Derma Pharm - Redo

Question 1

1. Which of the following antibiotics is derived from Pseudomonic acid A?
   a) Bacitracin
   b) Mupirocin
   c) Retapamulin
   d) Polymyxin B Sulfate

Answer 1

b) Mupirocin
Rationale: Mupirocin is derived from Pseudomonic acid A and is effective against most gram-positive aerobic bacteria.

Question 2

2. Bacitracin is primarily effective against which type of organisms?
   a) Gram-negative
   b) Gram-positive
   c) Both
   d) Neither

Answer 2

b) Gram-positive
Rationale: Bacitracin is active against gram-positive organisms.

Question 3

3. Which antibiotic is associated with irritation of mucous membranes due to the polyethylene glycol vehicle?
   a) Bacitracin
   b) Mupirocin
   c) Neomycin
   d) Retapamulin

Answer 3

b) Mupirocin
Rationale: Intranasal mupirocin ointment can cause irritation due to the polyethylene glycol vehicle.

Question 4

4. Which antibiotic is available only for topical use due to systemic toxicity?
   a) Bacitracin
   b) Mupirocin
   c) Gramicidin
   d) Retapamulin

Answer 4

c) Gramicidin
Rationale: Gramicidin is available only for topical use because of its systemic toxicity.

Question 5

5. Retapamulin is NOT effective against which bacteria?
   a) S. aureus
   b) Group A B-hemolytic streptococci
   c) MRSA
   d) Neisseriae

Answer 5

c) MRSA
Rationale: Retapamulin is used for infections caused by group A B-hemolytic streptococci and S. aureus, excluding MRSA.

Question 6

Polymyxin B Sulfate is a ________ antibiotic.
a) Peptide
b) Aminoglycoside
c) Pseudomonic acid
d) None of the above

Answer 6

a) Peptide
Rationale: Polymyxin B Sulfate is classified as a peptide antibiotic.

Question 7

7. Which of the following antibiotics is NOT active against E. coli?
   a) Neomycin
   b) Gentamicin
   c) Bacitracin
   d) Polymyxin B Sulfate

Answer 7

c) Bacitracin
Rationale: Bacitracin is primarily active against gram-positive organisms, while the others are active against gram-negative organisms, including E. coli.

Question 8

8. Which antibiotic is used for impetigo caused by S. aureus found in the nasal passages?
   a) Mupirocin
   b) Retapamulin
   c) Bacitracin
   d) Gramicidin

Answer 8

c) Bacitracin
Rationale: Bacitracin is used for impetigo caused by S. aureus that resides in the nasal passages.

Question 9

9. Which of the following antibiotics can lead to potential nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, and ototoxicity in cases of renal failure?
   a) Bacitracin
   b) Mupirocin
   c) Neomycin
   d) Polymyxin B Sulfate

Answer 9

c) Neomycin
Rationale: In cases of renal failure, aminoglycoside antibiotics like Neomycin can accumulate, leading to potential nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, and ototoxicity.

Question 10

10. Which antibiotic is effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Neomycin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate

Answer 10

d) Polymyxin B Sulfate
Rationale: Polymyxin B Sulfate is effective against gram-negative organisms, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Question 11

11. Which of the following is NOT a peptide antibiotic?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Polymyxin B Sulfate
    c) Neomycin
    d) Gramicidin

Answer 11

c) Neomycin
Rationale: Neomycin and Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, while the others are peptide antibiotics.

Question 12

12. Which antibiotic is effective against MRSA?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Retapamulin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate

Answer 12

b) Mupirocin
Rationale: Mupirocin is effective against most gram-positive aerobic bacteria, including MRSA.

Question 13

13. Which of the following antibiotics is NOT active against gram-negative organisms?
    a) Neomycin
    b) Gentamicin
    c) Bacitracin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate

Answer 13

c) Bacitracin
Rationale: Bacitracin is primarily active against gram-positive organisms.

Question 14

14. Which antibiotic is derived from Pseudomonic acid A and is effective against S. aureus?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Neomycin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate

Answer 14

b) Mupirocin
Rationale: Mupirocin is derived from Pseudomonic acid A and is effective against S. aureus.

Question 15

15. Which of the following antibiotics is NOT associated with potential nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, and ototoxicity?
    a) Neomycin
    b) Gentamicin
    c) Bacitracin
    d) A&B

Answer 15

c) Bacitracin
Rationale: Aminoglycoside antibiotics like Neomycin and Gentamicin can lead to these toxicities in cases of renal failure.

Question 16

16. Which antibiotic is used for uncomplicated superficial skin infections caused by group A B-hemolytic streptococci?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Retapamulin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate

Answer 16

c) Retapamulin
Rationale: Retapamulin is used for such infections caused by group A B-hemolytic streptococci.

Question 17

17. Which antibiotic is poorly absorbed through the skin?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Neomycin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate

Answer 17

a) Bacitracin
Rationale: Bacitracin is poorly absorbed through the skin, making systemic toxicity rare.

Question 18

18. Which of the following antibiotics is effective against Neisseriae?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Neomycin
    d) Polymyxin B Sulfate

Answer 18

a) Bacitracin
Rationale: Bacitracin is sensitive to several organisms, including:
- Neisseriae.
- Tetanus bacilli
- Diphtheria bacilli

Question 19

19. Which antibiotic is available only for topical use due to its systemic toxicity?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Mupirocin
    c) Neomycin
    d) Gramicidin

Answer 19

d) Gramicidin
Rationale: Gramicidin is available only for topical use because of its systemic toxicity.

Question 20

20. Which of the following antibiotics is NOT a peptide antibiotic?
    a) Bacitracin
    b) Polymyxin B Sulfate
    c) Neomycin
    d) Gramicidin

Answer 20

c) Neomycin
Rationale: Neomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic, while the others are peptide antibiotics.

Question 21

Which bacteria is primarily targeted by Clindamycin in the treatment of acne?

A) Escherichia coli
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Propionibacterium acnes
D) Streptococcus pyogenes

Answer 21

C) Propionibacterium acnes
Rationale: Clindamycin is used to target Propionibacterium acnes, which is responsible for acne.

Question 22

What percentage of an applied dose of Clindamycin is typically absorbed?

A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 50%
D) 90%

Answer 22

B) 10%
Rationale: Approximately 10% of an applied dose of Clindamycin is absorbed.

Question 23

Which combination is NOT available for Clindamycin?

A) Benzoyl peroxide
B) Tretinoin
C) Salicylic acid
D) None of the above

Answer 23

C) Salicylic acid
Rationale: Clindamycin is available in combination with benzoyl peroxide and tretinoin but not with salicylic acid.

Question 24

Erythromycin’s presumed mechanism of action in treating acne is due to its inhibitory effects on:

A) Neutrophil cellular function
B) Propionibacterium acnes
C) Demodex brevis
D) p-aminobenzoic acid utilization

Answer 24

B) Propionibacterium acnes
Rationale: Erythromycin is believed to work due to its inhibitory effects on Propionibacterium acnes.

Question 25

Metronidazole is primarily used to treat: A) Acne B) Rosacea C) Eczema D) Psoriasis

Answer 25

B) Rosacea Rationale: Metronidazole is primarily used for the treatment of rosacea.

Question 26

Which mite is targeted by Metronidazole? A) Sarcoptes scabiei B) Demodex folliculorum C) Demodex brevis D) Ixodes scapularis

Answer 26

C) Demodex brevis Rationale: Metronidazole targets Demodex brevis.

Question 27

Sodium Sulfacetamide inhibits Propionibacterium acnes by: A) Destroying its cell wall B) Inhibiting protein synthesis C) Competitive inhibition of p-aminobenzoic acid utilization D) Disrupting its DNA replication

Answer 27

C) Competitive inhibition of p-aminobenzoic acid utilization Rationale: Sodium Sulfacetamide works by competitively inhibiting p-aminobenzoic acid utilization.

Question 28

Which of the following is a contraindication for Sodium Sulfacetamide? A) Pregnancy B) Hypersensitivity to sulfonamides C) Liver disease D) Kidney disease

Answer 28

B) Hypersensitivity to sulfonamides Rationale: Sodium Sulfacetamide is contraindicated in patients with a known hypersensitivity to sulfonamides.

Question 29

The exact mechanism of action for which drug is unknown? A) Clindamycin B) Erythromycin C) Dapsone D) Metronidazole

Answer 29

C) Dapsone Rationale: The exact mechanism of action for Dapsone is unknown.

Question 30

Which side effect is associated with the combination of Dapsone gel and benzoyl peroxide? A) Red discoloration of the skin B) Temporary yellow discoloration of the skin and hair C) Severe itching D) Formation of blisters

Answer 30

B) Temporary yellow discoloration of the skin and hair Rationale: Applying dapsone gel followed by benzoyl peroxide can cause a temporary yellow discoloration of the skin and hair.

Question 31

Which condition might be exacerbated in patients with G6PD deficiency when using Dapsone? A) Anemia B) Hypertension C) Diabetes D) Asthma

Answer 31

A) Anemia Rationale: A slight decrease in hemoglobin concentration can occur in patients with G6PD deficiency when using Dapsone, suggesting mild hemolysis or anemia.

Question 32

Which medication has a direct effect on neutrophil cellular function? A) Clindamycin B) Erythromycin C) Metronidazole D) Dapsone

Answer 32

C) Metronidazole Rationale: Metronidazole has a direct effect on neutrophil cellular function.

Question 33

Which medication is available in a fixed-combination with benzoyl peroxide? A) Clindamycin B) Erythromycin C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B

Answer 33

C) Both A and B Rationale: Both Clindamycin and Erythromycin are available in fixed-combinations with benzoyl peroxide.

Question 34

Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with a known hypersensitivity to sulfonamides? A) Clindamycin B) Erythromycin C) Sodium Sulfacetamide D) Dapsone

Answer 34

C) Sodium Sulfacetamide Rationale: Sodium Sulfacetamide is contraindicated in patients with a known hypersensitivity to sulfonamides.

Question 35

1. Which of the following is NOT a topical azole derivative? A) Clotrimazole B) Econazole C) Ciclopirox Olamine D) Miconazole

Answer 35

C) Ciclopirox Olamine Rationale: Ciclopirox Olamine is not an azole derivative; it belongs to a different class of antifungals.

Question 36

2. Which antifungal agent is recommended for twice-daily applications to treat seborrheic dermatitis? A) Clotrimazole B) Ketoconazole C) Terbinafine D) Nystatin

Answer 36

B) Ketoconazole Rationale: Ketoconazole is recommended for twice-daily applications to treat seborrheic dermatitis.

Question 37

3. What is the primary action site of Ciclopirox Olamine in fungi? A) Fungal cell nucleus B) Fungal cell wall C) Fungal cell membrane D) Fungal mitochondria

Answer 37

C) Fungal cell membrane Rationale: Ciclopirox Olamine likely acts on the fungal cell membrane.

Question 38

4. Which antifungal has a complete cure rate of less than 12% in clinical trials for onychomycosis? A) Ketoconazole B) Terbinafine C) Ciclopirox Olamine D) Butenafine

Answer 38

C) Ciclopirox Olamine Rationale: 8% ciclopirox olamine (Penlac nail lacquer) has a complete cure rate of less than 12% in clinical trials for onychomycosis.

Question 39

5. Which of the following is NOT an activity of Allylamines? A) Highly active against dermatophytes B) Treatment of athlete's foot C) Effective against Candida D) Treatment of ringworm

Answer 39

C) Effective against Candida Rationale: Allylamines are less active against yeasts like Candida.

Question 40

6. Butenafine is structurally related to which of the following? A) Azoles B) Allylamines C) Nystatin D) Tolnaftate

Answer 40

B) Allylamines Rationale: Butenafine is a benzylamine that is structurally related to the allylamines.

Question 41

7. Which antifungal agent is effective against Epidermophyton, Microsporum, and Trichophyton but not against Candida? A) Tolnaftate B) Ketoconazole C) Terbinafine D) Nystatin

Answer 41

A) Tolnaftate Rationale: Tolnaftate is effective against Epidermophyton, Microsporum, and Trichophyton but not against Candida.

Question 42

8. Which of the following is NOT a use of Nystatin? A) Treatment of oral thrush B) Treatment of onychomycosis C) Vaginal infections D) Topical therapy of C albicans infections

Answer 42

B) Treatment of onychomycosis Rationale: Nystatin is not used for the treatment of onychomycosis, NOT EFFECTIVE AGAINST DERMATOPHYTES.

Question 43

9. Which antifungal agent inhibits the epoxidation of squalene? A) Butenafine B) Terbinafine C) Ketoconazole D) Tolnaftate

Answer 43

A) Butenafine Rationale: Butenafine inhibits the epoxidation of squalene, blocking ergosterol synthesis in fungal cell membranes.

Question 44

10. Which of the following antifungals is NOT effective against dermatophytes? A) Nystatin B) Tolnaftate C) Ketoconazole D) Terbinafine

Answer 44

A) Nystatin Rationale: Nystatin and Amphotericin B are useful for the topical therapy of C albicans infections but is ineffective against dermatophytes.

Question 45

11. What is the primary mechanism of action of Ciclopirox Olamine? A) Inhibition of DNA synthesis B) Inhibition of protein synthesis C) Inhibition of the uptake of precursors of macromolecular synthesis D) Disruption of fungal cell wall

Answer 45

C) Inhibition of the uptake of precursors of macromolecular synthesis Rationale: Ciclopirox Olamine appears to inhibit the uptake of precursors of macromolecular synthesis.

Question 46

12. Which of the following antifungals is also used in the treatment of dandruff? A) Clotrimazole B) Ketoconazole C) Ciclopirox Olamine D) Terbinafine

Answer 46

C) Ciclopirox Olamine Rationale: Ciclopirox Olamine is also used in the treatment of dandruff.

Question 47

13. Which antifungal agent is recommended for the treatment of athlete's foot, ringworm, and jock itch? A) Naftifine B) Ketoconazole C) Ciclopirox Olamine D) Nystatin

Answer 47

A) Naftifine Rationale: Allylamines, including Naftifine & Terbinafine are recommended for the treatment of skin infections caused by fungi, including athlete's foot, ringworm, and jock itch.

Question 48

14. Which of the following antifungals is a benzylamine? A) Butenafine B) Terbinafine C) Ketoconazole D) Tolnaftate

Answer 48

A) Butenafine Rationale: Butenafine is a benzylamine that is structurally related to the allylamines.

Question 49

15. Which antifungal agent is used as a vaginal tablet or suppository? A) Ketoconazole B) Terbinafine C) Ciclopirox Olamine D) Nystatin

Answer 49

D) Nystatin Rationale: Nystatin is used as a vaginal tablet or suppository for the treatment of C albicans infections.

Question 50

16. Which antifungal agent has a combination with corticosteroids to provide rapid symptomatic improvement? A) Clotrimazole B) Tolnaftate C) Terbinafine D) Nystatin

Answer 50

A) Clotrimazole Rationale: Topical azole derivatives, including Clotrimazole, have combinations with corticosteroids to provide rapid symptomatic improvement.

Question 51

17. Which antifungal agent acts by inhibiting the epoxidation of squalene? A) Butenafine B) Terbinafine C) Ketoconazole D) Tolnaftate

Answer 51

A) Butenafine Rationale: Butenafine inhibits the epoxidation of squalene, blocking ergosterol synthesis in fungal cell membranes.

Question 52

18. Which of the following is NOT a use of Ciclopirox Olamine? A) Treatment of dermatomycosis B) Treatment of candidiasis C) Treatment of oral thrush D) Treatment of tinea versicolor

Answer 52

C) Treatment of oral thrush Rationale: Ciclopirox Olamine is not used for the treatment of oral thrush. It is used for dermatomycosis, candidiasis, and tinea versicolor.

Question 53

Which oral antifungal agent displays a high degree of water solubility? A) Itraconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Fluconazole

Answer 53

D) Fluconazole Rationale: Fluconazole is known for its high water solubility and good cerebrospinal fluid penetration.

Question 54

Which agent is derived from a species of penicillium? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 54

B) Griseofulvin Rationale: Griseofulvin is a very insoluble fungistatic drug derived from a species of penicillium.

Question 55

Which antifungal agent inhibits the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 55

C) Terbinafine Rationale: Terbinafine interferes with ergosterol biosynthesis by inhibiting the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase.

Question 56

Which antifungal agent's absorption is increased by food and low gastric pH? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 56

D) Itraconazole Rationale: Itraconazole's absorption from capsules is increased by food and by low gastric pH.

Question 56

Which antifungal agent is recommended for onychomycosis with a dose of 250 mg/day? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 56

C) Terbinafine Rationale: Terbinafine is recommended for onychomycosis with a dose of 250 mg/day. Itraconazole : 200 mg/day

Question 56

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for Fluconazole? A) Combining with midazolam B) Combining with triazolam C) Combining with HMG-Co reductase inhibitors D) Combining with aspirin

Answer 56

D) Combining with aspirin Rationale: There's no specific contraindication mentioned for combining fluconazole with aspirin.

Question 56

Which antifungal agent binds to keratin in newly forming skin? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 56

B) Griseofulvin Rationale: Griseofulvin binds to keratin in newly forming skin, protecting the skin from new infection.

Question 56

Which antifungal agent is known to have the widest therapeutic index among azoles? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 56

A) Fluconazole Rationale: Due to fewer hepatic enzyme interactions and better gastrointestinal tolerance, fluconazole has the widest therapeutic index of the azoles.

Question 56

Which antifungal agent is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 56

B) Griseofulvin Rationale: Griseofulvin is effective against dermatophyte infections but is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare.

Question 56

Which antifungal agent's absorption is best in an acidic medium? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 56

D) Itraconazole Rationale: Itraconazole is best absorbed in an acidic medium.

Question 56

Which antifungal agent does not seem to affect the P450 system? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 56

C) Terbinafine Rationale: Terbinafine does not seem to affect the P450 system and has demonstrated no significant drug interactions to date.

Question 56

Which antifungal agent's absorption is not affected by food? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 56

A) Fluconazole Rationale: Fluconazole's absorption is not mentioned to be affected by food, unlike Itraconazole.

Question 56

Which antifungal agent is used extensively in the treatment of dermatophytoses and onychomycosis? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 56

D) Itraconazole Rationale: Itraconazole is used extensively in the treatment of dermatophytoses and onychomycosis.

Question 56

Which antifungal agent's mechanism of action at the cellular level is unclear but is deposited in newly forming skin? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 56

B) Griseofulvin Rationale: Griseofulvin's mechanism of action at the cellular level is unclear, but it is deposited in newly forming skin where it binds to keratin.

Question 57

Which antifungal agent is used prophylactically in bone marrow transplant recipients and AIDS patients? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 57

A) Fluconazole Rationale: Prophylactic use of fluconazole has been demonstrated to reduce fungal disease in bone marrow transplant recipients and AIDS patients.

Question 58

Which antifungal agent is derived from a species of penicillium and is very insoluble? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 58

B) Griseofulvin Rationale: Griseofulvin is a very insoluble fungistatic drug derived from a species of penicillium.

Question 59

Which antifungal agent's absorption is increased when taken with fruit juice? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 59

D) Itraconazole Rationale: Itraconazole is best absorbed in an acidic medium, and taking it with fruit juice will facilitate the absorption of the drug.

Question 60

Which antifungal agent is known for its pulse dosing recommendation? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 60

D) Itraconazole Rationale: Itraconazole has a recommendation for pulse dosing, especially for onychomycosis.

Question 61

Which antifungal agent is recommended for mucocutaneous candidiasis with a dose of 100 mg/day? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 61

A) Fluconazole Rationale: Fluconazole is recommended for mucocutaneous candidiasis with a dose of 100 mg/day.

Question 62

Which antifungal agent is known to be keratophilic? A) Fluconazole B) Griseofulvin C) Terbinafine D) Itraconazole

Answer 62

B) Griseofulvin Rationale: Griseofulvin is known to be keratophilic as it binds to keratin in newly forming skin.

Question 63

1. Which of the following is NOT a synthetic guanine analog with inhibitory activity against the herpesvirus family? A) Acyclovir B) Valacyclovir C) Penciclovir D) Amoxicillin

Answer 63

D) Amoxicillin Rationale: Amoxicillin is an antibiotic and not a synthetic guanine analog used against herpesviruses.

Question 64

Topical penciclovir (Denavir) is available as a ___ cream. A) 0.5% B) 1% C) 2% D) 5%

Answer 64

B) 1% Rationale: The text mentions that topical penciclovir (Denavir) is available as a 1% cream.

Question 65

Acyclovir selectively inhibits the replication of which of the following viruses? A) HSV-1 only B) HSV-2 only C) Both HSV-1 and HSV-2 D) Neither HSV-1 nor HSV-2

Answer 65

C) Both HSV-1 and HSV-2 Rationale: Acyclovir inhibits the replication of both HSV types 1 and 2.

Question 66

4. Which enzyme converts acyclovir to acyclovir monophosphate? A) DNA polymerase B) Ribonuclease C) Thymidine kinase D) Helicase

Answer 66

C) Thymidine kinase Rationale: Acyclovir is converted to acyclovir monophosphate by virally encoded thymidine kinase.

Question 67

5. Acyclovir triphosphate inhibits which enzyme? A) DNA ligase B) RNA polymerase C) DNA polymerase D) Reverse transcriptase

Answer 67

C) DNA polymerase Rationale: Acyclovir triphosphate competitively inhibits viral DNA polymerase.

Question 68

6. The absence of which group in acyclovir triphosphate results in chain termination when incorporated into viral DNA? A) 5' phosphate group B) 2' hydroxyl group C) 3' hydroxyl group D) Methyl group

Answer 68

C) 3' hydroxyl group Rationale: The absence of a 3' hydroxyl group in acyclovir triphosphate prevents the attachment of additional nucleosides, leading to chain termination.

Question 69

7. Which of the following is NOT a function of acyclovir triphosphate? A) Acts as an analog to dGTP B) Converts RNA to DNA C) Inhibits viral DNA polymerase D) Causes chain termination in viral DNA

Answer 69

B) Converts RNA to DNA Rationale: Acyclovir triphosphate does not convert RNA to DNA. It acts as an analog to dGTP, inhibits viral DNA polymerase, and causes chain termination in viral DNA.

Question 70

8. Which of the following drugs is available as a 5% ointment? A) Penciclovir B) Famciclovir C) Valacyclovir D) Acyclovir

Answer 70

D) Acyclovir Rationale: Acyclovir is available as a 5% ointment.

Question 71

9. Which virus is NOT mentioned as being inhibited by acyclovir? A) HSV-1 B) HSV-2 C) VZV D) HIV

Answer 71

D) HIV Rationale: The text mentions that acyclovir inhibits HSV-1, HSV-2, and VZV, but not HIV.

Question 72

10. Which of the following is a nucleoside analog? A) Acyclovir B) Penicillin C) Insulin D) Epinephrine

Answer 72

A) Acyclovir Rationale: Acyclovir is described as a nucleoside analog that selectively inhibits the replication of certain viruses.

Question 73

1. Which of the following is a use of Imiquimod? A) Treatment of fungal infections B) Treatment of external genital and perianal warts in adults C) Treatment of bacterial infections D) Treatment of viral respiratory infections

Answer 73

B) Treatment of external genital and perianal warts in adults Rationale: Imiquimod is used for the treatment of external genital and perianal warts in adults.

Question 74

2. What concentration of Imiquimod is found in Zyclara? A) 1% B) 2.5% C) 3.75% D) 5%

Answer 74

C) 3.75% Rationale: Zyclara contains Imiquimod in a concentration of 3.75%.

Question 75

3. Which cytokine is NOT stimulated by Imiquimod? A) IL-1 B) IL-5 C) IL-6 D) TNF-a

Answer 75

B) IL-5 Rationale: Imiquimod stimulates the production of IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, and TNF-a, but not IL-5.

Question 76

4. Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus are primarily used for which skin condition? A) Psoriasis B) Acne C) Atopic dermatitis D) Rosacea

Answer 76

C) Atopic dermatitis Rationale: Both Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus are indicated for the treatment of mild to moderate atopic dermatitis.

Question 77

5. Which of the following is an off-label use of Tacrolimus? A) Vitiligo B) Psoriasis C) Acne D) Rosacea

Answer 77

A) Vitiligo Rationale: Tacrolimus has an off-label use for the treatment of vitiligo.

Question 78

6. Which drug is the drug of choice for Molluscum contagiosum in children? A) Tacrolimus B) Pimecrolimus C) Imiquimod D) Acyclovir

Answer 78

C) Imiquimod Rationale: Imiquimod is the drug of choice for treating Molluscum contagiosum in children.

Question 79

7. What is the most common side effect of both Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus? A) Dryness B) Itching C) Burning sensation D) Redness

Answer 79

C) Burning sensation Rationale: The most common side effect of both drugs is a burning sensation in the applied area.

Question 80

8. Which drug has a black box warning due to animal tumorigenicity data? A) Imiquimod B) Tacrolimus C) Pimecrolimus D) Both B and C

Answer 80

D) Both B and C Rationale: Both Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus have a black box warning due to animal tumorigenicity data.

Question 81

9. Which of the following is NOT a mode of action of Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus? A) Inhibition of T-lymphocyte activation B) Stimulation of macrophages C) Prevention of inflammatory cytokine release from mast cells D) Stimulation of peripheral mononuclear cells

Answer 81

D) Stimulation of peripheral mononuclear cells Rationale: Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus inhibit T-lymphocyte activation and prevent the release of inflammatory cytokines from mast cells but do not stimulate peripheral mononuclear cells.

Question 82

10. Imiquimod is applied how many times per week for wart treatment? A) Once B) Twice C) Three times D) Daily

Answer 82

C) Three times Rationale: Imiquimod is applied to the wart tissue three times per week.

Question 83

11. Which drug is used for the treatment of actinic keratoses on the face and scalp? A) Tacrolimus B) Pimecrolimus C) Imiquimod D) Acyclovir

Answer 83

C) Imiquimod Rationale: Imiquimod is used for the treatment of actinic keratoses on the face and scalp.

Question 84

12. Which of the following drugs is NOT a macrolide immunosuppressant? A) Tacrolimus B) Pimecrolimus C) Imiquimod D) Both A and B

Answer 84

C) Imiquimod Rationale: Only Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus are classified as macrolide immunosuppressants.

Question 85

13. What is the absorption rate of Imiquimod following a single-dose application? A) Less than 0.9% B) About 5% C) About 10% D) More than 20%

Answer 85

A) Less than 0.9% Rationale: Percutaneous absorption of Imiquimod is minimal, with less than 0.9% absorbed following a single-dose application.

Question 86

14. Which drug is approved for use in children older than 2 years of age for atopic dermatitis? A) Tacrolimus 0.03% ointment B) Pimecrolimus 1% cream C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B

Answer 86

C) Both A and B Rationale: Both Tacrolimus 0.03% ointment and Pimecrolimus 1% cream are approved for use in children older than 2 years of age for atopic dermatitis.

Question 87

15. Imiquimod stimulates the release of which interferon? A) Interferon beta B) Interferon gamma C) Interferon alpha D) Interferon delta

Answer 87

C) Interferon alpha Rationale: Imiquimod stimulates peripheral mononuclear cells to release interferon alpha.

Question 88

1. Which of the following best describes the mode of action of Imiquimod? A) Inhibition of T-lymphocyte activation B) Stimulation of macrophages to produce IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, TNF-a C) Prevention of inflammatory cytokine release from mast cells D) Direct antiviral activity

Answer 88

B) Stimulation of macrophages to produce IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, TNF-a Rationale: Imiquimod stimulates macrophages to produce interleukins (IL-1, IL-6, IL-8) and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a).

Question 89

2. Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus primarily act by: A) Stimulating peripheral mononuclear cells to release interferon alpha B) Directly killing bacteria on the skin C) Inhibiting T-lymphocyte activation D) Increasing the production of sebum

Answer 89

C) Inhibiting T-lymphocyte activation Rationale: Both Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus inhibit T-lymphocyte activation as their primary mode of action.

Question 90

Which of the following best describes the primary mode of action of Imiquimod? A) Direct antiviral activity against HPV. B) Inhibition of DNA replication in rapidly dividing cells. C) Stimulation of peripheral mononuclear cells to release interferon alpha and stimulation of macrophages to produce various interleukins. D) Inhibition of T-lymphocyte activation.

Answer 90

C) Stimulation of peripheral mononuclear cells to release interferon alpha and stimulation of macrophages to produce various interleukins. Rationale: Imiquimod's primary MOA involves stimulating peripheral mononuclear cells to release interferon alpha and stimulating macrophages to produce interleukins (IL-1, IL-6, IL-8) and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a). It does not have direct antiviral activity or inhibit T-lymphocyte activation.

Question 91

1. Which of the following is toxic to Sarcoptes scabiei? A. Spinosad B. Ivermectin C. Permethrin D. Lindane

Answer 91

C. Permethrin Rationale: Permethrin is listed as toxic to Sarcoptes scabiei.

Question 92

2. Which drug is derived from the fermentation of a soil Actinomyces bacterium? A. Permethrin B. Spinosad C. Ivermectin D. Lindane

Answer 92

B. Spinosad Rationale: Spinosad is derived from the fermentation of a soil Actinomyces bacterium.

Question 93

3. Which drug should not be repeated without health care provider recommendation? A. Permethrin B. Spinosad C. Ivermectin D. Lindane

Answer 93

C. Ivermectin Rationale: Ivermectin is for single use only and should not be repeated without a health care provider's recommendation.

Question 94

4. Lindane is concentrated in which of the following after absorption? A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Fatty tissues D. Blood

Answer 94

C. Fatty tissues Rationale: After absorption, Lindane is concentrated in fatty tissues, including the brain.

Question 95

5. Which drug has an unpleasant odor and is disagreeable to use? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 95

B. Sulfur Rationale: Sulfur has an unpleasant odor and is known to be disagreeable to use.

Question 96

6. Which drug is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 96

C. Malathion Rationale: Malathion is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor.

Question 97

7. Which drug's treatment must be repeated after 7 days as it is not ovicidal? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 97

D. Benzyl Alcohol Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol is not ovicidal, so its treatment must be repeated after 7 days.

Question 98

8. Which drug is used as a 1% shampoo or lotion for pediculosis capitis or pubis? A. Permethrin B. Spinosad C. Ivermectin D. Lindane

Answer 98

D. Lindane Rationale: Lindane is used as a 1% shampoo or lotion for pediculosis capitis or pubis.

Question 99

9. Which drug's mechanism of action is not known? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 99

A. Crotamiton Rationale: The mechanism of action for Crotamiton is not known.

Question 100

10. Which drug is available as a 5% lotion for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 100

D. Benzyl Alcohol Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol is available as a 5% lotion for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months.

Question 101

11. Which drug is hydrolyzed and inactivated by plasma carboxylesterases much faster in humans than in insects? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 101

C. Malathion Rationale: Malathion is hydrolyzed and inactivated by plasma carboxylesterases much faster in humans than in insects.

Question 102

12. Which drug is toxic to Pthirus pubis? A. Permethrin B. Spinosad C. Ivermectin D. Lindane

Answer 102

A. Permethrin Rationale: Permethrin is listed as toxic to Pthirus pubis.

Question 103

13. Which drug is derived from a soil Actinomyces bacterium? A. Permethrin B. Spinosad C. Ivermectin D. Lindane

Answer 103

B. Spinosad Rationale: Spinosad is derived from the fermentation of a soil Actinomyces bacterium.

Question 104

14. Which scabicide drug's treatment involves 2 applications to the entire body from the chin down at 24-hour intervals? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 104

A. Crotamiton Rationale: Crotamiton's suggested treatment involves 2 applications to the entire body from the chin down at 24-hour intervals.

Question 105

15. Which drug is an alternative for infants and pregnant women? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 105

B. Sulfur Rationale: Sulfur is an alternative drug for infants and pregnant women.

Question 106

16. Which drug is available as a 0.5% lotion that should be applied to the hair when dry? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 106

C. Malathion Rationale: Malathion is available as a 0.5% lotion that should be applied to the hair when dry.

Question 107

17. Which drug has a known adverse effect of eye irritation? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 107

D. Benzyl Alcohol Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol has a known adverse effect of eye irritation.

Question 108

18. Which drug's treatment involves a single application of lotion (1%)60mL application to the entire body from the neck down? A. Permethrin B. Spinosad C. Ivermectin D. Lindane

Answer 108

D. Lindane Rationale: Lindane's treatment involves a single 60mL application to the entire body from the neck down.

Question 109

19. Which drug is toxic to Pediculus humanus? A. Permethrin B. Spinosad C. Ivermectin D. Lindane

Answer 109

A. Permethrin Rationale: Permethrin is listed as toxic to Pediculus humanus.

Question 110

20. Which drug is used for the topical treatment of head lice in patients 4 years old and older? A. Permethrin B. Spinosad C. Ivermectin D. Lindane

Answer 110

B. Spinosad Rationale: Spinosad is used for the topical treatment of head lice in patients 4 years old and older.

Question 111

21. Which drug has a known adverse effect of allergic contact dermatitis? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 111

D. Benzyl Alcohol Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol has a known adverse effect of allergic contact dermatitis.

Question 112

22. Which drug's mechanism of action involves inhibiting cholinesterase? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 112

C. Malathion Rationale: Malathion is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor.

Question 113

23. Which drug is used as a scabicide with some antipruritic properties? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 113

A. Crotamiton Rationale: Crotamiton is used as a scabicide with some antipruritic properties.

Question 114

24. Which drug's treatment must be applied to dry hair and left for 10 minutes prior to rinsing off with water? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 114

D. Benzyl Alcohol Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol's treatment must be applied to dry hair and left for 10 minutes prior to rinsing off with water.

Question 115

25. Which drug is used as a scabicide and is an alternative for infants and pregnant women? A. Crotamiton B. Sulfur C. Malathion D. Benzyl Alcohol

Answer 115

B. Sulfur Rationale: Sulfur is used as a scabicide and is an alternative drug for infants and pregnant women.

Question 116

1. Which of the following is NOT a type of sunscreen? A. Chemical Sunscreen B. Physical Sunscreen C. Reflective Sunscreen D. Sunshades

Answer 116

C. Reflective Sunscreen Rationale: The provided information mentions Chemical Sunscreens and Physical Sunscreens (also known as Sunshades) but does not mention any "Reflective Sunscreen."

Question 117

2. Which compound is most effective in the UVB region? A. Benzophenones B. Dibenzoylmethane C. p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) D. Titanium Dioxide

Answer 117

C. p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) Rationale: PABA and its esters are mentioned as the most effective absorbers in the UVB region.

Question 118

3. Which compound has maximum absorption at 360 nm? A. Oxybenzone B. Dibenzoylmethane C. PABA D. Sulisobenzone

Answer 118

B. Dibenzoylmethane Rationale: Dibenzoylmethane absorbs wavelengths throughout the longer UVA range, with maximum absorption at 360 nm.

Question 119

4. Chronic exposure to which UV range can lead to skin aging and photocarcinogenesis? A. 250-280 nm B. 280-320 nm C. 320-360 nm D. 360-400 nm

Answer 119

B. 280-320 nm Rationale: The UVB range of 280-320 nm is responsible for most of the erythema and sunburn, and chronic exposure to this range can lead to skin aging and photocarcinogenesis.

Question 120

5. What does SPF measure? A. The transparency of the sunscreen B. The thickness of the sunscreen layer C. The sunscreen's effectiveness in absorbing erythrogenic ultraviolet light D. The sunscreen's water resistance

Answer 120

C. The sunscreen's effectiveness in absorbing erythrogenic ultraviolet light Rationale: SPF measures a sunscreen's effectiveness in absorbing erythrogenic ultraviolet light.

Question 121

6. Which of the following provides a broader spectrum of absorption from 250-360 nm? A. PABA B. Dibenzoylmethane C. Benzophenones D. Titanium Dioxide

Answer 121

C. Benzophenones Rationale: Benzophenones, including oxybenzone, dioxybenzone, and sulisobenzone, provide a broader spectrum of absorption from 250-360 nm.

Question 122

7. Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with sensitivity to UVA wavelengths? A. Polymorphous light eruption B. Cutaneous lupus erythematosus C. Melasma D. Drug-induced photosensitivity

Answer 122

C. Melasma Rationale: The provided information mentions polymorphous light eruption, cutaneous lupus erythematosus, and drug-induced photosensitivity as conditions sensitive to UVA wavelengths, but not melasma.

Question 123

8. What is the maximum SPF value that can be claimed on sunscreen labels according to FDA regulations? A. SPF 30 B. SPF 50 C. SPF 50+ D. SPF 100

Answer 123

C. SPF 50+ Rationale: The FDA regulation limits the claimed maximum SPF value on sunscreen labels to 50+.

Question 124

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of Benzophenone? A. Oxybenzone B. Dioxybenzone C. Sulisobenzone D. Methoxybenzone

Answer 124

D. Methoxybenzone Rationale: The provided information lists oxybenzone, dioxybenzone, and sulisobenzone as types of Benzophenones.

Question 125

10. Which of the following sunscreens is opaque and reflects light? A. Chemical Sunscreen B. Sunshades C. PABA D. Dibenzoylmethane

Answer 125

B. Sunshades Rationale: Sunshades, also known as Physical Sunscreens, are opaque materials that reflect light.

Question 126

11. Beyond SPF 50, the increments of protection provided by higher SPF values are: A. Significant B. Minimal C. Double D. Half

Answer 126

B. Minimal Rationale: Beyond SPF 50, the increments of protection provided by higher SPF values are minimal.

Question 127

12. Products claiming to be water-resistant must indicate their effectiveness while swimming or sweating for either: A. 20 or 40 minutes B. 40 or 80 minutes C. 60 or 90 minutes D. 30 or 60 minutes

Answer 127

B. 40 or 80 minutes Rationale: Products claiming to be water-resistant must indicate whether they remain effective for 40 minutes or 80 minutes while swimming or sweating.

Question 128

13. Which of the following is NOT a function of sunscreens? A. Absorbing UV light B. Reflecting light C. Enhancing tanning D. Preventing erythema

Answer 128

C. Enhancing tanning Rationale: Sunscreens are designed to absorb or reflect UV light and prevent erythema, not to enhance tanning.

Question 129

14. Which of the following compounds provides less effectiveness in the UVB erythema range than PABA? A. Oxybenzone B. Sulisobenzone C. Dioxybenzone D. All of the above

Answer 129

D. All of the above Rationale: Benzophenones, which include oxybenzone, dioxybenzone, and sulisobenzone, have less effectiveness in the UVB erythema range than PABA.

Question 130

15. Broad Spectrum Sunscreen is defined as a sunscreen that: A. Only protects against UVB radiation B. Only protects against UVA radiation C. Protects against both UVA and UVB radiation D. Provides water resistance

Answer 130

C. Protects against both UVA and UVB radiation Rationale: Broad Spectrum Sunscreen passes the standard test comparing the amount of UVA radiation protection in relation to the amount of UVB protection.

Question 131

1. Retinoic acid is formed by the oxidation of which group? A. Carboxyl group B. Ketone group C. Alcohol group D. Amine group

Answer 131

C. Alcohol group Rationale: Retinoic acid is formed by the oxidation of the alcohol group.

Question 132

Which of the following is the acid form of Vitamin A? A. Retinol B. Retinoic acid C. Tazarotene D. Adapalene

Answer 132

B. Retinoic acid Rationale: Retinoic acid is the acid form of Vitamin A.

Question 133

3. What percentage of topically applied retinoic acid is absorbed into the circulation? A. Less than 5% B. 20-30% C. Less than 10% D. 50-60%

Answer 133

C. Less than 10% Rationale: When applied topically, less than 10% of retinoic acid is absorbed into the circulation.

Question 134

4. Which of the following is NOT a function of retinoic acid? A. Increases prostaglandin E2 B. Decreases ribonucleic acid polymerase activity C. Stabilizes lysosomal membranes D. Increases cAMP levels

Answer 134

B. Decreases ribonucleic acid polymerase activity Rationale: Retinoic acid increases ribonucleic acid polymerase activity, not decreases.

Question 135

5. Which drug may enhance the tumorigenic potential of ultraviolet radiation based on animal studies? A. Benzoyl Peroxide B. Azelaic Acid C. Retinoic Acid D. Brimonidine

Answer 135

C. Retinoic Acid Rationale: Animal studies suggest that retinoic acid might enhance the tumorigenic potential of ultraviolet radiation.

Question 136

6. Adapalene is a derivative of which acid? A. Benzoic acid B. Naphthoic acid C. Retinoic acid D. Azelaic acid

Answer 136

B. Naphthoic acid Rationale: Adapalene is a derivative of naphthoic acid.

Question 137

7. Which drug is photochemically stable and retains its efficacy when combined with benzoyl peroxide? A. Tazarotene B. Isotretinoin C. Adapalene D. Retinoic Acid

Answer 137

C. Adapalene Rationale: Adapalene is photochemically stable and shows little decrease in efficacy when used in combination with benzoyl peroxide.

Question 138

8. Tazarotene is a prodrug that is converted to its active form by which enzyme? A. Oxidase B. Esterase C. Reductase D. Hydrolase

Answer 138

B. Esterase Rationale: Tazarotene is a prodrug that is hydrolyzed to its active form by an esterase.

Question 139

9. Which drug is used for severe cystic acne that doesn't respond to standard therapies? A. Adapalene B. Benzoyl Peroxide C. Tazarotene D. Isotretinoin

Answer 139

D. Isotretinoin Rationale: Isotretinoin is used for severe cystic acne that is recalcitrant to standard therapies.

Question 140

10. Which of the following side effects does NOT resemble hypervitaminosis A? A. Dryness of the skin B. Headaches C. Increased appetite D. Itching of mucous membranes

Answer 140

C. Increased appetite Rationale: Side effects of isotretinoin that resemble hypervitaminosis A include dryness and itching of the skin and mucous membranes, but not increased appetite.

Question 141

11. Benzoyl peroxide primarily gets converted metabolically to which compound within the skin? A. Benzoic acid B. Acetic acid C. Lactic acid D. Uric acid

Answer 141

A. Benzoic acid Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide is metabolically converted to benzoic acid within the epidermis and dermis.

Question 142

12. Which drug has antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and exhibits peeling and comedolytic effects? A. Azelaic Acid B. Brimonidine C. Benzoyl Peroxide D. Retinoic Acid

Answer 142

C. Benzoyl Peroxide Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide has antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and exhibits peeling and comedolytic effects.

Question 143

13. Azelaic acid inhibits the conversion of which hormone? A. Estrogen to estradiol B. Testosterone to dihydrotestosterone C. Progesterone to pregnenolone D. Cortisol to cortisone

Answer 143

B. Testosterone to dihydrotestosterone Rationale: Azelaic acid has in vitro inhibitory effects on the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone.

Question 144

14. Brimonidine is primarily used for the topical treatment of what condition? A. Acne vulgaris B. Psoriasis C. Facial erythema of rosacea D. Eczema

Answer 144

C. Facial erythema of rosacea Rationale: Brimonidine is indicated for the topical treatment of persistent facial erythema of rosacea.

Question 145

15. Which drug works through direct vasoconstriction? A. Adapalene B. Tazarotene C. Brimonidine D. Isotretinoin

Answer 145

C. Brimonidine Rationale: Brimonidine works through direct vasoconstriction.

Question 146

16. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of isotretinoin? A. Dryness of the skin B. Hair loss C. Increased sebaceous gland size D. Headaches

Answer 146

C. Increased sebaceous gland size Rationale: Isotretinoin inhibits sebaceous gland size and function, so an increase in gland size is not a side effect.

Question 147

17. Which drug is a derivative of naphthoic acid? A. Tazarotene B. Adapalene C. Retinoic Acid D. Benzoyl Peroxide

Answer 147

B. Adapalene Rationale: Adapalene is a derivative of naphthoic acid.

Question 148

18. Which drug is an α2-adrenergic agonist? A. Azelaic Acid B. Brimonidine C. Benzoyl Peroxide D. Retinoic Acid

Answer 148

B. Brimonidine Rationale: Brimonidine is an α2-adrenergic agonist.

Question 149

19. Which of the following drugs promotes dermal collagen synthesis and new blood vessel formation? A. Adapalene B. Tazarotene C. Tretinoin D. Isotretinoin

Answer 149

C. Tretinoin Rationale: Prolonged use of tretinoin (a form of retinoic acid) promotes dermal collagen synthesis and new blood vessel formation.

Question 150

20. Which drug should be used with caution in patients with severe cardiovascular conditions due to its potential to lower blood pressure? A. Azelaic Acid B. Brimonidine C. Benzoyl Peroxide D. Retinoic Acid

Answer 150

B. Brimonidine Rationale: Brimonidine, as an α2 agonist, can lower blood pressure and should be used cautiously in patients with severe or unstable cardiovascular conditions.

Question 151

Which drug is a metabolite of the aromatic retinoid etretinate? A) Tazarotene B) Calcipotriene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 151

D) Acitretin Rationale: Acitretin is a metabolite of the aromatic retinoid etretinate and is used for the treatment of psoriasis.

Question 152

Which drug should not be used by women who may become pregnant during treatment or for at least 3 years after treatment ends? A) Tazarotene B) Alefacept C) Acitretin D) Calcipotriene

Answer 152

C) Acitretin Rationale: Acitretin is highly teratogenic and should not be used by women who are or may become pregnant.

Question 153

Which drug is a topical acetylenic retinoid prodrug? A) Tazarotene B) Calcipotriene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 153

A) Tazarotene Rationale: Tazarotene is a topical acetylenic retinoid prodrug that is hydrolyzed to its active form by an esterase.

Question 154

Which drug is NOT a TNF inhibitor? A) Etanercept B) Infliximab C) Ustekinumab D) Adalimumab

Answer 154

C) Ustekinumab Rationale: Ustekinumab is a cytokine inhibitor, while the others listed are TNF inhibitors.

Question 155

Which drug is a synthetic vitamin D3 derivative? A) Alefacept B) Tazarotene C) Calcipotriene D) Acitretin

Answer 155

C) Calcipotriene Rationale: Calcipotriene is a synthetic vitamin D3 derivative used for the treatment of psoriasis.

Question 156

Which drug interferes with lymphocyte activation? A) Calcipotriene B) Tazarotene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 156

C) Alefacept Rationale: Alefacept interferes with lymphocyte activation, which plays a role in the pathophysiology of psoriasis.

Question 157

Which drug may potentiate photosensitizing medications? A) Tazarotene B) Calcipotriene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 157

A) Tazarotene Rationale: Tazarotene may potentiate photosensitizing medications, and patients should be cautioned about sunlight exposure.

Question 158

Which drug combination is more effective than its individual components for treating psoriasis? A) Calcipotriene and betamethasone dipropionate B) Tazarotene and alefacept C) Acitretin and ustekinumab D) Infliximab and etanercept

Answer 158

A) Calcipotriene and betamethasone dipropionate Rationale: The combination of calcipotriene and betamethasone dipropionate is more effective than its individual ingredients for treating psoriasis.

Question 159

Which drug is NOT available locally? A) Calcipotriene B) Tazarotene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 159

B) Tazarotene Rationale: The text mentions that Tazarotene is not available locally.

Question 160

Which drug should be avoided in patients with a history of systemic malignancy due to a potential increased risk? A) Calcipotriene B) Tazarotene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 160

C) Alefacept Rationale: Alefacept is an immunosuppressive agent, and due to the possibility of an increased risk of malignancy, it should not be administered to patients with a history of systemic malignancy.

Question 161

Which drug's mechanism of action in psoriasis is still unknown but may relate to anti-inflammatory and antiproliferative actions? A) Calcipotriene B) Tazarotene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 161

B) Tazarotene Rationale: The exact mechanism of action of Tazarotene in psoriasis remains unknown but may be related to anti-inflammatory and antiproliferative actions.

Question 162

Which drug is associated with elevations in cholesterol and triglycerides? A) Calcipotriene B) Tazarotene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 162

D) Acitretin Rationale: Acitretin therapy can lead to elevations in cholesterol and triglycerides.

Question 163

Which drug is associated with hepatotoxicity and liver enzyme elevations? A) Calcipotriene B) Tazarotene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 163

D) Acitretin Rationale: Acitretin therapy has been reported to cause hepatotoxicity with liver enzyme elevations.

Question 164

Which drug requires patients to have their CD4 lymphocyte counts monitored weekly during treatment? A) Calcipotriene B) Tazarotene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 164

C) Alefacept Rationale: Patients taking Alefacept should have their CD4 lymphocyte counts monitored weekly.

Question 165

Which drug should not be given to patients with significant infections? A) Calcipotriene B) Tazarotene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 165

C) Alefacept Rationale: Alefacept is an immunosuppressive agent and should not be given to patients with significant infections.

Question 166

Which drug is better tolerated in sensitive and intertriginous areas? A) Calcipotriene B) Calcitriol C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 166

B) Calcitriol Rationale: Calcitriol is better tolerated in sensitive and intertriginous areas compared to other drugs.

Question 167

Which drug is a cytokine inhibitor? A) Etanercept B) Infliximab C) Ustekinumab D) Adalimumab

Answer 167

C) Ustekinumab Rationale: Ustekinumab is a cytokine inhibitor, while the others listed are TNF inhibitors.

Question 168

Which drug has a prolonged elimination time of more than 3 months? A) Calcipotriene B) Tazarotene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 168

D) Acitretin Rationale: Acitretin has a prolonged elimination time of more than 3 months.

Question 169

Which drug's active metabolite binds to retinoic acid receptors, resulting in modified gene expression? A) Calcipotriene B) Tazarotene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 169

B) Tazarotene Rationale: The active metabolite of Tazarotene, tazarotenic acid, binds to retinoic acid receptors, altering gene expression.

Question 170

Which drug is associated with a risk of teratogenic systemic concentrations if applied to over 20% of the total body surface area? A) Calcipotriene B) Tazarotene C) Alefacept D) Acitretin

Answer 170

B) Tazarotene Rationale: Tazarotene is absorbed through the skin, and teratogenic systemic concentrations might be achieved if applied to over 20% of the total body surface area.

Question 171

1. Which of the following was the original topical glucocorticoid? a) Dexamethasone b) Betamethasone c) Hydrocortisone d) Triamcinolone

Answer 171

c) Hydrocortisone Rationale: The text mentions that hydrocortisone was the original topical glucocorticoid.

Question 172

2. Which modification to betamethasone makes it over 300 times more active than hydrocortisone for topical use? a) Adding a hydroxyl group b) Attaching a 5-carbon valerate chain to the 17-hydroxyl position c) Fluorination at the 9a position d) Removing its 17-hydroxyl position

Answer 172

b) Attaching a 5-carbon valerate chain to the 17-hydroxyl position Rationale: The text specifies that attaching a 5-carbon valerate chain to betamethasone's 17-hydroxyl position increases its activity significantly.

Question 173

3. Which dermatologic disorder is considered very responsive to topical corticosteroids? a) Keloids b) Psoriasis of palms and soles c) Atopic dermatitis d) Alopecia areata

Answer 173

c) Atopic dermatitis Rationale: Atopic dermatitis is listed under the "Very Responsive" category for dermatologic disorders responsive to topical corticosteroids.

Question 174

4. Which adverse effect is NOT associated with topical corticosteroids? a) Atrophy b) Hypertrichosis c) Hypertension d) Perioral dermatitis

Answer 174

c) Hypertension Rationale: The provided list of adverse effects does not mention hypertension as a side effect of topical corticosteroids.

Question 175

5. How often is hydrocortisone typically applied to areas like the face, axilla, and groin? a) Once a day b) Twice a day c) Thrice a day d) Four times a day

Answer 175

b) Twice a day Rationale: The text mentions that hydrocortisone is typically applied twice a day to areas like the face, axilla, and groin.

Question 176

6. Which condition requires intralesional injection due to its least responsiveness to topical corticosteroids? a) Seborrheic dermatitis b) Psoriasis of the genitalia c) Keloids d) Lichen simplex chronicus

Answer 176

c) Keloids Rationale: Keloids are listed under the "Least Responsive" category, indicating that they require intralesional injections.

Question 177

7. Which of the following is NOT a local adverse effect of topical corticosteroids? a) Atrophy b) Increased intraocular pressure c) Allergic contact dermatitis d) Tachycardia

Answer 177

d) Tachycardia Rationale: Tachycardia is not mentioned in the list of local adverse effects of topical corticosteroids.

Question 178

8. Which topical corticosteroid is mentioned alongside dexamethasone as a 9a-fluorinated steroid? a) Triamcinolone b) Hydrocortisone c) Betamethasone d) Prednisolone

Answer 178

c) Betamethasone Rationale: The text mentions dexamethasone and betamethasone as 9a-fluorinated steroids.

Question 179

9. Which condition is considered less responsive to topical corticosteroids but NOT requiring intralesional injections? a) Keloids b) Psoriasis of palms and soles c) Alopecia areata d) Atopic dermatitis

Answer 179

b) Psoriasis of palms and soles Rationale: Psoriasis of palms and soles is listed under the "Less Responsive" category, indicating that it's less responsive but doesn't necessarily require intralesional injections.

Question 180

10. Which of the following is a potential systemic adverse effect of absorbable topical corticosteroids? a) Suppression of the HPA-axis b) Atrophy c) Telangiectasia d) Steroid acne

Answer 180

a) Suppression of the HPA-axis Rationale: The text mentions that all absorbable topical corticosteroids possess the potential to suppress the HPA-axis, indicating a systemic effect.

Question 181

1. Which property of tar compounds makes them valuable in treating chronic lichenified dermatitis? a) Anti-inflammatory b) Antipruritic c) Antibacterial d) Antifungal

Answer 181

b) Antipruritic Rationale: Tar compounds are known for their antipruritic (anti-itch) properties, which makes them valuable in treating conditions like chronic lichenified dermatitis.

Question 182

2. Which constituent of tar compounds is responsible for their antipruritic properties? a) Alkaloids b) Terpenes c) Phenolic d) Flavonoids

Answer 182

c) Phenolic Rationale: The phenolic constituents of tar compounds give them their antipruritic properties.

Question 183

3. In which condition might even weak tar preparations cause irritation? a) Chronic psoriasis b) Lichen simplex chronicus c) Acute dermatitis with vesiculation and oozing d) Subacute dermatitis

Answer 183

c) Acute dermatitis with vesiculation and oozing Rationale: In cases of acute dermatitis with vesiculation and oozing, even weak tar preparations might be irritating.

Question 184

4. Tar compounds offer an alternative to the use of which of the following in treating dermatitis and psoriasis? a) Topical antibiotics b) Topical antifungals c) Topical corticosteroids d) Oral antihistamines

Answer 184

c) Topical corticosteroids Rationale: Tar compounds can be useful in the subacute and chronic stages of dermatitis and psoriasis, offering an alternative to topical corticosteroids.

Question 185

5. What is the most common adverse reaction to coal tar compounds? a) Allergic contact dermatitis b) Photo irritation c) Irritant folliculitis d) Hyperpigmentation

Answer 185

c) Irritant folliculitis Rationale: Irritant folliculitis is the most common adverse reaction to coal tar compounds.

Question 186

6. Which of the following is NOT a recommended use of tar compounds in dermatology? a) Treatment of psoriasis b) Treatment of lichen simplex chronicus c) Treatment of fungal infections d) Treatment of dermatitis

Answer 186

c) Treatment of fungal infections Rationale: Tar compounds are primarily used for their antipruritic properties and are not typically used for treating fungal infections.

Question 187

7. Which of the following is a potential side effect of using tar compounds? a) Photo irritation b) Increased hair growth c) Hypopigmentation d) Reduced skin elasticity

Answer 187

a) Photo irritation Rationale: Photo irritation is a potential side effect of using tar compounds.

Question 188

Which of the following describes the action of Salicylic acid on the stratum corneum? A) Enhances cell surface proteins B) Dissolves cell surface proteins C) Increases cell surface proteins D) None of the above

Answer 188

B) Dissolves cell surface proteins Rationale: Salicylic acid may dissolve cell surface proteins maintaining the stratum corneum, leading to the shedding of keratotic debris.

Question 189

In which concentration is Salicylic acid keratolytic? A) 1-2% B) 3-5% C) 6-7% D) 8-10%

Answer 189

B) 3-5% Rationale: Salicylic acid acts as a keratolytic agent in 3-5% concentrations.

Question 190

Which of the following is NOT a potential effect of Salicylic acid? A) Metabolic acidosis B) Respiratory alkalosis C) Increased blood glucose D) Neurotoxicity

Answer 190

C) Increased blood glucose Rationale: Salicylic acid can lead to metabolic acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, and neurotoxicity, but it reduces brain glucose.

Question 191

At what serum salicylate level does toxicity begin in adults? A) 0.5 mg/dL B) 10-20 mg/dL C) 30-50 mg/dL D) 60-80 mg/dL

Answer 191

C) 30-50 mg/dL Rationale: Toxicity starts at 30-50 mg/dL for serum salicylate levels in adults.

Question 192

Which group is more susceptible to salicylism? A) Adults B) Elderly C) Children D) Pregnant women

Answer 192

C) Children Rationale: Children can have higher serum levels, making them more susceptible to salicylism.

Question 193

What is the primary use of Propylene glycol in topical products? A) As a preservative B) As a fragrance C) As a vehicle for organic compounds D) As a coloring agent

Answer 193

C) As a vehicle for organic compounds Rationale: Propylene glycol is widely used in topical products as it's an effective vehicle for organic compounds.

Question 194

Which of the following is NOT a property of Urea? A) Acts as a humectant B) Increases blood circulation C) Softens the stratum corneum D) Acts as a keratolytic agent

Answer 194

B) Increases blood circulation Rationale: Urea softens and moisturizes the stratum corneum, acts as a humectant, and is also keratolytic. It doesn't increase blood circulation.

Question 195

Which concentration of Urea is used as a keratolytic agent? A) 2% B) 10% C) 20% D) 50%

Answer 195

C) 20% Rationale: Urea is used as a keratolytic agent in 20% concentration.

Question 196

Which of the following is a potential side effect of Podophyllum resin? A) Increased appetite B) Muscle weakness C) Hair growth D) Improved vision

Answer 196

B) Muscle weakness Rationale: Overuse of Podophyllum resin can lead to symptoms like muscle weakness.

Question 197

1. What is the primary function of Salicylic acid in facial and acne cleansers? A) Moisturizing the skin B) Exfoliating dead skin C) Protecting against UV rays D) Reducing inflammation

Answer 197

B) Exfoliating dead skin Rationale: Salicylic acid is known for its exfoliating properties, which help in shedding keratotic debris.

Question 198

4. What is the primary use of Propylene glycol in topical products? A) As a fragrance B) As a colorant C) As a vehicle for organic compounds D) As a preservative

Answer 198

C) As a vehicle for organic compounds Rationale: Propylene glycol is widely used in topical products as an effective vehicle for organic compounds.

Question 199

5. Urea increases the water content of the stratum corneum due to its: A) Keratolytic properties B) Hygroscopic nature C) Anti-inflammatory effects D) Antioxidant properties

Answer 199

B) Hygroscopic nature Rationale: Urea's ability to increase the water content of the stratum corneum is attributed to its hygroscopic characteristics.

Question 200

6. Which of the following is NOT a treatment use for Podophyllum resin? A) Treating acne B) Treating condyloma acuminatum C) Treating warts D) Skin peeling

Answer 200

A) Treating acne Rationale: Podophyllum resin is used for treating condyloma acuminatum and warts, but not acne.

Question 201

7. Sinecatechins 15% ointment is derived from: A) Aloe vera B) Lavender extract C) Green tea leaves D) Rose petals

Answer 201

C) Green tea leaves Rationale: Sinecatechins 15% ointment is derived from a water extract of green tea leaves.

Question 202

8. Fluorouracil disrupts the synthesis of: A) Proteins B) Lipids C) DNA and RNA D) Carbohydrates

Answer 202

C) DNA and RNA Rationale: Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthetase, disrupting DNA and RNA synthesis.

Question 203

9. Ingenol Mebutate is derived from which plant? A) Camellia sinensis B) Euphorbia peplus C) Aloe vera D) Lavandula

Answer 203

B) Euphorbia peplus Rationale: Ingenol Mebutate is derived from Euphorbia peplus.

Question 204

10. Which NSAID has shown moderate efficacy in treating actinic keratoses in a 3% gel formulation? A) Ibuprofen B) Naproxen C) Diclofenac D) Aspirin

Answer 204

C) Diclofenac Rationale: A 3% gel formulation of the NSAID diclofenac (Solaraze) has shown moderate efficacy in treating actinic keratoses.

Question 205

11. At what concentration is Salicylic acid used for skin peeling and wart removal? A) Less than 3% B) 3-5% C) Greater than 6% D) Exactly 6%

Answer 205

C) Greater than 6% Rationale: Concentrations above 6% of Salicylic acid can damage tissues, making it suitable for skin peeling and wart removal.

Question 206

12. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of acute Salicylism? A) Tinnitus B) Hyperventilation C) Diarrhea D) Acidosis

Answer 206

C) Diarrhea Rationale: Diarrhea is not listed as a symptom of acute Salicylism.

Question 207

13. Propylene glycol can act as an irritant in concentrations above: A) 5% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20%

Answer 207

B) 10% Rationale: Propylene glycol can irritate the skin in concentrations above 10%.

Question 208

14. Urea acts as a keratolytic agent by altering: A) Collagen and elastin B) Melanin C) Prekeratin and keratin D) Sebum

Answer 208

C) Prekeratin and keratin Rationale: Urea acts as a keratolytic agent by altering prekeratin and keratin.

Question 209

15. Which of the following is a known side effect of Podophyllum resin when used excessively? A) Increased appetite B) Muscle weakness C) Hair growth D) Weight loss

Answer 209

B) Muscle weakness Rationale: Muscle weakness is listed as a side effect of Podophyllum resin when used excessively.

Question 210

16. The exact mechanism of action for which drug is unknown? A) Salicylic acid B) Urea C) Sinecatechins D) Fluorouracil

Answer 210

C) Sinecatechins Rationale: The exact mechanism of action for Sinecatechins is unknown.

Question 211

17. Which of the following is NOT a function of Urea? A) Softening the stratum corneum B) Protecting against UV rays C) Increasing water content of the stratum corneum D) Acting as a keratolytic agent

Answer 211

B) Protecting against UV rays Rationale: Urea does not have properties to protect against UV rays.

Question 212

18. Which drug is contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential cytotoxic effects on the fetus? A) Urea B) Propylene glycol C) Podophyllum resin D) Sinecatechins

Answer 212

C) Podophyllum resin Rationale: The use of Podophyllum resin during pregnancy is contraindicated due to potential fetal cytotoxic effects.

Question 213

19. Which drug is used topically for the treatment of actinic keratosis? A) Ingenol Mebutate B) Diclofenac C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B

Answer 213

C) Both A and B Rationale: Both Ingenol Mebutate and Diclofenac are used topically for the treatment of actinic keratosis.

Question 214

20. Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of Ingenol Mebutate? A) Crusting B) Swelling C) Hair loss D) Vesiculation

Answer 214

C) Hair loss Rationale: Hair loss is not listed as a side effect of Ingenol Mebutate.

Question 215

21. Which drug is derived from a water extract of green tea leaves? A) Urea B) Sinecatechins C) Propylene glycol D) Fluorouracil

Answer 215

B) Sinecatechins Rationale: Sinecatechins 15% ointment is derived from a water extract of green tea leaves.

Question 216

22. Which drug inhibits thymidylate synthetase, disrupting DNA and RNA synthesis? A) Salicylic acid B) Urea C) Propylene glycol D) Fluorouracil

Answer 216

D) Fluorouracil Rationale: Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthetase, disrupting DNA and RNA synthesis.

Question 217

23. Which of the following is a natural metabolic product? A) Salicylic acid B) Urea C) Propylene glycol D) Podophyllum resin

Answer 217

B) Urea Rationale: Urea is a natural product of metabolism.

Question 218

24. Which drug is used as a vehicle for organic compounds in topical products? A) Urea B) Sinecatechins C) Propylene glycol D) Fluorouracil

Answer 218

C) Propylene glycol Rationale: Propylene glycol is widely used in topical products as an effective vehicle for organic compounds.

Question 219

25. Which drug increases the stratum corneum's water content due to its hygroscopic nature? A) Salicylic acid B) Urea C) Propylene glycol D) Podophyllum resin

Answer 219

B) Urea Rationale: Urea's ability to increase the water content of the stratum corneum is attributed to its hygroscopic characteristics.

Question 220

26. Which of the following drugs has an unknown mechanism of action? A) Salicylic acid B) Urea C) Sinecatechins D) Fluorouracil

Answer 220

C) Sinecatechins Rationale: The exact mechanism of action for Sinecatechins is unknown.

Question 221

27. Which drug can cause muscle weakness when used excessively? A) Urea B) Sinecatechins C) Propylene glycol D) Podophyllum resin

Answer 221

D) Podophyllum resin Rationale: Muscle weakness is listed as a side effect of Podophyllum resin when used excessively.

Question 222

28. Which drug is contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential cytotoxic effects on the fetus? A) Urea B) Sinecatechins C) Propylene glycol D) Podophyllum resin

Answer 222

D) Podophyllum resin Rationale: The use of Podophyllum resin during pregnancy is contraindicated due to potential fetal cytotoxic effects.

Question 223

29. Which drug is used topically for the treatment of actinic keratosis? A) Ingenol Mebutate B) Diclofenac C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B

Answer 223

C) Both A and B Rationale: Both Ingenol Mebutate and Diclofenac are used topically for the treatment of actinic keratosis.

Question 224

30. Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of Ingenol Mebutate? A) Crusting B) Swelling C) Hair loss D) Vesiculation

Answer 224

C) Hair loss Rationale: Hair loss is not listed as a side effect of Ingenol Mebutate.

Question 225

1. Which drug is a topical formulation of 9-cis-retinoic acid? A. Bexarotene B. Vismodegib C. Alitretinoin D. Vorinostat

Answer 225

C. Alitretinoin Rationale: Alitretinoin (Panretin) is described as a topical formulation of 9-cis-retinoic acid.

Question 226

2. Bexarotene selectively binds and activates which receptor subtype? A. Retinoid Y receptor B. Retinoid X receptor C. Retinoid Z receptor D. Hedgehog pathway receptor

Answer 226

B. Retinoid X receptor Rationale: Bexarotene is a member of a subclass of retinoids that selectively binds and activates retinoid X receptor subtypes.

Question 227

3. Vismodegib is primarily used for the treatment of what? A. AIDS-related Kaposi's sarcoma B. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma C. Metastatic basal cell carcinoma D. Progressive T-cell lymphoma

Answer 227

C. Metastatic basal cell carcinoma Rationale: Vismodegib is used for the treatment of metastatic basal cell carcinoma or locally advanced basal cell carcinoma in adults.

Question 228

4. Which drugs are histone deacetylase inhibitors? A. Alitretinoin and Bexarotene B. Vismodegib and Vorinostat C. Vorinostat and Romidepsin D. Romidepsin and Bexarotene

Answer 228

C. Vorinostat and Romidepsin Rationale: Both Vorinostat and Romidepsin are described as histone deacetylase inhibitors.

Question 229

5. Which drug is approved for the treatment of cutaneous lesions in patients with AIDS-related Kaposi's sarcoma? A. Vismodegib B. Bexarotene C. Alitretinoin D. Vorinostat

Answer 229

C. Alitretinoin Rationale: Alitretinoin (Panretin) is approved for the treatment of cutaneous lesions in patients with AIDS-related Kaposi's sarcoma.

Question 230

6. Which drug is the first hedgehog pathway inhibitor available for oral administration? A. Romidepsin B. Vorinostat C. Vismodegib D. Bexarotene

Answer 230

C. Vismodegib Rationale: Vismodegib is described as the first hedgehog pathway inhibitor available for oral treatment.

Question 231

7. Which of the following drugs is NOT used for the treatment of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma? A. Bexarotene B. Vorinostat C. Romidepsin D. Vismodegib

Answer 231

D. Vismodegib Rationale: Vismodegib is used for the treatment of metastatic basal cell carcinoma, not cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

Question 232

8. Which drug selectively binds and activates retinoid X receptor subtypes? A. Alitretinoin B. Bexarotene C. Vismodegib D. Romidepsin

Answer 232

B. Bexarotene

Question 233

9. Which drug is used for patients with cutaneous T-cell lymphoma that is progressive, persistent, or recurrent disease after prior systemic therapy? A. Alitretinoin B. C&D C. Romidepsin D. Vorinostat

Answer 233

B. C&D Vorinostat (Zolinza) & Romidepsin (Istoda): Treatment of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma in patients with progressive, persistent, or recurrent disease after prior systemic therapy.

Question 234

10. Which drug is NOT a histone deacetylase inhibitor? A. Vorinostat B. Romidepsin C. Bexarotene D. A&B

Answer 234

C. Bexarotene

Question 235

11. Which drug is approved for the oral treatment of metastatic basal cell carcinoma? A. Romidepsin B. Vorinostat C. Vismodegib D. Bexarotene

Answer 235

C. Vismodegib Rationale: Vismodegib is described as a drug available for the oral treatment of metastatic basal cell carcinoma.

Question 236

12. Which of the following is a member of a subclass of retinoids? A. Alitretinoin B. Bexarotene C. Vismodegib D. Romidepsin

Answer 236

B. Bexarotene Rationale: Bexarotene is described as a member of a subclass of retinoids.

Question 237

13. Which drug is NOT used for the treatment of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma? A. Alitretinoin B. Bexarotene C. Vorinostat D. Romidepsin

Answer 237

A. Alitretinoin Rationale: Alitretinoin is used for the treatment of cutaneous lesions in patients with AIDS-related Kaposi's sarcoma, not cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

Question 238

14. Which drug is a topical formulation used for AIDS-related Kaposi's sarcoma? A. Romidepsin B. Vorinostat C. Vismodegib D. Alitretinoin

Answer 238

D. Alitretinoin Rationale: Alitretinoin (Panretin) is a topical formulation used for the treatment of cutaneous lesions in patients with AIDS-related Kaposi's sarcoma.

Question 239

15. Which of the following drugs selectively activates the hedgehog pathway? A. Romidepsin B. Vorinostat C. Vismodegib D. Bexarotene

Answer 239

C. Vismodegib Rationale: Vismodegib is described as the first hedgehog pathway inhibitor available for oral administration.

Question 240

1. Which drug's mechanism of action on hair follicles remains unknown? A) Eflornithine B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Minoxidil

Answer 240

D) Minoxidil Rationale: Minoxidil's exact mechanism by which it promotes hair growth is not fully understood.

Question 241

2. What happens if the treatment with Minoxidil is stopped? A) Hair growth accelerates B) No change in hair growth C) Hair loss occurs in 4-6 months D) Immediate hair loss

Answer 241

C) Hair loss occurs in 4-6 months Rationale: The effects of Minoxidil are temporary. If treatment is stopped, any newly grown hair will likely be lost within 4-6 months.

Question 242

3. Finasteride is an inhibitor of which enzyme? A) Ornithine decarboxylase B) 5α-reductase C) Polyamine synthase D) Prostaglandin synthase

Answer 242

B) 5α-reductase Rationale: Finasteride inhibits the enzyme 5α-reductase, responsible for converting testosterone to dihydrotestosterone.

Question 243

4. Which side effect is NOT associated with Finasteride? A) Decreased libido B) Conjunctival hyperemia C) Ejaculation disorders D) Erectile dysfunction

Answer 243

B) Conjunctival hyperemia Rationale: Conjunctival hyperemia is a side effect associated with Bimatoprost, not Finasteride.

Question 244

5. Bimatoprost is primarily used to treat: A) Vertex balding B) Hypotrichosis of the eyelashes C) Frontal balding D) Facial hair growth

Answer 244

B) Hypotrichosis of the eyelashes Rationale: Bimatoprost is used for treating hypotrichosis of the eyelashes and can help in lengthening them.

Question 245

6. Eflornithine inhibits which enzyme? A) 5α-reductase B) Prostaglandin synthase C) Ornithine decarboxylase D) Polyamine synthase

Answer 245

C) Ornithine decarboxylase Rationale: Eflornithine is an irreversible inhibitor of the enzyme ornithine decarboxylase, affecting polyamine synthesis.

Question 246

7. Which drug is effective in reducing facial hair growth in women when used for 6 months? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine

Answer 246

D) Eflornithine Rationale: Eflornithine has been found effective in reducing facial hair growth in about 30% of women when used consistently for 6 months.

Question 247

8. Which drug is associated with a risk of permanent brown pigmentation of the iris if instilled into the eye? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine

Answer 247

C) Bimatoprost Rationale: Bimatoprost carries a risk of permanent brown pigmentation of the iris if the solution gets into the eye.

Question 248

9. Which area is more responsive to Minoxidil therapy? A) Frontal balding B) Vertex balding C) Eyelashes D) Facial hair

Answer 248

B) Vertex balding Rationale: Minoxidil is more effective in treating vertex (crown) balding than frontal balding.

Question 249

10. Which drug is an oral tablet used to promote hair growth and prevent further hair loss? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine

Answer 249

B) Finasteride Rationale: Finasteride is taken orally in tablet form and is used for promoting hair growth and preventing further hair loss.

Question 250

11. Which drug is associated with side effects like stinging, burning, and folliculitis? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine

Answer 250

D) Eflornithine Rationale: Eflornithine users may experience local adverse effects like stinging, burning, and folliculitis.

Question 251

12. Which drug is a prostaglandin analog? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine

Answer 251

C) Bimatoprost Rationale: Bimatoprost is a prostaglandin analog used primarily for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes.

Question 252

13. Which drug's mechanism involves inhibiting polyamine synthesis? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine

Answer 252

D) Eflornithine Rationale: Eflornithine inhibits polyamine synthesis by being an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase.

Question 253

14. Which drug can cause decreased libido as a side effect? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine

Answer 253

B) Finasteride Rationale: One of the potential side effects of Finasteride is decreased libido.

Question 254

15. Which drug is applied nightly to the upper eyelid margins? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine

Answer 254

C) Bimatoprost Rationale: Bimatoprost is applied nightly to the skin of the upper eyelid margins at the base of the eyelashes.

Question 255

16. Which drug is NOT applied topically? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine

Answer 255

B) Finasteride Rationale: Finasteride is taken orally in tablet form, while the other drugs are applied topically.

Question 256

17. Which drug is associated with side effects like pruritus and erythema of the eyelids? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine

Answer 256

C) Bimatoprost Rationale: Bimatoprost has potential side effects like itching (pruritus) and redness (erythema) of the eyelids.

Question 257

18. Which drug is used mainly for promoting hair growth on the scalp? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine

Answer 257

A) Minoxidil Rationale: Minoxidil is primarily used for promoting hair growth on the scalp, especially in areas of balding.

Question 258

19. Which drug blocks the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine

Answer 258

B) Finasteride Rationale: Finasteride inhibits the enzyme 5α-reductase, which is responsible for converting testosterone to its more potent form, dihydrotestosterone.

Question 259

20. Which drug is effective in lengthening the eyelashes? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine

Answer 259

C) Bimatoprost Rationale: Bimatoprost is used for treating hypotrichosis of the eyelashes and can help in lengthening them.

Question 260

1. Which of the following is a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist? a) Pramoxine b) Hydrocortisone c) Doxepin d) Lidocaine

Answer 260

c) Doxepin Rationale: Doxepin acts as a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist, blocking the action of histamines.

Question 261

2. Pramoxine is primarily used as a: a) Antidepressant b) Topical anesthetic c) Antihistamine d) Diuretic

Answer 261

b) Topical anesthetic Rationale: Pramoxine is a topical anesthetic agent that numbs the skin to provide temporary relief from itching.

Question 262

3. Which drug may cause marked burning and stinging as a local adverse effect? a) Pramoxine b) Doxepin c) Hydrocortisone d) Lidocaine

Answer 262

b) Doxepin Rationale: Doxepin can cause adverse local effects, including marked burning and stinging.

Question 263

4. Pramoxine is available in all of the following formulations EXCEPT: a) 1% cream b) Lotion c) Gel d) Tablet

Answer 263

d) Tablet Rationale: Pramoxine is available as a 1% formulation in cream, lotion, or gel but not in tablet form.

Question 264

5. Doxepin is contraindicated in patients with: a) Hypertension b) Diabetes c) Untreated narrow-angle glaucoma d) Asthma

Answer 264

c) Untreated narrow-angle glaucoma Rationale: Doxepin is contraindicated in patients with untreated narrow-angle glaucoma or those who have a tendency to retain urine.

Question 265

6. Which drug can be found combined with hydrocortisone acetate? a) Doxepin b) Pramoxine c) Lidocaine d) Aspirin

Answer 265

b) Pramoxine Rationale: Pramoxine can be found combined with hydrocortisone acetate.

Question 266

7. Which of the following side effects is associated with Doxepin? a) Drowsiness b) Increased appetite c) Weight loss d) Hyperactivity

Answer 266

a) Drowsiness

Question 267

8. Which drug works by numbing the skin? a) Doxepin b) Pramoxine c) Hydrocortisone d) Aspirin

Answer 267

b) Pramoxine Rationale: Pramoxine is a topical anesthetic agent that works by numbing the skin.

Question 268

9. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action of Doxepin? a) H1 receptor antagonist b) H2 receptor antagonist c) Topical anesthetic d) A&B

Answer 268

c) Topical anesthetic Rationale: Doxepin acts as a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist and can have anticholinergic effects, but it is not a topical anesthetic.

Question 269

10. Which drug provides temporary relief from (pruritus) itching associated with mild eczematous skin conditions? a) Lidocaine b) Aspirin c) Doxepin d) Pramoxine

Answer 269

d) Pramoxine Rationale: Pramoxine is a topical anesthetic agent that provides temporary relief from itching (pruritus) associated with mild eczematous skin conditions.

Question 270

Which of the following drugs is NOT a BRAF inhibitor? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) Ipilimumab

Answer 270

D) Ipilimumab Rationale: Ipilimumab is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody, not a BRAF inhibitor.

Question 271

Which drug specifically inhibits both BRAF V600E and V600K mutations? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) Pegylated Interferon

Answer 271

C) Trametinib Rationale: Trametinib inhibits both BRAF V600E and V600K mutations.

Question 272

Which drug is associated with a defined risk of cardiomyopathy? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) Ipilimumab

Answer 272

C) Trametinib Rationale: Trametinib use is associated with a risk of cardiomyopathy.

Question 273

Ipilimumab acts by: A) Inhibiting BRAF mutations B) Blocking CTLA-4 C) Acting as an adjuvant therapy D) Increasing the risk of cutaneous malignancies

Answer 273

B) Blocking CTLA-4 Rationale: Ipilimumab is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody.

Question 274

Which of the following drugs can result in severe and fatal immune-mediated adverse reactions due to T-cell activation and proliferation? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) Ipilimumab

Answer 274

D) Ipilimumab Rationale: Ipilimumab can cause severe immune-mediated reactions because of its action on T-cells.

Question 275

Pegylated Interferon is used as: A) Treatment for BRAF wild-type melanoma B) Adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients C) Kinase inhibitor of BRAF V600E mutation D) CTLA-4 blocker antibody

Answer 275

B) Adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients Rationale: Pegylated Interferon is used as an adjuvant therapy for specific melanoma patients.

Question 276

Which drugs increase the risk for new primary cutaneous malignancies? A) Vemurafenib and Dabrafenib B) Trametinib and Ipilimumab C) Ipilimumab and Pegylated Interferon D) Dabrafenib and Trametinib

Answer 276

A) Vemurafenib and Dabrafenib Vemurafenib and dabrafenib can increase the risk of new primary cutaneous malignancies, including: -squamous cell carcinoma -keratoacanthoma, -new primary melanomas.

Question 277

Which drug is NOT approved for the treatment of BRAF wild-type melanoma? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) All of the above

Answer 277

D) All of the above Rationale: None of the BRAF inhibitors are approved for BRAF wild-type melanoma.

Question 278

Which of the following is a common adverse reaction of Ipilimumab? A) Enterocolitis B) Cardiomyopathy C) New primary melanomas D) Flu-like symptoms

Answer 278

A) Enterocolitis Ipilimumab: Can cause severe immune-mediated reactions, with common reactions being: -enterocolitis, -hepatitis, -dermatitis, -neuropathy, -endocrinopathy.

Question 279

Which drug acts by increasing T-cell-mediated antitumor immune responses? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) Ipilimumab

Answer 279

D) Ipilimumab

Question 280

Which of the following drugs is a kinase inhibitor of only the BRAF V600E mutation? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) A&B D) None of the above

Answer 280

C) A&B

Question 281

Which drug is associated with a risk of ophthalmologic complications? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) All of the above

Answer 281

D) All of the above Rationale: All BRAF inhibitors, including Vemurafenib, Dabrafenib, and Trametinib, are associated with ophthalmologic complications.

Question 282

Which drug is NOT a kinase inhibitor? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) Ipilimumab

Answer 282

D) Ipilimumab Rationale: Ipilimumab is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody and not a kinase inhibitor.

Question 283

Which of the following drugs is used as an adjuvant therapy for melanoma? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) Pegylated Interferon

Answer 283

D) Pegylated Interferon Rationale: Pegylated Interferon is used as an adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients.

Question 284

Which drug is associated with the risk of severe dermatologic reactions? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) All of the above

Answer 284

D) All of the above Rationale: All BRAF inhibitors, including Vemurafenib, Dabrafenib, and Trametinib, are associated with severe dermatologic reactions.

Question 285

Which of the following is NOT a common adverse reaction of Ipilimumab? A) Enterocolitis B) Hepatitis C) Cardiomyopathy D) Dermatitis

Answer 285

C) Cardiomyopathy Rationale: Cardiomyopathy is associated with Trametinib, not Ipilimumab.

Question 286

Which drug is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) Ipilimumab

Answer 286

D) Ipilimumab Rationale: Ipilimumab is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody.

Question 287

Which of the following drugs is NOT associated with serious hypersensitivity reactions? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) Pegylated Interferon

Answer 287

D) Pegylated Interferon Rationale: The BRAF inhibitors (Vemurafenib, Dabrafenib, and Trametinib) are associated with serious hypersensitivity reactions, but there's no such specific mention for Pegylated Interferon.

Question 288

Which drug acts by inhibiting the BRAF V600E mutation only? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) Ipilimumab

Answer 288

A) Vemurafenib

Question 289

Which of the following drugs is associated with the risk of new primary melanomas? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) A&B

Answer 289

D) A&B

Question 290

Which local cutaneous reaction is the most common reaction to topical medications? a) Photoirritation b) Allergic contact dermatitis c) Immunologic contact urticaria d) Irritation

Answer 290

d) Irritation

Question 291

Which reaction type is associated with phototoxicity and usually requires UVA exposure? a) Irritation b) Photoirritation c) Photoallergic contact dermatitis d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

Answer 291

b) Photoirritation

Question 292

Which reaction type is a result of Type IV delayed hypersensitivity? a) Allergic contact dermatitis b) Photoirritation c) Immunologic contact urticaria d) Irritation

Answer 292

a) Allergic contact dermatitis

Question 293

Which reaction type occurs without prior sensitization and is the most common type of contact urticaria? a) Allergic contact dermatitis b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis c) Immunologic contact urticaria d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

Answer 293

d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

Question 294

Which reaction type may result in anaphylaxis? a) Irritation b) Photoirritation c) Immunologic contact urticaria d) Allergic contact dermatitis

Answer 294

c) Immunologic contact urticaria

Question 295

Which reaction type is triggered or exacerbated by sunlight? a) Allergic contact dermatitis b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis c) Photoirritation d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

Answer 295

b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis

Question 296

Which of the following is NOT a non-allergic reaction type? a) Irritation b) Photoirritation c) Allergic contact dermatitis d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

Answer 296

c) Allergic contact dermatitis

Question 297

Which reaction type is associated with IgE-mediated type I immediate hypersensitivity? a) Photoirritation b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis c) Immunologic contact urticaria d) Allergic contact dermatitis

Answer 297

c) Immunologic contact urticaria