trametinib) are associated with serious hypersensitivity reactions, but there’s no such specific mention for Pegylated Interferon.

288
Q

Which drug acts by inhibiting the BRAF V600E mutation only?
A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) Ipilimumab

A

A) Vemurafenib

289
Q

Which of the following drugs is associated with the risk of new primary melanomas?
A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) A&B

A

D) A&B

290
Q

Which local cutaneous reaction is the most common reaction to topical medications?
a) Photoirritation
b) Allergic contact dermatitis
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Irritation

A

d) Irritation

291
Q

Which reaction type is associated with phototoxicity and usually requires UVA exposure?
a) Irritation
b) Photoirritation
c) Photoallergic contact dermatitis
d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

A

b) Photoirritation

292
Q

Which reaction type is a result of Type IV delayed hypersensitivity?
a) Allergic contact dermatitis
b) Photoirritation
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Irritation

A

a) Allergic contact dermatitis

293
Q

Which reaction type occurs without prior sensitization and is the most common type of contact urticaria?
a) Allergic contact dermatitis
b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

A

d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

294
Q

Which reaction type may result in anaphylaxis?
a) Irritation
b) Photoirritation
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Allergic contact dermatitis

A

c) Immunologic contact urticaria

295
Q

Which reaction type is triggered or exacerbated by sunlight?
a) Allergic contact dermatitis
b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis
c) Photoirritation
d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

A

b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis

296
Q

Which of the following is NOT a non-allergic reaction type?
a) Irritation
b) Photoirritation
c) Allergic contact dermatitis
d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

A

c) Allergic contact dermatitis

297
Q

Which reaction type is associated with IgE-mediated type I immediate hypersensitivity?
a) Photoirritation
b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Allergic contact dermatitis

A

c) Immunologic contact urticaria

Pharma 1 (DUMP) (16 decks)

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