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Pharma 1 (DUMP) > LE 2 : Derma Pharm > Flashcards

LE 2 : Derma Pharm Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following is a peptide antibiotic effective against gram-positive organisms?
a) Mupirocin
b) Retapamulin
c) Bacitracin
d) Polymyxin B Sulfate

A

c) Bacitracin

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2
Q

Mupirocin is derived from which acid?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Pseudomonic acid A
c) Salicylic acid
d) Glycolic acid

A

b) Pseudomonic acid A

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3
Q

Which topical antibacterial agent is used for uncomplicated superficial skin infections caused by group A B-hemolytic streptococci and S. aureus, but not MRSA?
a) Neomycin
b) Gentamicin
c) Retapamulin
d) Mupirocin

A

c) Retapamulin

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4
Q

Polymyxin B Sulfate is effective against which type of organisms?
a) Gram-positive organisms
b) Gram-negative organisms
c) Anaerobic cocci
d) Neisseriae

A

b) Gram-negative organisms

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5
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is associated with potential nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, and ototoxicity?
a) Bacitracin
b) Retapamulin
c) Neomycin
d) Mupirocin

A

c) Neomycin

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6
Q

Gramicidin is available only for which type of use due to systemic toxicity concerns?
a) Oral
b) Intravenous
c) Topical
d) Intramuscular

A

c) Topical

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7
Q

Which antibiotic is used intranasally to eliminate nasal carriage of S. aureus but may cause irritation due to its vehicle?
a) Gentamicin
b) Mupirocin
c) Bacitracin
d) Retapamulin

A

b) Mupirocin

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8
Q

Which of the following is NOT a sensitive organism to Bacitracin?
a) Most anaerobic cocci
b) Neisseriae
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Tetanus bacilli

A

c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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9
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is effective against MRSA?
a) Mupirocin
b) Retapamulin
c) Neomycin
d) Gramicidin

A

a) Mupirocin

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10
Q

Which of the following is a peptide antibiotic effective against gram-negative organisms like Pseudomonas aeruginosa and E. coli?
a) Bacitracin
b) Polymyxin B Sulfate
c) Mupirocin
d) Retapamulin

A

b) Polymyxin B Sulfate

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11
Q

Which local cutaneous reaction is the most common reaction to topical medications?
a) Photoirritation
b) Allergic contact dermatitis
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Irritation

A

d) Irritation

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12
Q

Which reaction type is associated with phototoxicity and usually requires UVA exposure?
a) Irritation
b) Photoirritation
c) Photoallergic contact dermatitis
d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

A

b) Photoirritation

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13
Q

Which reaction type is a result of Type IV delayed hypersensitivity?
a) Allergic contact dermatitis
b) Photoirritation
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Irritation

A

a) Allergic contact dermatitis

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14
Q

Which reaction type occurs without prior sensitization and is the most common type of contact urticaria?
a) Allergic contact dermatitis
b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

A

d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

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15
Q

Which reaction type may result in anaphylaxis?
a) Irritation
b) Photoirritation
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Allergic contact dermatitis

A

c) Immunologic contact urticaria

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16
Q

Which reaction type is triggered or exacerbated by sunlight?
a) Allergic contact dermatitis
b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis
c) Photoirritation
d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

A

b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis

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17
Q

Which of the following is NOT a non-allergic reaction type?
a) Irritation
b) Photoirritation
c) Allergic contact dermatitis
d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

A

c) Allergic contact dermatitis

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18
Q

Which reaction type is associated with IgE-mediated type I immediate hypersensitivity?
a) Photoirritation
b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Allergic contact dermatitis

A

c) Immunologic contact urticaria

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19
Q

Which reaction type is limited to topical use due to systemic toxicity concerns?
a) Bacitracin
b) Gramicidin
c) Mupirocin
d) Retapamulin

A

b) Gramicidin

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20
Q

Which reaction type is directly related to a toxic effect of a substance on the skin?
a) Irritation
b) Photoirritation
c) Allergic contact dermatitis
d) Immunologic contact urticaria

A

a) Irritation

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21
Q

Which topical antibiotic targets Propionibacterium acnes and is available in a combination with benzoyl peroxide?
a) Erythromycin
b) Metronidazole
c) Clindamycin
d) Dapsone

A

c) Clindamycin

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22
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is primarily used for rosacea and targets the mite Demodex brevis?
a) Erythromycin
b) Metronidazole
c) Sodium Sulfacetamide
d) Dapsone

A

b) Metronidazole

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23
Q

Which topical antibiotic’s mechanism of action in acne treatment is unknown?
a) Clindamycin
b) Erythromycin
c) Metronidazole
d) Dapsone

A

d) Dapsone

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24
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits Propionibacterium acnes by competitively inhibiting p-aminobenzoic acid utilization?
a) Erythromycin
b) Sodium Sulfacetamide
c) Clindamycin
d) Dapsone

A

b) Sodium Sulfacetamide

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25
Which of the following is a potential side effect of Clindamycin? a) Yellow discoloration of the skin b) Bloody diarrhea c) Direct effect on neutrophil cellular function d) Resistance due to inhibitory effects
b) Bloody diarrhea
26
Erythromycin's effect on acne is presumed to be due to its inhibitory effects on which bacteria? a) Escherichia coli b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Propionibacterium acnes d) Demodex brevis
c) Propionibacterium acnes
27
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in patients known to have hypersensitivity to sulfonamides? a) Clindamycin b) Erythromycin c) Sodium Sulfacetamide d) Dapsone
c) Sodium Sulfacetamide
28
Which combination can result in a temporary yellow discoloration of the skin and hair? a) Clindamycin followed by benzoyl peroxide b) Erythromycin followed by tretinoin c) Dapsone gel followed by benzoyl peroxide d) Metronidazole followed by sodium sulfacetamide
c) Dapsone gel followed by benzoyl peroxide
29
Which of the following antibiotics is available in a fixed-combination preparation with benzoyl peroxide? a) Erythromycin b) Metronidazole c) Dapsone d) Clindamycin
a) Erythromycin
30
Which topical antibiotic has a direct effect on neutrophil cellular function? a) Clindamycin b) Erythromycin c) Metronidazole d) Dapsone
c) Metronidazole
31
Which of the following is NOT an azole derivative? a) Clotrimazole b) Econazole c) Ciclopirox olamine d) Ketoconazole
c) Ciclopirox olamine
32
Which topical antifungal is specifically used for rosacea? a) Terbinafine b) Metronidazole c) Clotrimazole d) Butenafine
b) Metronidazole
33
Which antifungal preparation inhibits the uptake of precursors of macromolecular synthesis and its site of action is the fungal cell membrane? a) Tolnaftate b) Terbinafine c) Ciclopirox olamine d) Butenafine
c) Ciclopirox olamine
34
Which of the following is highly active against dermatophytes but less active against yeasts? a) Clotrimazole b) Nystatin c) Naftifine d) Ciclopirox olamine
c) Naftifine
35
Which antifungal agent is used in a nail lacquer for onychomycosis? a) Terbinafine b) Ciclopirox olamine c) Ketoconazole d) Tolnaftate
b) Ciclopirox olamine
36
Which antifungal agent blocks the synthesis of ergosterol? a) Tolnaftate b) Butenafine c) Nystatin d) Terbinafine
b) Butenafine
37
Which of the following is NOT effective against dermatophytes? a) Tolnaftate b) Terbinafine c) Nystatin d) Clotrimazole
c) Nystatin
38
Which antifungal is used to treat seborrheic dermatitis with twice-daily applications? a) Terbinafine b) Ketoconazole c) Butenafine d) Nystatin
b) Ketoconazole
39
Which antifungal agent is a benzylamine related to allylamines? a) Clotrimazole b) Butenafine c) Ciclopirox olamine d) Nystatin
b) Butenafine
40
Which of the following is used in a suspension form for oral thrush? a) Terbinafine b) Ketoconazole c) Nystatin d) Tolnaftate
c) Nystatin
41
Which antifungal agent is synthetic and effective against Epidermophyton, Microsporum, and Trichophyton? a) Tolnaftate b) Terbinafine c) Nystatin d) Butenafine
a) Tolnaftate
42
Which antifungal agent is available in combination with benzoyl peroxide? a) Ketoconazole b) Terbinafine c) Clotrimazole d) Ciclopirox olamine
a) Ketoconazole
43
Which of the following has activity against Candida species and P. orbiculare? a) Tolnaftate b) Ciclopirox olamine c) Terbinafine d) Butenafine
b) Ciclopirox olamine
44
Which antifungal agent is used for fungal infections like athlete's foot, ringworm, and jock itch? a) Terbinafine b) Ketoconazole c) Nystatin d) Ciclopirox olamine
a) Terbinafine
45
Which of the following is NOT an activity of azole derivatives? a) Action against dermatophytes b) Action against yeasts c) Inhibition of p-aminobenzoic acid utilization d) Action against Candida albicans
c) Inhibition of p-aminobenzoic acid utilization
46
Which of the following antifungals is available in a fixed-combination with benzoyl peroxide? a) Erythromycin b) Metronidazole c) Dapsone d) Clindamycin
a) Erythromycin
47
Which antifungal agent is used to treat dandruff? a) Terbinafine b) Ketoconazole c) Ciclopirox olamine d) Tolnaftate
c) Ciclopirox olamine
48
Which antifungal agent is effective against dermatophyte infections but not against Candida? a) Tolnaftate b) Terbinafine c) Nystatin d) Clotrimazole
a) Tolnaftate
49
Which antifungal agent is used in the treatment of dandruff? a) Terbinafine b) Ketoconazole c) Ciclopirox olamine d) Tolnaftate
c) Ciclopirox olamine
50
Which antifungal is known for good cerebrospinal fluid penetration? a) Fluconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Itraconazole
a) Fluconazole
51
Which antifungal agent has the least effect on hepatic microsomal enzymes? a) Itraconazole b) Fluconazole c) Terbinafine d) Griseofulvin
b) Fluconazole
52
Which antifungal is used prophylactically in AIDS patients? a) Terbinafine b) Itraconazole c) Fluconazole d) Griseofulvin
c) Fluconazole
53
Which antifungal agent's absorption is increased by food and low gastric pH? a) Fluconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Itraconazole
d) Itraconazole
54
Which antifungal agent is used extensively for onychomycosis? a) Griseofulvin b) Itraconazole c) Fluconazole d) Terbinafine
b) Itraconazole
55
Which antifungal agent is derived from a species of penicillium? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
c) Griseofulvin
56
Which antifungal agent inhibits the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
b) Terbinafine
57
Which antifungal agent is effective against dermatophyte infections but not against Candida? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
c) Griseofulvin
58
Which antifungal agent is recommended at a dosage of 250 mg/day for onychomycosis? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
b) Terbinafine
59
Which antifungal agent binds to keratin in the skin, protecting it from new infections? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
c) Griseofulvin
60
Which antifungal agent's absorption is best in an acidic medium? a) Fluconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Itraconazole
d) Itraconazole
61
Which antifungal agent is contraindicated with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
a) Itraconazole
62
Which antifungal agent is contraindicated in patients with porphyria? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
c) Griseofulvin
63
Which antifungal agent is recommended at a dosage of 100 mg/day for mucocutaneous candidiasis? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
d) Fluconazole
64
Which antifungal agent is known to have fewer hepatic enzyme interactions? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
d) Fluconazole
65
Which antifungal agent is effective orally against dermatophyte infections caused by epidermophyton, microsporum, and trichophyton? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
c) Griseofulvin
66
Which antifungal agent's mechanism of action at the cellular level is unclear but is deposited in newly forming skin? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
c) Griseofulvin
67
Which antifungal agent is recommended for onychomycosis at a dose of 200 mg/day? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
a) Itraconazole
68
Which antifungal agent is known to interact with hepatic microsomal enzymes but to a lesser extent than ketoconazole? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
a) Itraconazole
69
Which antifungal agent is contraindicated with midazolam or triazolam? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
a) Itraconazole
70
Which antifungal agent is used for the treatment of onychomycosis and interferes with ergosterol biosynthesis? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
b) Terbinafine
71
Which antifungal agent is a keratophilic medication? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
b) Terbinafine
72
Which antifungal agent is recommended for scalp infections for 4-6 weeks? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
c) Griseofulvin
73
Which antifungal agent is recommended for toenail infections for up to 18 months? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
c) Griseofulvin
74
Which antifungal agent is contraindicated in patients with hepatic failure? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
c) Griseofulvin
75
Which antifungal agent is known to be very insoluble and is derived from a species of penicillium? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
c) Griseofulvin
76
Which antifungal agent is recommended at a dosage of 250 mg/day for 6 weeks for fingernail infections? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
b) Terbinafine
77
Which antifungal agent is known to have no significant drug interactions to date and is effective for onychomycosis? a) Itraconazole b) Terbinafine c) Griseofulvin d) Fluconazole
b) Terbinafine
78
Which of the following is a synthetic guanine analog used as a topical antiviral agent? a) Amoxicillin b) Acyclovir c) Aspirin d) Acetaminophen
b) Acyclovir
79
Which herpesvirus types does Acyclovir selectively inhibit? a) HSV-3 & HSV-4 b) HSV-1 & HSV-2 c) VZV & CMV d) EBV & HHV-6
b) HSV-1 & HSV-2
80
What is the brand name for topical Acyclovir? a) Denavir b) Valcivir c) Zovirax d) Famvir
c) Zovirax
81
Which enzyme is responsible for converting Acyclovir to its monophosphate form in virally infected cells? a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase c) Thymidine kinase d) Reverse transcriptase
c) Thymidine kinase
82
Why is Acyclovir considered specific to virally infected cells? a) It is only absorbed by infected cells. b) It is activated by a virally encoded enzyme. c) It destroys the viral cell wall. d) It binds to viral RNA.
b) It is activated by a virally encoded enzyme.
83
What happens when Acyclovir triphosphate is incorporated into viral DNA? a) DNA replication continues normally. b) DNA replication is enhanced. c) DNA replication is terminated prematurely. d) DNA transforms into RNA
c) DNA replication is terminated prematurely.
84
Which form of Acyclovir competitively inhibits viral DNA polymerase? a) Acyclovir monophosphate b) Acyclovir diphosphate c) Acyclovir triphosphate d) Acyclovir base
c) Acyclovir triphosphate
85
Which topical antiviral agent is available as a 1% cream for treating recurrent orolabial herpes? a) Valacyclovir b) Famciclovir c) Penciclovir (Denavir) d) Acyclovir
c) Penciclovir (Denavir)
86
Which of the following is NOT a target of Acyclovir's antiviral action? a) Epidermophyton b) HSV-1 c) HSV-2 d) VZV
a) Epidermophyton
87
Why does Acyclovir have a high therapeutic ratio? a) It affects both viral and host cells equally. b) It has a higher affinity for viral DNA polymerase than for the cellular version. c) It is only effective against bacterial infections. d) It requires frequent dosing.
b) It has a higher affinity for viral DNA polymerase than for the cellular version.
88
Which of the following immunomodulators is primarily known for its antiviral properties? a) Tacrolimus b) Pimecrolimus c) Imiquimod d) Interferon-alpha
c) Imiquimod
89
Imiquimod stimulates the release of which cytokine from peripheral mononuclear cells? a) IL-10 b) TNF-beta c) Interferon-alpha d) IL-4
c) Interferon-alpha
90
Which immunomodulator is approved for use in children older than 2 years for atopic dermatitis? a) Imiquimod b) Tacrolimus 0.03% ointment c) Pimecrolimus 2% cream d) Interferon-beta
b) Tacrolimus 0.03% ointment
91
What is the primary mode of action of Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus? a) Stimulation of B-lymphocytes b) Inhibition of T-lymphocyte activation c) Activation of macrophages d) Inhibition of neutrophils
b) Inhibition of T-lymphocyte activation
92
Which condition is Imiquimod the drug of choice for in children? a) Atopic dermatitis b) Psoriasis c) Molluscum contagiosum d) Vitiligo
c) Molluscum contagiosum
93
Which of the following is NOT a use of Imiquimod? a) External genital warts b) Actinic keratoses c) Deep basal cell carcinomas d) Superficial basal cell carcinomas
c) Deep basal cell carcinomas
94
Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus prevent the release of inflammatory cytokines from which cells? a) Eosinophils b) Neutrophils c) Mast cells d) B-lymphocytes
c) Mast cells
95
Which immunosuppressant is associated with a black box warning due to animal tumorigenicity data? a) Imiquimod b) Tacrolimus c) Pimecrolimus d) Both b and c
d) Both b and c
96
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus? a) Burning sensation at the application site b) Photosensitivity c) Nausea d) Headache
b) Photosensitivity
97
Which immunomodulator is available as a 5% ointment for topical use? a) Pimecrolimus b) Tacrolimus c) Imiquimod d) Interferon-beta
c) Imiquimod
98
Which condition is NOT treated using Tacrolimus or Pimecrolimus? a) Molluscum contagiosum b) Atopic dermatitis c) Vitiligo (off-label) d) Psoriasis
a) Molluscum contagiosum
99
Which of the following immunomodulators interferes with ergosterol biosynthesis by inhibiting squalene epoxidase? a) Imiquimod b) Tacrolimus c) Terbinafine d) Pimecrolimus
c) Terbinafine
100
Which immunomodulator is known to have minimal percutaneous absorption? a) Tacrolimus b) Pimecrolimus c) Imiquimod d) Interferon-alpha
c) Imiquimod
101
Which of the following is a primary target of Imiquimod's antiviral action? a) Epidermophyton b) HSV-1 c) CMV d) EBV
b) HSV-1
102
Which immunomodulator is best absorbed in an acidic medium and should be taken with fruit juice to facilitate absorption? a) Imiquimod b) Tacrolimus c) Itraconazole d) Pimecrolimus
c) Itraconazole
103
Which ectoparasiticide is a synthetic pyrethroid? a) Spinosad b) Ivermectin c) Permethrin d) Crotamiton
c) Permethrin
104
Which of the following is NOT toxic to Sarcoptes scabiei? a) Permethrin b) Spinosad c) Ivermectin d) Lindane
b) Spinosad
105
Spinosad is derived from the fermentation of which organism? a) Fungus b) Actinomyces bacterium c) Yeast d) Algae
b) Actinomyces bacterium
106
Which drug is effective orally against dermatophyte infections but ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare? a) Ivermectin b) Griseofulvin c) Permethrin d) Malathion
b) Griseofulvin
107
Which ectoparasiticide has concerns about neurotoxicity and hematotoxicity? a) Permethrin b) Lindane c) Crotamiton d) Sulfur
b) Lindane
108
Which drug is a scabicide with some antipruritic properties? a) Crotamiton b) Malathion c) Benzyl Alcohol d) Ivermectin
a) Crotamiton
109
Which formulation contains 5% precipitated sulfur? a) Permethrin lotion b) Ivermectin cream c) Sulfur in petrolatum d) Malathion shampoo
c) Sulfur in petrolatum
110
Which ectoparasiticide is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor? a) Permethrin b) Malathion c) Crotamiton d) Spinosad
b) Malathion
111
Which drug is available as a 5% lotion for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months? a) Ivermectin b) Lindane c) Benzyl Alcohol d) Permethrin
c) Benzyl Alcohol
112
Which drug is used for the treatment of head lice and interferes with ergosterol biosynthesis by inhibiting the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase? a) Terbinafine b) Ivermectin c) Permethrin d) Crotamiton
a) Terbinafine
113
Which ectoparasiticide is derived from a species of penicillium? a) Griseofulvin b) Permethrin c) Ivermectin d) Malathion
a) Griseofulvin
114
Which drug is used for the treatment of onychomycosis and interferes with ergosterol biosynthesis? a) Terbinafine b) Ivermectin c) Permethrin d) Crotamiton
a) Terbinafine
115
Which ectoparasiticide is known to have an unpleasant odor and staining properties? a) Permethrin b) Ivermectin c) Crotamiton d) Sulfur
d) Sulfur
116
Which drug is available as a 0.5% lotion and should be applied to dry hair for treating lice? a) Permethrin b) Malathion c) Ivermectin d) Benzyl Alcohol
b) Malathion
117
Which drug is toxic to P. humanus and is used topically for the treatment of head lice in patients aged 4 years and older? a) Spinosad b) Ivermectin c) Permethrin d) Crotamiton
a) Spinosad
118
Spinosad is derived from: a) A synthetic process b) The fermentation of a soil actinomycete bacterium c) A species of penicillium d) A pyrethroid plant
b) The fermentation of a soil actinomycete bacterium
119
Which drug is effective orally against dermatophyte infections but is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare? a) Lindane b) Malathion c) Griseofulvin d) Ivermectin
c) Griseofulvin
120
Which ectoparasiticide has concerns about neurotoxicity and hematotoxicity? a) Permethrin b) Lindane c) Crotamiton d) Sulfur
b) Lindane
121
Which drug is known to have an unpleasant odor and staining properties? a) Malathion b) Sulfur c) Benzyl Alcohol d) Ivermectin
b) Sulfur
122
Which of the following is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor? a) Permethrin b) Malathion c) Crotamiton d) Benzyl Alcohol
b) Malathion
123
Benzyl Alcohol is available as what percentage lotion for the treatment of head lice? a) 2% b) 5% c) 10% d) 7.5%
b) 5%
124
Which drug's mechanism of action involves inhibiting T-lymphocyte activation? a) Imiquimod b) Tacrolimus c) Permethrin d) Ivermectin
b) Tacrolimus
125
Which ectoparasiticide is derived from the fermentation of a soil actinomycete bacterium? a) Permethrin b) Spinosad c) Ivermectin d) Lindane
b) Spinosad
126
Which drug is used for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months? a) Permethrin b) Benzyl Alcohol c) Crotamiton d) Malathion
b) Benzyl Alcohol
127
Which drug is a keratophilic medication? a) Griseofulvin b) Ivermectin c) Crotamiton d) Lindane
a) Griseofulvin
128
Which drug is used as a treatment for head lice in patients aged 4 years and older? a) Spinosad b) Permethrin c) Ivermectin d) Lindane
a) Spinosad
129
Which of the following is NOT a use of Permethrin? a) Treatment of Sarcoptes scabiei b) Treatment of Pthirus pubis c) Treatment of Candida infections d) Treatment of Pediculus humanus
c) Treatment of Candida infections
130
Which drug is used for the treatment of onychomycosis? a) Ivermectin b) Terbinafine c) Lindane d) Crotamiton
b) Terbinafine
131
Which ectoparasiticide is a synthetic guanine analog? a) Acyclovir b) Permethrin c) Ivermectin d) Lindane
a) Acyclovir
132
Which drug is used for the treatment of head lice in patients aged 6 months and older? a) Ivermectin b) Permethrin c) Spinosad d) Lindane
a) Ivermectin
133
Which drug is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor? a) Permethrin b) Malathion c) Ivermectin d) Lindane
b) Malathion
134
Which drug is used for the treatment of Molluscum contagiosum in children? a) Imiquimod b) Permethrin c) Ivermectin d) Lindane
a) Imiquimod
135
Which drug is known to have a black box warning regarding long-term safety due to animal tumorigenicity data? a) Tacrolimus b) Permethrin c) Ivermectin d) Lindane
a) Tacrolimus
136
Which drug is derived from a species of penicillium? a) Griseofulvin b) Permethrin c) Ivermectin d) Lindane
a) Griseofulvin
137
Which drug is used for the treatment of actinic keratoses on the face and scalp? a) Imiquimod b) Permethrin c) Ivermectin d) Lindane
a) Imiquimod
138
Which drug is a scabicide with some antipruritic properties? a) Crotamiton b) Permethrin c) Ivermectin d) Lindane
a) Crotamiton
139
Which drug should be applied to dry hair and left for 10 minutes before rinsing off with water? a) Permethrin b) Benzyl Alcohol c) Crotamiton d) Malathion
b) Benzyl Alcohol
140
Which drug has concerns about neurotoxicity and hematotoxicity and should be used with caution in infants, children, and pregnant women? a) Permethrin b) Lindane c) Crotamiton d) Sulfur
b) Lindane
141
Which drug's mechanism of action involves inhibiting T-lymphocyte activation? a) Imiquimod b) Tacrolimus c) Permethrin d) Ivermectin
b) Tacrolimus
142
Which drug is effective given orally for the treatment of onychomycosis? a) Ivermectin b) Terbinafine c) Lindane d) Crotamiton
b) Terbinafine
143
Which drug is a keratophilic medication? a) Griseofulvin b) Ivermectin c) Crotamiton d) Lindane
a) Griseofulvin
144
Which drug is used for the treatment of head lice in patients aged 4 years and older? a) Spinosad b) Permethrin c) Ivermectin d) Lindane
a) Spinosad
145
Which of the following is NOT a use of Permethrin? a) Treatment of Sarcoptes scabiei b) Treatment of Pthirus pubis c) Treatment of Candida infections d) Treatment of Pediculus humanus
c) Treatment of Candida infections
146
Which enzyme is inhibited by Hydroquinone, leading to its skin-lightening effect? a) Catalase b) Tyrosinase c) Peroxidase d) Lipase
Answer: b) Tyrosinase Rationale: Hydroquinone works by inhibiting the enzyme tyrosinase, which plays a crucial role in the biosynthesis of melanin, the pigment responsible for skin color.
147
Which of the following agents causes irreversible depigmentation? a) Hydroquinone b) Mequinol c) Monobenzone d) Trioxsalen
Answer: c) Monobenzone Rationale: Monobenzone causes irreversible depigmentation and may be toxic to melanocytes, leading to a permanent loss of these cells.
148
Which agent is combined with hydroquinone in cosmetic preparations to enhance skin lightening? a) Methoxsalen b) Retinol c) Monobenzone d) Trioxsalen
Answer: b) Retinol Rationale: Retinol accelerates the exfoliation of the epidermis. When combined with hydroquinone's melanin inhibition, it results in skin lightening.
149
Psoralens, used in the treatment of vitiligo, need to be activated by which type of UV light? a) UVB b) UVC c) UVA d) None of the above
Answer: c) UVA Rationale: Psoralens require activation by long-wavelength UV light in the UVA range (320-400 nm) to exert their therapeutic effect.
150
Which of the following agents is NOT used for the repigmentation of depigmented patches in vitiligo? a) Trioxsalen b) Methoxsalen c) Hydroquinone d) Monobenzone
Answer: d) Monobenzone Rationale: Monobenzone causes irreversible depigmentation and is not used for repigmentation in vitiligo.
151
Which of the following agents is derived from the fermentation of a soil bacterium and is used for head lice treatment? a) Permethrin b) Malathion c) Spinosad d) Benzyl Alcohol
Answer: c) Spinosad Rationale: Spinosad is derived from the fermentation of a soil bacterium (Actinomyces) and is used for head lice treatment.
152
Which of the following agents is known to cause hypopigmentation at sites distant from the area of application? a) Hydroquinone b) Mequinol c) Monobenzone d) Trioxsalen
Answer: c) Monobenzone Rationale: Monobenzone may cause hypopigmentation even in areas distant from the application site due to its potential toxicity to melanocytes.
153
Which agent is effective orally against dermatophyte infections but is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare? a) Ivermectin b) Lindane c) Griseofulvin d) Malathion
Answer: c) Griseofulvin Rationale: Griseofulvin is effective orally against dermatophyte infections caused by epidermophyton, microsporum, and trichophyton but is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare.
154
Which of the following agents is a keratophilic medication that does not seem to affect the P450 system? a) Terbinafine b) Griseofulvin c) Ivermectin d) Lindane
Answer: a) Terbinafine Rationale: Terbinafine is a keratophilic medication that, unlike griseofulvin, does not seem to affect the P450 system and has demonstrated no significant drug interactions to date.
155
Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months and is available as a 5% lotion? a) Permethrin b) Benzyl Alcohol c) Malathion d) Spinosad
Answer: b) Benzyl Alcohol Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol is available as a 5% lotion and is used for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months.
156
Which agent is known to form bonds with DNA in the presence of UVA, inhibiting its synthesis? a) Hydroquinone b) Psoralen c) Monobenzone d) Mequinol
Answer: b) Psoralen Rationale: Psoralen forms bonds with DNA in the presence of UVA, inhibiting DNA synthesis, which is a part of its mechanism of action.
157
Which of the following agents is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor used for treating pediculosis? a) Permethrin b) Malathion c) Spinosad d) Benzyl Alcohol
Answer: b) Malathion Rationale: Malathion is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor that is used for treating pediculosis.
158
Which agent is used as a scabicide and is an alternative drug for infants and pregnant women due to its unpleasant odor and staining properties? a) Crotamiton b) Sulfur c) Lindane d) Ivermectin
Answer: b) Sulfur Rationale: Sulfur is used as a scabicide and is an alternative drug for infants and pregnant women. However, it has an unpleasant odor and can stain, making it disagreeable to use.
159
Which of the following agents is known to cause concerns about neurotoxicity and hematotoxicity and should be used with caution in infants, children, and pregnant women? a) Permethrin b) Lindane c) Spinosad d) Benzyl Alcohol
Answer: b) Lindane Rationale: Lindane has raised concerns about neurotoxicity and hematotoxicity. As a result, it should be used with caution in vulnerable populations like infants, children, and pregnant women.
160
Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of head lice in patients 6 months of age and older and is recommended for single use only? a) Ivermectin b) Spinosad c) Permethrin d) Malathion
Answer: a) Ivermectin Rationale: Ivermectin is used for the treatment of head lice in patients 6 months of age and older. It is recommended for single use only and should not be repeated without a health care provider's recommendation.
161
Which of the following agents is derived from a soil bacterium and is used for the treatment of head lice? a) Permethrin b) Malathion c) Spinosad d) Benzyl Alcohol
Answer: c) Spinosad Rationale: Spinosad is derived from the fermentation of a soil bacterium (Actinomyces) and is used for head lice treatment.
162
Which agent is effective orally against dermatophyte infections but is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare? a) Ivermectin b) Lindane c) Griseofulvin d) Malathion
Answer: c) Griseofulvin Rationale: Griseofulvin is effective orally against dermatophyte infections caused by epidermophyton, microsporum, and trichophyton but is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare.
163
Which of the following agents is a keratophilic medication that does not seem to affect the P450 system? a) Terbinafine b) Griseofulvin c) Ivermectin d) Lindane
Answer: a) Terbinafine Rationale: Terbinafine is a keratophilic medication that, unlike griseofulvin, does not seem to affect the P450 system and has demonstrated no significant drug interactions to date.
164
Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months and is available as a 5% lotion? a) Permethrin b) Benzyl Alcohol c) Malathion d) Spinosad
Answer: b) Benzyl Alcohol Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol is available as a 5% lotion and is used for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months.
165
Which agent is known to form bonds with DNA in the presence of UVA, inhibiting its synthesis? a) Hydroquinone b) Psoralen c) Monobenzone d) Mequinol
Answer: b) Psoralen Rationale: Psoralen forms bonds with DNA in the presence of UVA, inhibiting DNA synthesis, which is a part of its mechanism of action.
166
Which type of sunscreen absorbs ultraviolet light and converts it into heat? a) Physical sunscreen b) Chemical sunscreen c) Sunshades d) PABA
Answer: b) Chemical sunscreen Rationale: Chemical sunscreens contain organic compounds that absorb UV rays and convert them into heat, which is then released from the skin.
167
Which compound was once popular in sunscreens but has seen decreased use due to allergic reactions? a) Oxybenzone b) Titanium dioxide c) Dibenzoylmethane d) PABA
Answer: d) PABA Rationale: PABA was once a common ingredient in sunscreens but has declined in use due to allergic reactions in some individuals.
168
Which of the following provides a broader spectrum of absorption from 250-360 nm? a) PABA b) Dibenzoylmethane c) Benzophenones d) Zinc oxide
Answer: c) Benzophenones Rationale: Benzophenones, including oxybenzone, dioxybenzone, and sulisobenzone, offer a broad spectrum of absorption ranging from 250-360 nm.
169
What does SPF measure in sunscreens? a) The sunscreen's water resistance b) The sunscreen's ability to prevent UVA damage c) The sunscreen's ability to prevent UVB damage d) The sunscreen's fragrance strength
Answer: c) The sunscreen's ability to prevent UVB damage Rationale: SPF (Sun Protective Factor) measures a sunscreen's effectiveness in preventing UVB-induced skin damage.
170
Which compound is beneficial for individuals sensitive to UVA wavelengths? a) PABA b) Oxybenzone c) Dibenzoylmethane d) Zinc oxide
Answer: c) Dibenzoylmethane Rationale: Dibenzoylmethane absorbs wavelengths throughout the longer UVA range, making it suitable for those sensitive to UVA wavelengths.
171
Which of the following sunscreens acts as a physical barrier that deflects and scatters UV rays? a) Chemical sunscreen b) Sunshades c) PABA d) Benzophenones
Answer: b) Sunshades Rationale: Sunshades or physical sunscreens contain opaque materials that act as a barrier, reflecting and scattering UV rays.
172
Which sunscreen ingredient is derived from the fermentation of a soil bacterium? a) PABA b) Oxybenzone c) Spinosad d) Dibenzoylmethane
Answer: c) Spinosad Rationale: Spinosad is derived from the fermentation of a soil bacterium, specifically an Actinomyces bacterium.
173
Which of the following is NOT a benzophenone? a) Oxybenzone b) Dioxybenzone c) Sulisobenzone d) Dibenzoylmethane
Answer: d) Dibenzoylmethane Rationale: Dibenzoylmethane is not a benzophenone; it's a compound that absorbs wavelengths in the UVA range.
174
What is the primary concern regarding the long-term use of psoralen photochemotherapy? a) Acne breakouts b) Cataracts and skin cancer c) Increased sensitivity to cold d) Hyperpigmentation
Answer: b) Cataracts and skin cancer Rationale: The major long-term risks associated with psoralen photochemotherapy are the development of cataracts and skin cancer.
175
Which of the following sunscreens should be applied to dry hair for treating head lice? a) Benzyl alcohol b) Malathion c) PABA d) Oxybenzone
Answer: b) Malathion Rationale: Malathion is available as a 0.5% lotion that should be applied to dry hair for the treatment of head lice. It's not a traditional sunscreen but is mentioned in the context of ectoparasiticides.
176
Which of the following is the acid form of Vitamin A? a) Adapalene b) Tazarotene c) Retinoic acid d) Azelaic acid
Answer: c) Retinoic acid Rationale: Retinoic acid is the acid form of Vitamin A and plays a crucial role in the treatment of acne.
177
Which medication is known to stabilize lysosomal membranes and increase ribonucleic acid polymerase activity? a) Benzoyl peroxide b) Brimonidine c) Retinoic acid d) Azelaic acid
Answer: c) Retinoic acid Rationale: Retinoic acid has multiple actions, including stabilizing lysosomal membranes and increasing ribonucleic acid polymerase activity.
178
Adapalene is a derivative of which acid? a) Naphthoic acid b) Benzoic acid c) Retinoic acid d) Dicarboxylic acid
Answer: a) Naphthoic acid Rationale: Adapalene is a derivative of naphthoic acid and resembles retinoic acid in structure and effects.
179
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of tazarotene? a) Anti-inflammatory action b) Teratogenicity c) Anti-proliferative action d) Skin irritation
Answer: a) Anti-inflammatory action Rationale: Anti-inflammatory action is a therapeutic effect of tazarotene, not a side effect.
180
Which agent is known for its antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and its peeling and comedolytic effects? a) Brimonidine b) Benzoyl peroxide c) Tazarotene d) Azelaic acid
Answer: b) Benzoyl peroxide Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide is known for its antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and its peeling and comedolytic effects.
181
Azelaic acid is effective in treating which of the following conditions? a) Rosacea b) Psoriasis c) Eczema d) Urticaria
Answer: a) Rosacea Rationale: Azelaic acid is used in the treatment of acne and rosacea.
182
Which medication is an α2-adrenergic agonist used for treating persistent facial erythema of rosacea? a) Adapalene b) Brimonidine c) Retinoic acid d) Benzoyl peroxide
Answer: b) Brimonidine Rationale: Brimonidine is an α2-adrenergic agonist indicated for the topical treatment of persistent facial erythema of rosacea.
183
Which of the following medications can potentially lower blood pressure? a) Adapalene b) Tazarotene c) Brimonidine d) Azelaic acid
Answer: c) Brimonidine Rationale: Brimonidine, an α2-adrenergic agonist, can lower blood pressure due to its mechanism of action.
184
Which medication is known to be photochemically stable and shows little decrease in efficacy when combined with benzoyl peroxide? a) Retinoic acid b) Tazarotene c) Adapalene d) Azelaic acid
Answer: c) Adapalene Rationale: Adapalene is photochemically stable and retains its efficacy even when combined with benzoyl peroxide.
185
Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of isotretinoin? a) Dryness of the skin b) Headaches c) Increased hair growth d) Muscle and joint pains
Answer: c) Increased hair growth Rationale: Isotretinoin can cause various side effects, but increased hair growth is not one of them.
186
Which medication is known to inhibit sebaceous gland size and function? a) Benzoyl peroxide b) Isotretinoin c) Brimonidine d) Adapalene
Answer: b) Isotretinoin Rationale: Isotretinoin is known to inhibit sebaceous gland size and function, making it effective for severe cystic acne.
187
Which agent is known to form bonds with DNA in the presence of UVA, inhibiting its synthesis? a) Benzoyl peroxide b) Tazarotene c) Psoralen d) Brimonidine
Answer: c) Psoralen Rationale: Psoralen forms bonds with DNA when exposed to UVA, inhibiting DNA synthesis.
188
Which of the following agents is known for its irreversible depigmentation? a) Hydroquinone b) Monobenzone c) Mequinol d) Adapalene
Answer: b) Monobenzone Rationale: Monobenzone can cause irreversible depigmentation and may be toxic to melanocytes.
189
Which medication is recommended to be used by women of childbearing age only after contraceptive counseling due to its teratogenic effects? a) Benzoyl peroxide b) Tazarotene c) Brimonidine d) Adapalene
Answer: b) Tazarotene Rationale: Tazarotene can be teratogenic, so women of childbearing age should use it only after contraceptive counseling.
190
Which of the following agents is a straight-chain saturated dicarboxylic acid used in acne treatment? a) Retinoic acid b) Benzoyl peroxide c) Azelaic acid d) Brimonidine
Answer: c) Azelaic acid Rationale: Azelaic acid is a straight-chain saturated dicarboxylic acid used in the treatment of acne and rosacea.
191
Which medication is known to stabilize lysosomal membranes and increase ribonucleic acid polymerase activity? a) Adapalene b) Brimonidine c) Retinoic acid d) Azelaic acid
Answer: c) Retinoic acid Rationale: Retinoic acid has multiple actions, including stabilizing lysosomal membranes and increasing ribonucleic acid polymerase activity.
192
Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of tazarotene? a) Anti-inflammatory action b) Teratogenicity c) Anti-proliferative action d) Skin irritation
Answer: a) Anti-inflammatory action Rationale: Anti-inflammatory action is a therapeutic effect of tazarotene, not a side effect.
193
Which agent is known for its antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and its peeling and comedolytic effects? a) Brimonidine b) Benzoyl peroxide c) Tazarotene d) Azelaic acid
Answer: b) Benzoyl peroxide Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide is known for its antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and its peeling and comedolytic effects.
194
Azelaic acid is effective in treating which of the following conditions? a) Rosacea b) Psoriasis c) Eczema d) Urticaria
Answer: a) Rosacea Rationale: Azelaic acid is used in the treatment of acne and rosacea.
195
Which medication is an α2-adrenergic agonist used for treating persistent facial erythema of rosacea? a) Adapalene b) Brimonidine c) Retinoic acid d) Benzoyl peroxide
Answer: b) Brimonidine Rationale: Brimonidine is an α2-adrenergic agonist indicated for the topical treatment of persistent facial erythema of rosacea.
196
Retinoic acid is formed by the oxidation of which group? a) Carboxyl group b) Alcohol group c) Amino group d) Aldehyde group
Answer: b) Alcohol group Rationale: Retinoic acid is formed by the oxidation of the alcohol group.
197
Which form of Vitamin A is retinoic acid? a) Ester form b) Alcohol form c) Acid form d) Aldehyde form
Answer: c) Acid form Rationale: Retinoic acid is the acid form of Vitamin A.
198
What percentage of topically applied retinoic acid is absorbed into the circulation? a) Less than 5% b) About 25% c) Less than 10% d) About 50%
Answer: c) Less than 10% Rationale: Less than 10% of topically applied retinoic acid is absorbed into the circulation
199
During the initial weeks of retinoic acid therapy, what might patients observe? a) Immediate clearing of acne b) Appearance of previously unseen comedones c) Darkening of the skin d) Immediate reduction in skin oiliness
Answer: b) Appearance of previously unseen comedones Rationale: In the first 4-6 weeks of therapy, comedones not previously evident may appear.
200
Which derivative of naphthoic acid resembles retinoic acid in structure and effects? a) Tazarotene b) Isotretinoin c) Adapalene d) Benzoyl Peroxide
Answer: c) Adapalene Rationale: Adapalene is a derivative of naphthoic acid that resembles retinoic acid in structure and effects.
201
Which topical acetylenic retinoid prodrug is hydrolyzed to its active form by an esterase? a) Isotretinoin b) Adapalene c) Tazarotene d) Azelaic Acid
Answer: c) Tazarotene Rationale: Tazarotene is a topical acetylenic retinoid prodrug that is hydrolyzed to its active form by an esterase.
202
Which acne preparation inhibits sebaceous gland size and function and is used for severe cystic acne? a) Benzoyl Peroxide b) Azelaic Acid c) Tazarotene d) Isotretinoin
Answer: d) Isotretinoin Rationale: Isotretinoin inhibits sebaceous gland size and function and is used for severe cystic acne.
203
Which agent is known to penetrate the stratum corneum or follicular openings unchanged and is converted metabolically to benzoic acid? a) Adapalene b) Benzoyl Peroxide c) Tazarotene d) Isotretinoin
Answer: b) Benzoyl Peroxide Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide penetrates the stratum corneum or follicular openings unchanged and is converted metabolically to benzoic acid.
204
Which straight-chain saturated dicarboxylic acid is used for the treatment of acne and acne rosacea? a) Tazarotene b) Isotretinoin c) Adapalene d) Azelaic Acid
Answer: d) Azelaic Acid Rationale: Azelaic acid is a straight-chain saturated dicarboxylic acid used for the treatment of acne and acne rosacea.
205
Which α2-adrenergic agonist is indicated for the topical treatment of persistent facial erythema of rosacea in adults? a) Adapalene b) Brimonidine c) Tazarotene d) Isotretinoin
Answer: b) Brimonidine Rationale: Brimonidine is an α2-adrenergic agonist indicated for the topical treatment of persistent facial erythema of rosacea in adults.
206
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Isotretinoin? a) Dryness and itching of the skin b) Headaches c) Increased skin oiliness d) Hair loss
Answer: c) Increased skin oiliness Rationale: Side effects of Isotretinoin resemble hypervitaminosis A and include dryness and itching of the skin, but not increased skin oiliness.
207
Which acne preparation is photochemically stable and retains its efficacy even when combined with benzoyl peroxide? a) Tazarotene b) Isotretinoin c) Adapalene d) Retinoic Acid
Answer: c) Adapalene Rationale: Adapalene is photochemically stable and retains its efficacy even when combined with benzoyl peroxide.
208
Which of the following agents promotes dermal collagen synthesis, new blood vessel formation, and thickening of the epidermis? a) Benzoyl Peroxide b) Azelaic Acid c) Tazarotene d) Tretinoin
Answer: d) Tretinoin Rationale: Prolonged use of tretinoin promotes dermal collagen synthesis, new blood vessel formation, and thickening of the epidermis.
209
Which acne preparation is available in a fixed-dose combination gel with benzoyl peroxide? a) Tazarotene b) Adapalene c) Isotretinoin d) Azelaic Acid
Answer: b) Adapalene Rationale: Adapalene is available in a fixed-dose combination gel with benzoyl peroxide.
210
Which agent is known to have antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and peeling and comedolytic effects? a) Tazarotene b) Isotretinoin c) Benzoyl Peroxide d) Adapalene
Answer: c) Benzoyl Peroxide Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide has antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and has peeling and comedolytic effects.
211
Which of the following agents is NOT a derivative or form of Vitamin A? a) Retinoic Acid b) Adapalene c) Tazarotene d) Azelaic Acid
Answer: d) Azelaic Acid Rationale: Azelaic acid is not a derivative or form of Vitamin A.
212
Which agent is known to directly cause vasoconstriction and is used for facial erythema of rosacea? a) Tazarotene b) Isotretinoin c) Adapalene d) Brimonidine
Answer: d) Brimonidine Rationale: Brimonidine directly causes vasoconstriction and is used for facial erythema of rosacea.
213
Which of the following agents should be used with caution in patients with severe cardiovascular disease due to its potential to lower blood pressure? a) Tazarotene b) Brimonidine c) Adapalene d) Isotretinoin
Answer: b) Brimonidine Rationale: Brimonidine, an α2-adrenergic agonist, can lower blood pressure and should be used with caution in patients with severe cardiovascular disease.
214
Which of the following agents is known to inhibit the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone? a) Tazarotene b) Isotretinoin c) Adapalene d) Azelaic Acid
Answer: d) Azelaic Acid Rationale: Azelaic acid has in vitro inhibitory effects on the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone.
215
Which of the following agents is a prodrug that is hydrolyzed to its active form by an esterase? a) Tazarotene b) Adapalene c) Isotretinoin d) Benzoyl Peroxide
Answer: a) Tazarotene Rationale: Tazarotene is a topical acetylenic retinoid prodrug that is hydrolyzed to its active form by an esterase.
216
Acitretin is a metabolite of which aromatic retinoid? a) Isotretinoin b) Tretinoin c) Adapalene d) Etretinate
Answer: d) Etretinate Rationale: Acitretin is specifically mentioned as a metabolite of the aromatic retinoid etretinate.
217
Which form of Vitamin A is Acitretin associated with? a) Vitamin A aldehyde b) Vitamin A ester c) Acid form of Vitamin A d) Vitamin A amide
Answer: c) Acid form of Vitamin A Rationale: Acitretin is the acid form of Vitamin A.
218
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Acitretin? a) Hypervitaminosis symptoms b) Elevations in cholesterol c) Increased appetite d) Hepatotoxicity
Answer: c) Increased appetite Rationale: Acitretin's side effects resemble hypervitaminosis, can cause elevations in cholesterol, and hepatotoxicity, but not increased appetite.
219
Which synthetic vitamin D3 derivative is used for the treatment of moderate severity plaque-type psoriasis vulgaris? a) Calcitonin b) Calcipotriene c) Calcitrol d) Calcinurin
Answer: b) Calcipotriene Rationale: Calcipotriene is the synthetic vitamin D3 derivative used for psoriasis treatment.
220
Which TNF inhibitor is a chimeric IgG1 monoclonal antibody? a) Etanercept b) Adalimumab c) Infliximab d) Ustekinumab
Answer: c) Infliximab Rationale: Infliximab is described as a chimeric IgG1 monoclonal antibody.
221
Which of the following agents binds specifically to TNF-alpha and blocks its interaction with cell surface TF receptors? a) Etanercept b) Adalimumab c) Infliximab d) Alefacept
Answer: b) Adalimumab Rationale: Adalimumab is the agent that specifically binds to TNF-alpha.
222
Which agent interferes with lymphocyte activation in psoriasis? a) Ustekinumab b) Etanercept c) Adalimumab d) Alefacept
Answer: d) Alefacept Rationale: Alefacept interferes with lymphocyte activation, playing a role in the pathophysiology of psoriasis.
223
Which agent is NOT a TNF inhibitor? a) Etanercept b) Infliximab c) Adalimumab d) Ustekinumab
Answer: d) Ustekinumab Rationale: Ustekinumab is not a TNF inhibitor; it binds to interleukin-12 (IL-12) and IL-23 cytokines.
224
Which of the following agents is associated with a risk of teratogenicity and requires contraceptive counseling for women of childbearing age? a) Calcipotriene b) Ustekinumab c) Acitretin d) Benzoyl Peroxide
Answer: c) Acitretin Rationale: Acitretin is notably teratogenic and requires strict contraceptive measures.
225
Which agent is an a2-adrenergic agonist indicated for the topical treatment of persistent facial erythema of rosacea? a) Adapalene b) Brimonidine c) Tazarotene d) Alefacept
Answer: b) Brimonidine Rationale: Brimonidine is the a2-adrenergic agonist used for facial erythema of rosacea.
226
Which of the following agents is NOT a biologic agent used for psoriasis treatment? a) Alefacept b) Etanercept c) Calcipotriene d) Infliximab
Answer: c) Calcipotriene Rationale: Calcipotriene is a synthetic vitamin D3 derivative, not a biologic agent.
227
Which agent is considered a homeopathic treatment in the USA for psoriasis and is not approved or regulated by the FDA? a) Ustekinumab b) Fumaric Acid Esters c) Adalimumab d) Calcipotriene
Answer: b) Fumaric Acid Esters Rationale: Fumaric Acid Esters are considered homeopathic treatments in the USA for psoriasis.
228
Which of the following agents is associated with the risk of serious life-threatening infections? a) Calcipotriene b) Alefacept c) TNF inhibitors d) Acitretin
Answer: c) TNF inhibitors Rationale: TNF inhibitors have been reported to cause serious life-threatening infections.
229
Which agent binds to interleukin-12 (IL-12) and IL-23 cytokines, inhibiting Th1 and Th17 cell-mediated responses? a) Adalimumab b) Infliximab c) Ustekinumab d) Etanercept
Answer: c) Ustekinumab Rationale: Ustekinumab binds to IL-12 and IL-23 cytokines.
230
Which of the following agents is NOT recommended for pregnant women due to its teratogenic effects? a) Ustekinumab b) Calcipotriene c) Acitretin d) Alefacept
Answer: c) Acitretin Rationale: Acitretin is notably teratogenic and is not recommended for pregnant women.
231
Which agent is known to have a prolonged elimination time of more than 3 months? a) Ustekinumab b) Adalimumab c) Acitretin d) Calcipotriene
Answer: c) Acitretin Rationale: Acitretin has a notably prolonged elimination time, lasting more than 3 months.
232
Which agent is specifically indicated for the treatment of pustular forms of psoriasis? a) Calcipotriene b) Acitretin c) Ustekinumab d) Alefacept
Answer: b) Acitretin Rationale: Acitretin is specifically indicated for the treatment of pustular forms of psoriasis.
233
Which of the following agents is a synthetic vitamin D3 derivative available as a 0.005% cream, scalp lotion, and foam? a) Calcitriol b) Calcipotriene c) Acitretin d) Alefacept
Answer: b) Calcipotriene Rationale: Calcipotriene is the synthetic vitamin D3 derivative available in the mentioned formulations.
234
Which agent interferes with the activation of lymphocytes, playing a role in the pathophysiology of psoriasis? a) Ustekinumab b) Adalimumab c) Alefacept d) Calcipotriene
Answer: c) Alefacept Rationale: Alefacept specifically interferes with lymphocyte activation in the context of psoriasis.
235
Which of the following agents is NOT a TNF inhibitor? a) Alefacept b) Etanercept c) Infliximab d) Adalimumab
Answer: a) Alefacept Rationale: Alefacept is not a TNF inhibitor; it interferes with lymphocyte activation.
236
Which agent is associated with the risk of reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome? a) Ustekinumab b) Adalimumab c) Infliximab d) Alefacept
Answer: a) Ustekinumab Rationale: Ustekinumab has been reported to be associated with a case of reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome.
237
Which agent is considered a homeopathic treatment in the USA for psoriasis and is not approved or regulated by the FDA? a) Calcipotriene b) Fumaric Acid Esters c) Acitretin d) Ustekinumab
Answer: b) Fumaric Acid Esters Rationale: Fumaric Acid Esters are considered homeopathic treatments in the USA for psoriasis.
238
Which agent is known to cause serious life-threatening infections, including sepsis and pneumonia? a) Calcipotriene b) Alefacept c) TNF inhibitors d) Acitretin
Answer: c) TNF inhibitors Rationale: TNF inhibitors have been reported to cause serious life-threatening infections.
239
Which agent binds to interleukin-12 (IL-12) and IL-23 cytokines, inhibiting Th1 and Th17 cell-mediated responses? a) Adalimumab b) Infliximab c) Ustekinumab d) Etanercept
Answer: c) Ustekinumab Rationale: Ustekinumab binds to IL-12 and IL-23 cytokines.
240
Which of the following agents is NOT recommended for pregnant women due to its teratogenic effects? a) Ustekinumab b) Calcipotriene c) Acitretin d) Alefacept
Answer: c) Acitretin Rationale: Acitretin is notably teratogenic and is not recommended for pregnant women.
241
Which of the following was the original topical glucocorticoid? a) Prednisolone b) Betamethasone c) Hydrocortisone d) Dexamethasone
Answer: c) Hydrocortisone Rationale: Hydrocortisone was the first topical glucocorticoid introduced.
242
Which modification made betamethasone over 300 times as active as hydrocortisone for topical use? a) Addition of a hydroxyl group b) Attaching a 5-carbon valerate chain c) Fluorination d) Methylation
Answer: b) Attaching a 5-carbon valerate chain Rationale: Attaching a 5-carbon valerate chain to betamethasone significantly increased its topical activity.
243
Which of the following conditions is NOT treated using topical corticosteroids? a) Inflammatory skin diseases b) Psoriasis c) Common cold d) Dermatitis
Answer: c) Common cold Rationale: Topical corticosteroids are used for skin conditions, not for treating the common cold.
244
Which adverse effect is associated with the systemic absorption of topical corticosteroids? a) Suppression of the HPA-axis b) Hyperpigmentation c) Hair growth d) Increased appetite
Answer: a) Suppression of the HPA-axis Rationale: Systemic absorption can lead to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.
245
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of topical corticosteroids? a) Atrophy b) Telangiectasia c) Hair growth d) Steroid acne
Answer: c) Hair growth Rationale: Hypertrichosis (increased hair growth) is an effect, but general hair growth is not specifically an adverse effect of topical corticosteroids.
246
Tar compounds are particularly valuable in the treatment of which condition? a) Acute vesiculation b) Chronic lichenified dermatitis c) Viral infections d) Fungal infections
Answer: b) Chronic lichenified dermatitis Rationale: Tar compounds are known for their antipruritic properties, making them valuable in treating chronic lichenified dermatitis.
247
Which constituent in tar compounds is responsible for their antipruritic properties? a) Carboxylic acid b) Amino acids c) Phenolic constituents d) Alcohols
Answer: c) Phenolic constituents Rationale: The phenolic constituents in tar compounds give them their antipruritic properties.
248
Which of the following is a common adverse reaction to coal tar compounds? a) Hyperpigmentation b) Irritant folliculitis c) Hair loss d) Increased appetite
Answer: b) Irritant folliculitis Rationale: The most common adverse reaction to coal tar compounds is irritant folliculitis.
249
Which of the following is NOT an effect of topical corticosteroids? a) Decreased inflammation b) Antimitotic effects on human epidermis c) Increased cell proliferation d) Reduction in itching
Answer: c) Increased cell proliferation Rationale: Corticosteroids have antimitotic effects, which means they reduce cell proliferation.
250
Which topical corticosteroid is over 300 times as active as hydrocortisone when a 5-carbon valerate chain is attached? a) Dexamethasone b) Prednisolone c) Betamethasone d) Methylprednisolone
Answer: c) Betamethasone Rationale: Betamethasone becomes significantly more active topically when a 5-carbon valerate chain is attached.
251
Which of the following conditions can be aggravated by even weak tar preparations? a) Chronic lichenified dermatitis b) Psoriasis c) Acute dermatitis with vesiculation d) Steroid acne
Answer: c) Acute dermatitis with vesiculation Rationale: Acute dermatitis with vesiculation and oozing may be irritated by even weak tar preparations.
252
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of topical corticosteroids? a) Atrophy b) Telangiectasia c) Increased appetite d) Steroid acne
Answer: c) Increased appetite Rationale: Increased appetite is not a direct side effect of topical corticosteroids.Answer: c) Increased appetite Rationale: Increased appetite is not a direct side effect of topical corticosteroids.
253
Which compound is known for its antipruritic properties in treating chronic lichenified dermatitis? a) Hydrocortisone b) Betamethasone c) Tar compounds d) Dexamethasone
Answer: c) Tar compounds Rationale: Tar compounds have phenolic constituents that provide antipruritic properties, making them valuable for treating chronic lichenified dermatitis.
254
Which of the following conditions can be treated using tar compounds as an alternative to topical corticosteroids? a) Acute vesiculation b) Psoriasis c) Viral infections d) Fungal infections
Answer: b) Psoriasis Rationale: Tar compounds can be used for treating conditions like psoriasis as an alternative to topical corticosteroids.
255
Which of the following is NOT a property of tar compounds? a) Antipruritic b) Antiviral c) Useful in chronic lichenified dermatitis d) Valuable in psoriasis treatment
Answer: b) Antiviral Rationale: Tar compounds are not specifically antiviral. They are known for their antipruritic properties and are used in skin conditions like psoriasis and chronic lichenified dermatitis.
256
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of tar compounds? a) Irritant folliculitis b) Photo irritation c) Hair growth d) Allergic contact dermatitis
Answer: c) Hair growth Rationale: Hair growth is not specifically an adverse effect of tar compounds.
257
Which of the following topical corticosteroids is NOT as active as hydrocortisone? a) Prednisolone b) Methylprednisolone c) Dexamethasone d) Betamethasone
Answer: d) Betamethasone Rationale: Betamethasone, without modifications, is not very active topically compared to hydrocortisone.
258
Which of the following is a side effect of topical corticosteroids when applied to the eyes? a) Decreased intraocular pressure b) Increased intraocular pressure c) Improved vision d) Color vision enhancement
Answer: b) Increased intraocular pressure Rationale: One of the side effects of topical corticosteroids is an increase in intraocular pressure when applied near the eyes.
259
Which of the following conditions can be treated using both topical corticosteroids and tar compounds? a) Psoriasis b) Common cold c) Viral infections d) Fungal infections
Answer: a) Psoriasis Rationale: Both topical corticosteroids and tar compounds are used in the treatment of psoriasis.
260
Which of the following is NOT an effect of tar compounds? a) Antipruritic properties b) Useful in psoriasis treatment c) Antiviral properties d) Valuable in chronic lichenified dermatitis treatment
Answer: c) Antiviral properties Rationale: Tar compounds are not specifically antiviral. They are known for their antipruritic properties and are used in skin conditions like psoriasis and chronic lichenified dermatitis.
261
Which of the following best describes the primary action of salicylic acid on the skin? A. Antibacterial B. Moisturizing C. Exfoliating D. Sunscreen
Answer: C. Exfoliating Rationale: Salicylic acid acts by exfoliating the skin, removing dead skin cells, and is commonly used in skincare products targeting acne.
262
In which concentration range is salicylic acid primarily keratolytic? A. 1-2% B. 3-5% C. 6-10% D. 11-15%
Answer: B. 3-5% Rationale: Salicylic acid acts as a keratolytic agent in concentrations of 3-5%.
263
Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of systemic absorption of salicylic acid? A. Tinnitus B. Vertigo C. Hyperpigmentation D. Nausea
Answer: C. Hyperpigmentation Rationale: Salicylism, caused by high levels of salicylate in the blood, can lead to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea. Hyperpigmentation is not a known side effect.
264
Propylene glycol in concentrations of 40-70% acts as a: A. Humectant B. Sunscreen C. Keratolytic agent D. Antibacterial agent
Answer: C. Keratolytic agent Rationale: In concentrations of 40-70%, propylene glycol acts as a keratolytic agent, especially when used under occlusion or combined with 6% salicylic acid.
265
Urea increases the water content of the stratum corneum due to its: A. Antibacterial properties B. Hygroscopic properties C. Anti-inflammatory properties D. UV protective properties
Answer: B. Hygroscopic properties Rationale: Urea's hygroscopic properties allow it to attract and retain moisture, increasing the water content of the stratum corneum.
266
Which of the following is primarily used for the treatment of warts? A. Urea B. Propylene glycol C. Podophyllum resin D. Fluorouracil
Answer: C. Podophyllum resin Rationale: Podophyllum resin is derived from the roots of the Podophyllum plant and is used primarily for the treatment of warts.
267
Sinecatechins ointment is derived from: A. Aloe vera B. Green tea leaves C. Lavender D. Chamomile
Answer: B. Green tea leaves Rationale: Sinecatechins is a botanical drug derived from green tea leaves and is used for treating external genital and perianal warts.
268
Fluorouracil disrupts the synthesis of: A. Proteins B. Lipids C. DNA and RNA D. Carbohydrates
Answer: C. DNA and RNA Rationale: Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthetase activity, disrupting DNA and RNA synthesis, especially in rapidly proliferating cells.
269
Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of propylene glycol? A. Irritation B. Allergic contact dermatitis C. Hyperpigmentation D. Eczematous dermatitis sensitivity
Answer: C. Hyperpigmentation Rationale: Propylene glycol can cause irritation and allergic contact dermatitis. Those with eczematous dermatitis may be more sensitive to it. Hyperpigmentation is not a known side effect.
270
Ingenol mebutate is derived from which plant? A. Euphorbia peplus B. Aloe vera C. Camellia sinensis D. Lavandula angustifolia
Answer: A. Euphorbia peplus Rationale: Ingenol mebutate is derived from the Euphorbia peplus plant and is used for treating actinic keratosis.
271
Which of the following is a known use of urea in higher concentrations? A. Sunscreen B. Softening the nail prior to avulsion C. Antibacterial agent D. UV protective agent
Answer: B. Softening the nail prior to avulsion Rationale: Concentrations of 30-50% urea applied to the nail plate have been useful in softening the nail before avulsion.
272
Which of the following agents is used topically for the treatment of multiple actinic keratoses? A. Urea B. Propylene glycol C. Podophyllum resin D. Fluorouracil
Answer: D. Fluorouracil Rationale: Fluorouracil is used topically for the treatment of multiple actinic keratoses, which are precancerous skin lesions.
273
Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of systemic absorption of salicylic acid? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Neurotoxicity C. Hyperpigmentation D. Metabolic acidosis
Answer: C. Hyperpigmentation Rationale: Systemic absorption of salicylic acid can lead to respiratory alkalosis, neurotoxicity, and metabolic acidosis. Hyperpigmentation is not a known side effect.
274
Which of the following agents is derived from green tea leaves and is used for treating external genital and perianal warts? A. Urea B. Sinecatechins C. Podophyllum resin D. Fluorouracil
Answer: B. Sinecatechins Rationale: Sinecatechins is a botanical drug derived from green tea leaves and is used for treating external genital and perianal warts.
275
Which of the following agents has a mechanism of action that involves inhibiting thymidylate synthetase activity? A. Urea B. Propylene glycol C. Podophyllum resin D. Fluorouracil
Answer: D. Fluorouracil Rationale: Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthetase activity, disrupting DNA and RNA synthesis.
276
Which of the following agents is used for the topical treatment of actinic keratosis and is derived from Euphorbia peplus? A. Urea B. Propylene glycol C. Ingenol mebutate D. Fluorouracil
Rationale: Ingenol mebutate is derived from the Euphorbia peplus plant and is used for treating actinic keratosis.
277
Which of the following agents is NOT a keratolytic agent? A. Urea B. Propylene glycol C. Podophyllum resin D. Fluorouracil
Answer: D. Fluorouracil Rationale: While urea, propylene glycol, and podophyllum resin have keratolytic properties, fluorouracil does not act primarily as a keratolytic agent.
278
Which of the following agents is used as a humectant and increases the water content of the stratum corneum? A. Urea B. Propylene glycol C. Podophyllum resin D. Fluorouracil
Answer: A. Urea Rationale: Urea's hygroscopic properties allow it to attract and retain moisture, increasing the water content of the stratum corneum.
279
Which of the following agents is used extensively in topical preparations because it is an excellent vehicle for organic compounds? A. Urea B. Propylene glycol C. Podophyllum resin D. Fluorouracil
Answer: B. Propylene glycol Rationale: Propylene glycol is used extensively in topical preparations because it is an excellent vehicle for organic compounds.
280
Which of the following agents is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used topically for the treatment of actinic keratoses? A. Urea B. Propylene glycol C. Podophyllum resin D. Diclofenac
Answer: D. Diclofenac Rationale: Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is used topically for the treatment of actinic keratoses.
281
Which of the following best describes the primary action of Doxepin? A. Antibacterial B. Antifungal C. H1 and H2 receptor antagonist D. Keratolytic
Answer: C. H1 and H2 receptor antagonist Rationale: Doxepin is a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist, which helps in reducing itching.
282
Which side effect is commonly associated with Doxepin? A. Hypertension B. Drowsiness C. Hyperpigmentation D. Photosensitivity
Answer: B. Drowsiness Rationale: Doxepin can cause drowsiness as one of its side effects.
283
Doxepin is contraindicated in patients with: A. Hypertension B. Diabetes C. Narrow-angle glaucoma D. Asthma
Answer: C. Narrow-angle glaucoma Rationale: Doxepin is contraindicated in patients with untreated narrow-angle glaucoma or a tendency to urinary retention.
284
Which of the following is a common local adverse effect of Doxepin? A. Dryness B. Hyperpigmentation C. Burning and stinging D. Photosensitivity
Answer: C. Burning and stinging Rationale: Marked burning and stinging are known local adverse effects of Doxepin.
285
Pramoxine is primarily used as a: A. Keratolytic agent B. Topical anesthetic agent C. Antibacterial agent D. Sunscreen
Answer: B. Topical anesthetic agent Rationale: Pramoxine is a topical anesthetic agent that provides temporary relief from pruritus.
286
Which of the following conditions can benefit from the use of Pramoxine? A. Psoriasis B. Acne C. Eczematous dermatoses D. Vitiligo
Answer: C. Eczematous dermatoses Rationale: Pramoxine can provide temporary relief from pruritus associated with mild eczematous dermatoses.
287
In which form is Pramoxine NOT available? A. 1% cream B. 1% lotion C. 1% gel D. 1% shampoo
Answer: D. 1% shampoo Rationale: Pramoxine is available as a 1% cream, lotion, or gel but not as a shampoo.
288
Pramoxine can be combined with which of the following for enhanced effects? A. Salicylic acid B. Hydrocortisone acetate C. Benzoyl peroxide D. Retinoids
Answer: B. Hydrocortisone acetate Rationale: Pramoxine is available in combination with hydrocortisone acetate for enhanced antipruritic effects.
289
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Doxepin? A. Drowsiness B. Anticholinergic effects C. Photosensitivity D. Burning and stinging
Answer: C. Photosensitivity Rationale: While Doxepin can cause drowsiness, anticholinergic effects, and burning/stinging, photosensitivity is not a known side effect.
290
Which of the following agents is a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist used for its antipruritic effects? A. Pramoxine B. Hydrocortisone C. Doxepin D. Salicylic acid
Answer: C. Doxepin Rationale: Doxepin is a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist and is used for its antipruritic effects.
291
Which drug's mechanism of action on hair follicles remains unknown? A) Finasteride B) Eflornithine C) Bimatoprost D) Minoxidil
Answer: D) Minoxidil Rationale: Minoxidil is known for promoting hair growth, but its exact mechanism on hair follicles is not fully understood.
292
Finasteride inhibits which enzyme? A) Ornithine decarboxylase B) 5α-reductase C) Polyamine synthase D) Prostaglandin synthase
Answer: B) 5α-reductase Rationale: Finasteride operates by inhibiting the enzyme 5α-reductase, reducing DHT levels.
293
Which drug is a prostaglandin analog used for eyelash growth? A) Eflornithine B) Minoxidil C) Bimatoprost D) Finasteride
Answer: C) Bimatoprost Rationale: Bimatoprost is a prostaglandin analog primarily used to treat hypotrichosis of the eyelashes.
294
Eflornithine inhibits the synthesis of what? A) DHT B) Prostaglandin C) Polyamine D) Keratin
Answer: C) Polyamine Rationale: Eflornithine acts as an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase, which plays a role in polyamine synthesis.
295
Which drug can cause decreased libido as a side effect? A) Minoxidil B) Finasteride C) Bimatoprost D) Eflornithine
Answer: B) Finasteride Rationale: Some men taking finasteride have reported decreased libido as a side effect.
296
Which drug is used topically for the treatment of actinic keratoses? A) Minoxidil B) Bimatoprost C) Eflornithine D) Fluorouracil
Answer: D) Fluorouracil Rationale: Fluorouracil is used topically for the treatment of multiple actinic keratoses.
297
Which drug is known to be an excellent vehicle for organic compounds in topical preparations? A) Propylene glycol B) Salicylic acid C) Urea D) Minoxidil
Answer: A) Propylene glycol Rationale: Propylene glycol is used extensively in topical preparations because it is an excellent vehicle for organic compounds.
298
Which drug, when stopped, leads to hair loss in 4-6 months? A) Bimatoprost B) Eflornithine C) Minoxidil D) Finasteride
Answer: C) Minoxidil Rationale: The effect of minoxidil is temporary, and cessation of treatment will lead to hair loss in 4-6 months.
299
Which drug is effective in reducing facial hair growth in women when used for 6 months? A) Minoxidil B) Eflornithine C) Bimatoprost D) Finasteride
Answer: B) Eflornithine Rationale: Eflornithine has been found effective in reducing facial hair growth in about 30% of women when used consistently for 6 months.
300
Which drug is used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes? A) Minoxidil B) Eflornithine C) Bimatoprost D) Finasteride
Answer: C) Bimatoprost Rationale: Bimatoprost is a prostaglandin analog primarily used to treat hypotrichosis of the eyelashes.
301
Which drug can cause drowsiness and anticholinergic effects? A) Doxepin B) Pramoxine C) Minoxidil D) Eflornithine
Answer: A) Doxepin Rationale: Doxepin, a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist, can cause drowsiness and anticholinergic effects.
302
Which drug is an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase? A) Minoxidil B) Eflornithine C) Bimatoprost D) Finasteride
Answer: B) Eflornithine Rationale: Eflornithine acts as an irreversible inhibitor of the enzyme ornithine decarboxylase.
303
Which drug's mechanism involves blocking the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone? A) Minoxidil B) Eflornithine C) Bimatoprost D) Finasteride
Answer: D) Finasteride Rationale: Finasteride operates by inhibiting the enzyme 5α-reductase, which blocks the conversion of testosterone to DHT.
304
Which drug is used as a topical anesthetic agent for temporary relief from pruritus? A) Doxepin B) Pramoxine C) Minoxidil D) Eflornithine
Answer: B) Pramoxine Rationale: Pramoxine is a topical anesthetic agent that provides temporary relief from pruritus associated with mild eczematous dermatoses.
305
Which drug is known to increase the water content of the stratum corneum? A) Urea B) Propylene glycol C) Salicylic acid D) Minoxidil
Answer: A) Urea Rationale: Urea increases the water content of the stratum corneum, presumably due to its hygroscopic characteristics.
306
Which drug is used for the treatment of actinic keratosis and has a mechanism involving the inhibition of thymidylate synthetase activity? A) Minoxidil B) Bimatoprost C) Eflornithine D) Fluorouracil
Answer: D) Fluorouracil Rationale: Fluorouracil is used topically for the treatment of multiple actinic keratoses and its mechanism involves the inhibition of thymidylate synthetase activity.
307
Which drug is a prostaglandin analog and its mechanism of action on eyelash growth is unknown? A) Minoxidil B) Eflornithine C) Bimatoprost D) Finasteride
Answer: C) Bimatoprost Rationale: Bimatoprost is a prostaglandin analog primarily used for eyelash growth, but its exact mechanism is not known.
308
Which drug can cause marked burning and stinging as a local adverse effect? A) Doxepin B) Pramoxine C) Minoxidil D) Eflornithine
Answer: A) Doxepin Rationale: Doxepin can cause marked burning and stinging as a local adverse effect.
309
Which drug is used in concentrations of 2-20% as a humectant? A) Urea B) Propylene glycol C) Salicylic acid D) Minoxidil
Answer: A) Urea Rationale: Urea is used as a humectant in concentrations of 2-20%.
310
Which drug is used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes and requires nightly application to the upper eyelid margins? A) Minoxidil B) Eflornithine C) Bimatoprost D) Finasteride
Answer: C) Bimatoprost Rationale: Bimatoprost is used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes and requires a nightly application to the upper eyelid margins.
311
Which of the following drugs is NOT a BRAF inhibitor? A. Vemurafenib B. Dabrafenib C. Trametinib D. Ipilimumab
Answer: D. Ipilimumab Rationale: Ipilimumab is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody and not a BRAF inhibitor.
312
Which drug specifically targets the BRAF V600E and V600K mutations? A. Vemurafenib B. Dabrafenib C. Trametinib D. Ipilimumab
Answer: C. Trametinib Rationale: Trametinib is a kinase inhibitor that targets both BRAF V600E and V600K mutations.
313
Which adverse effect is associated with Trametinib use? A. Cardiomyopathy B. Enterocolitis C. Hepatitis D. Keratoacanthoma
Answer: A. Cardiomyopathy Rationale: Trametinib use is associated with a defined risk of cardiomyopathy.
314
Which drug acts by increasing T-cell-mediated antitumor immune responses? A. Vemurafenib B. Dabrafenib C. Trametinib D. Ipilimumab
Answer: D. Ipilimumab Rationale: Ipilimumab is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody that increases T-cell-mediated antitumor immune responses.
315
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Ipilimumab? A. Enterocolitis B. Hepatitis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Dermatitis
Answer: C. Cardiomyopathy Rationale: Cardiomyopathy is associated with Trametinib, not Ipilimumab.
316
Which drug is used as an adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients? A. Vemurafenib B. Dabrafenib C. Trametinib D. Pegylated Interferon
Answer: D. Pegylated Interferon Rationale: Pegylated Interferon is used as an adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients.
317
Which drug is associated with the risk of new primary cutaneous malignancies? A. Vemurafenib B. Dabrafenib C. Trametinib D. Ipilimumab
Answer: A. Vemurafenib and B. Dabrafenib Rationale: Both Vemurafenib and Dabrafenib increase the risk for new primary cutaneous malignancies.
318
Which drug is a prostaglandin analog used to treat hypotrichosis of the eyelashes? A. Vemurafenib B. Dabrafenib C. Bimatoprost D. Eflornithine
Answer: C. Bimatoprost Rationale: Bimatoprost is a prostaglandin analog used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes.
319
Which drug is an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase? A. Vemurafenib B. Dabrafenib C. Bimatoprost D. Eflornithine
Answer: D. Eflornithine Rationale: Eflornithine is an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase, which inhibits polyamine synthesis.
320
Which drug is contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential cytotoxic effects on the fetus? A. Vemurafenib B. Dabrafenib C. Bimatoprost D. Podophyllum Resin
Answer: D. Podophyllum Resin Rationale: Podophyllum Resin is contraindicated during pregnancy because of potential cytotoxic effects on the fetus.
321
Which drug is known to cause drowsiness and anticholinergic effects? A. Doxepin B. Pramoxine C. Vemurafenib D. Dabrafenib
Answer: A. Doxepin Rationale: Doxepin, an antipruritic agent, can cause drowsiness and anticholinergic effects.
322
Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of BRAF inhibitors? A. Cardiomyopathy B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Keratoacanthoma D. New primary melanomas
Answer: A. Cardiomyopathy Rationale: Cardiomyopathy is associated with Trametinib, not the BRAF inhibitors Vemurafenib and Dabrafenib.
323
Which drug is used topically for the treatment of multiple actinic keratoses? A. Fluorouracil B. Ingenol Mebutate C. Minoxidil D. Eflornithine
Answer: A. Fluorouracil Rationale: Fluorouracil is used topically for the treatment of multiple actinic keratoses.
324
Which drug is derived from Euphorbia peplus? A. Fluorouracil B. Ingenol Mebutate C. Minoxidil D. Eflornithine
Answer: B. Ingenol Mebutate Rationale: Ingenol Mebutate is derived from Euphorbia peplus and is used for the topical treatment of actinic keratosis.
325
Which drug is a 5a-reductase inhibitor? A. Minoxidil B. Finasteride C. Bimatoprost D. Eflornithine
Answer: B. Finasteride Rationale: Finasteride is a 5a-reductase inhibitor that blocks the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone.
326
Which drug is associated with the risk of cardiomyopathy? A. Vemurafenib B. Dabrafenib C. Trametinib D. Ipilimumab
Answer: C. Trametinib Rationale: Trametinib use is associated with a defined risk of cardiomyopathy.
327
Which drug is used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes? A. Minoxidil B. Finasteride C. Bimatoprost D. Eflornithine
Answer: C. Bimatoprost Rationale: Bimatoprost is a prostaglandin analog used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes.
328
Which drug is known to inhibit thymidylate synthetase activity? A. Fluorouracil B. Ingenol Mebutate C. Minoxidil D. Eflornithine
Answer: A. Fluorouracil Rationale: Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthetase activity, interfering with the synthesis of DNA.
329
Which drug is effective in reducing facial hair growth in women when used for 6 months? A. Minoxidil B. Finasteride C. Bimatoprost D. Eflornithine
Answer: D. Eflornithine Rationale: Eflornithine is effective in reducing facial hair growth in about 30% of women when used for 6 months.
330
Which drug is indicated for the treatment of unresectable or metastatic melanoma? A. Vemurafenib B. Dabrafenib C. Trametinib D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above Rationale: Vemurafenib, Dabrafenib, and Trametinib are all indicated for the treatment of unresectable or metastatic melanoma.
331
Which of the following is a topical formulation of 9-cis-retinoic acid? A) Bexarotene B) Vismodegib C) Vorinostat D) Alitretinoin
Answer: D) Alitretinoin Rationale: Alitretinoin (Panretin) is the topical formulation of 9-cis-retinoic acid.
332
Bexarotene selectively binds and activates which receptor subtype? A) Retinoid Y receptor B) Retinoid Z receptor C) Retinoid X receptor D) Retinoid W receptor
Answer: C) Retinoid X receptor Rationale: Bexarotene is a member of a subclass of retinoids that selectively binds and activates retinoid X receptor subtypes.
333
Vismodegib is primarily used to treat which type of carcinoma? A) Squamous cell carcinoma B) Merkel cell carcinoma C) Basal cell carcinoma D) Transitional cell carcinoma
Answer: C) Basal cell carcinoma Rationale: Vismodegib is used for the treatment of metastatic or locally advanced basal cell carcinoma.
334
Which of the following agents is a histone deacetylase inhibitor? A) Romidepsin B) Alitretinoin C) Vismodegib D) Bexarotene
Answer: A) Romidepsin Rationale: Romidepsin is a histone deacetylase inhibitor approved for the treatment of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.
335
Which condition is Alitretinoin approved to treat? A) Basal cell carcinoma B) Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma C) AIDS-related Kaposi's sarcoma D) Actinic keratosis
Answer: C) AIDS-related Kaposi's sarcoma Rationale: Alitretinoin is approved for the treatment of cutaneous lesions in patients with AIDS-related Kaposi's sarcoma.
336
Which agent is known to increase the risk for new primary cutaneous malignancies including squamous cell carcinoma? A) Vismodegib B) Vorinostat C) Vemurafenib D) Romidepsin
Answer: C) Vemurafenib Rationale: Vemurafenib and dabrafenib increase the risk for new primary cutaneous malignancies.
337
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Bimatoprost? A) Pruritus B) Conjunctival hyperemia C) Increased brown iris pigmentation D) Hepatotoxicity
Answer: D) Hepatotoxicity Rationale: Bimatoprost can cause pruritus, conjunctival hyperemia, and increased brown iris pigmentation, but hepatotoxicity is not a known side effect.
338
Which agent is an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase? A) Vismodegib B) Eflornithine C) Bexarotene D) Vorinostat
Answer: B) Eflornithine Rationale: Eflornithine is an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase, which plays a role in hair growth.
339
Which agent is associated with a defined risk of cardiomyopathy? A) Vemurafenib B) Trametinib C) Bexarotene D) Romidepsin
Answer: B) Trametinib Rationale: Trametinib use is associated with a defined risk of cardiomyopathy.
340
Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma? A) Vismodegib B) Bexarotene C) Alitretinoin D) Romidepsin
Answer: B) Bexarotene Rationale: Bexarotene is used for the treatment of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.
341
Which agent is the first hedgehog pathway inhibitor available for the oral treatment of metastatic basal cell carcinoma? A) Vismodegib B) Romidepsin C) Vorinostat D) Bexarotene
Answer: A) Vismodegib Rationale: Vismodegib is the first hedgehog pathway inhibitor available for the oral treatment of metastatic basal cell carcinoma.
342
Which of the following agents is a Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen 4 (CTLA-4) blocker antibody? A) Vismodegib B) Ipilimumab C) Romidepsin D) Bexarotene
Answer: B) Ipilimumab Rationale: Ipilimumab is a Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen 4 (CTLA-4) blocker antibody used for the treatment of melanoma.
343
Which agent is known to inhibit thymidylate synthetase activity, interfering with the synthesis of DNA? A) Fluorouracil B) Vismodegib C) Bexarotene D) Vorinostat
Answer: A) Fluorouracil Rationale: Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthetase activity, interfering with the synthesis of DNA.
344
Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of actinic keratosis? A) Ingenol Mebutate B) Vismodegib C) Romidepsin D) Bexarotene
Answer: A) Ingenol Mebutate Rationale: Ingenol Mebutate is used for the topical treatment of actinic keratosis.
345
Which agent is associated with serious hypersensitivity reactions, including severe dermatologic reactions? A) Vemurafenib B) Trametinib C) Bexarotene D) Romidepsin
Answer: A) Vemurafenib Rationale: All BRAF inhibitors, including Vemurafenib, are associated with serious hypersensitivity reactions.
346
Which agent is used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes? A) Vismodegib B) Bimatoprost C) Romidepsin D) Bexarotene
Answer: B) Bimatoprost Rationale: Bimatoprost is used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes.
347
Which agent is an adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients? A) Pegylated Interferon B) Vismodegib C) Romidepsin D) Bexarotene
Answer: A) Pegylated Interferon Rationale: Pegylated Interferon is used as an adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients.
348
Which of the following agents is NOT a kinase inhibitor of BRAF V600E mutation? A) Vemurafenib B) Dabrafenib C) Trametinib D) Bexarotene
Answer: D) Bexarotene Rationale: Vemurafenib and Dabrafenib are kinase inhibitors of BRAF V600E mutation, while Trametinib is a kinase inhibitor of both BRAF V600E and V600K mutations.
349
Which agent is effective in reducing facial hair growth in women when used for 6 months? A) Vismodegib B) Bimatoprost C) Romidepsin D) Eflornithine
Answer: D) Eflornithine Rationale: Eflornithine is effective in reducing facial hair growth in about 30% of women when used for 6 months.
350
Which agent is known to selectively bind and activate retinoid X receptor subtypes? A) Vismodegib B) Bimatoprost C) Bexarotene D) Romidepsin
Answer: C) Bexarotene Rationale: Bexarotene is a member of a subclass of retinoids that selectively binds and activates retinoid X receptor subtypes.

Pharma 1 (DUMP) (16 decks)

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