Diseases Flashcards
(93 cards)
1
Q
Epidemic
A
occurrence of a disease in a community or region that is more than normal
2
Q
Endemic
A
when a disease is expected to be around to some degree within a geographical area. e.g. plague
3
Q
Communicable diseases are those that are transferable from one _______ to another
A
from one host to another
4
Q
Epidemiology is the study of _______
A
diseases
5
Q
Pandemic
A
a disease that exists throughout a wide area
6
Q
Zoonosis is a group of ____________ diseases that can be transmitted to ______. e.g. is __________
A
animal diseases transferable to man.
e.g. rabies
7
Q
Acute vs. Chronic diseases
A
acute - rapid onset
chronic - prolonged exposure, long duration illness
8
Q
Direct vs. Indirect transmission of diseases
A
direct - human to human, animal to human, animal to animal
indirect - vector, fomites
9
Q
bacteria are usually ___ to ____ microns in size
A
.5 to 3 microns
10
Q
Name 4 common bacterial shapes
A
rod, cocci, clumps, spiral
11
Q
clinical vs carrier casses
A
clinical - symptomatic
carrier - asymptomatic (typhoid mary)
12
Q
subclinical is the state of the host (before/after) the disease causes symptoms
A
before symptoms
13
Q
the vehicle is how the infectious agent gets transmitted to the host.
e.g. are____ and _____
A
food and water
14
Q
What are the 5 routes of infections. Which are the two most common.
A
respiratory - most common oral/digestive - second most common skin eyes injections
15
Q
Passive vs. Active immunity and Natural and Acquired forms of both.
A
Passive - received from another source
naturally passive - maternal transfer
acquired passive - inoculation of antibodies
Active - formed by body’s immune system
naturally active - from infection
acquired active - inoculation by killed virus/agent then body builds immunity
16
Q
Intrinsic vs. extrinsic host factors
A
intrinsic (genetic) - age, sex, race, immunologic state
extrinsic (controllable) - personal habits, nutritional state, stress level
17
Q
synergist/synergy
A
two chemicals produce a greater effect together than either produce alone
18
Q
additive effects
A
two chemicals produce an effect approximately twice that of either chemical alone.
e.g. cigarette smoking and air pollution
19
Q
multiplicative effects
A
two chemicals produce an effect several times greater than either product alone
20
Q
accelerator effect
A
one chemical enables or enhances the toxic effect of another. similar to a “catalyst.” e.g. soot
21
Q
Top 4 accidental deaths
A
car accidents
accidental falls (most common in the home)
fire and explosion (most common in workplace)
accidental drowning
22
Q
isolation vs quarantine
A
isolation - disease is know - physical separation to avoid spread
quarantine - disease is unknown
23
Q
gram stain and colors
A
gram positive retain crystal violet dye (purple)
gram negative - counter stain (safranin) flushes out the crystal violet - microbes appear (red/pink) thinner cell wall
24
Q
gram positive bacteria have a thick layer of _____
A
peptidoglycan
25
What are the four growth conditions of bacteria in regards to oxygen level
aerobic
microaerophillic - require lower levels of oxygen
facultative anaerobe - will use aerobic respiration but can use anaerobic respiration or fermentation if needed
anaerobic
26
What are toxins
poisonous substances produced by certain microrgaisms
27
exotoxins vs endotoxins
exotoxins - secreted by bacteria, a waste product - highly toxic. They are tissue or organ specific. Usually from gram positive.
endotoxins - part of gram negative cell wall called LPS which are released when the bacteria die
28
What are some of the damaging effects of endotoxins
vasodilation----> hypotension (low bp)
fever
weakness
leukopenia
29
the following bacteria produce which types of exotoxins
staph aureus
clost. botulinum
clos. tetani
corneybacterium diptheriae
staph aureus - enterotoxin (GI tract)
clost. botulinum - neurotoxin
clos. tetani - neurotoxin
corneybacterium diptheriae - cytotoxin (attacks living cells)
30
```
Colorado Tick Fever
type
reservoir
mode
fatality
```
virus
rodents - squirrels, chipmunks
adult tick - dermacentor andersoni (wood tick)
deaths are rare
31
________________ is a disease that causes inflammation in parts of the brain, specifically the meninges and spinal cord. This disease is caused by a (bacteria/virus)
Ecephalitis
| viral
32
What are the 4 types of encephalitis that affect humans. Name the mosquito vector(s) for each type
Eastern Equine - Culiseta melanura
St. Louis - Culex tarsalis, Culex pipens
Western Equine - Culex tarsalis
West Nile Virus - Culex tarsalis
33
In encephalitis, mild cases cane become viral ______________. Sever infections result in disorientation, convulsions and death. Incubation period is between __ and __ days.
mild cases --> viral meningitis
| 5-15 days incubation
34
____________ is a viral disease that usually affects the liver giving physical symptoms of jaundice
Hepatitis
35
What are the three types of hepatitis
Hep A - infectious
| Hep B and C - Serum
36
```
Hep A
type
mode
average incubation period
typical illness duration
fatality rate
```
```
virus
fecal oral route
25-30 days incubation
1-2 week duration
low fatality, 1 per 1000
```
37
```
Hep B & C
type
mode
incubation time
fatality
```
virus
blood - hypodermic needles - drug use
60-90 day incubation
1% fatality
38
```
Rabies
type
reservoir
mode
incubation
symptoms
fatality
```
virus
reservoir - warm blooded animals - dogs, bats(most rabid), skunks
mode - bite from infected animal
incubation 3-6 weeks
symptoms - paralysis, painful swallowing, foaming mouth, disease attacks central nervous system
fatality - usually fatal once clinical symptoms arrive, treatable if caught during incubation
39
Rabies treatment for humans includes either ______ or ______
Rabies testing for animals includes examination for ____________ in the brain
DEV - duck embryo vaccine
RIG - rabies immune globulin
negri bodies
40
```
Yellow Fever
type
mode
region
incubation
symptoms
fatality
```
```
virus
Aedes aegypti mosquito
south American and Africa
3-6 day incubation
flu like symptoms
50% fatal to non indigenous
```
41
```
AIDS
type
mode
symptoms
fatality
```
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
virus - HIV - human immunodeficiency virus
mode - bodily fluids - sexual transmission
symptoms - HIV causes flu like symptoms, then a long asymptomatic period and can later appear as the late stage disease of AIDS
fatality 80 to 90%
42
```
Hanta Virus
type
mode
avg incubation
fatality
symptoms
```
```
virus
rodent aerosols
12-16 days
hemorrhagic fever and renal syndrome
8090 % fatality
```
43
```
Cholera
type
mode
symptoms
fatality
```
```
bacti
Vibrio cholera
mode - fecal oral route
typically a waterborne disease
rice water stools
only fatal if no treatment
```
44
Vibrio parahemolyticus is a bacterial illness from ____________
contaminated seafood
45
Ornithosis/Parrot Fever
type
mode
symptoms
bacti
Chlamydia psittaci
contact with infected birds - parakeets, parrots, pigeons
cold/respiratory symptoms
46
```
Anthrax
type
aka:
mode
incubation period
symptoms
fatality for untreated cases
control
```
```
bacti
Bacillus anthracis - spore former
aka: wool sorter's disease
mode - animal hides, hair, meat
incubation - 2-5 days
skin lesions or upper respiratory infection (serious)
20% fatality if untreated
control - dust control, wool/sheep brushes disinfected
```
47
```
Plague
type
two types
mode
incubation
fatality
historically called ______
```
bacti
bubonic(swollen lymph nodes) and pneumonic (respiratory, 2nd stage, highly contagious)
Yersinia pestis
mode - rats (rats get it from flea - oriental rat flea)
symptoms - high fever, low bp, rapid pulse, convulsions, coma
incubation 2-6 days
fatality - untreated 50%
one of the deadliest disease known to man
historically called "black death"
48
Rabbit Fever/Deerfly Fever/Tularemia
type
mode
bacti
Francisella tularensis
mode - deerfly bite, inoculation from infected rabbit/deer
49
Brucellosis
type
aka
mode
bacti
Brucella abortus
aka: undulant fever (humans) Bang's disease (cattle), Kennel Cough
mode - infected animals or dairy products
50
Fever is not usually a symptom of this type of foodborne illness
foodborne intoxications
51
heat stable vs heat labile toxins
heat stable - toxin survives heat (usually chemical based toxins)
heat labile - toxin does not survive heating (usually protein based toxins)
52
___________ is an e.g. of a heat stable toxin
staph aureus
53
___________ is an e.g. of a heat labile toxin
clost. botulinum
54
```
Bacillus cereus
type
mode
infectious dose
incubation
symptoms
duration
```
gram pos, facultative anaerobe, spore former
intoxication
mode - ingestion of cooked food left out too long. meats, stews, gravies, rice
ID 500,000 bacti
incubation - 10-16 hours
symptoms - cramps, D, N
duration - 24-48 hours
55
```
Clostridium botulinum
type
mode
ID
incubation
symptoms
duration
Fatality of untreated
```
```
gram pos, anaerobic, spore former
intoxication
mode - ingestion of improperly canned foods, home canned fish, vegetables, fermented fish, baked potatoes in aluminum foil
ID very few - most potent toxic to man
incubation - 12-72 hours
symptoms - V, D, blurred/double vision, difficulty swallowing
duration - variable
fatality - 30% of untreated cases
```
56
floppy baby syndrome is associated with __________ and can be caused by the ingestion of ________
botulism
| honey
57
the botulism toxin is a (endotoxin/exotoxin) and is heat (stabile/labile)
exotoxin (neurotoxin), heat labile (protein structure)
58
```
Clostridium perfringens
aka:
type
mode
ID
incubation
symptoms
duration
```
```
gram pos, anaerobic, spore former
toxin mediated infection
aka: cafeteria bacteria
mode - ingestion of meats (roasts), poultry, gravy, MEXICAN BEANS, time/temp abused foods
ID - 1-100 million organisms
incubation 8-16 hours
symptoms - intense cramps, watery D
duration - 24 hours
```
59
```
Salmonella
type
mode
ID
incubation
symptoms
duration
Typhoid Fever
```
gram neg, non spore former, enterobacteria
infection
mode - fecal oral - ingestion of eggs, poultry, meat, unpasteurized milk/juice, cheese, contaminated raw fruits/vegetables - undercooked foods, cross contamination.
ID - 1000 to 10,000 bacti
incubation - 6-48 hours
symptoms - D, F, cramps, V
4-7 days
Typhoid fever - salmonella typhi - more serious than salmonellosis
60
which organism is the control organism for the phenol coefficient
salmonella typhi
61
```
Shigella
type
aka
mode
ID
incubation
symptoms
duration
```
Shigella dysenteriae - gram neg, facultative anaerobe, non spore former
infection
aka bacillary dysentery
mode - fecal oral - contaminated water, raw produce, uncooked foods or improperly reheated foods, cruise ship ice
ID - 10 or more bacti
incubation - 4-7 days
symptoms - crapms, F, D, stools may contain blood/mucus
duration - 24-48 hours
62
```
Staph aureus
aka
type
mode
incubation
symptoms
duration
```
staphylococcus aureus - gram pos, aerobe
picnic food poisoning
intoxication (enterotoxin)
mode - from skin lesions, nose mouth of man to food - unrefrigerated or improperly refrigerated meats, potatos, egg salads, cream pastries
incubation - 1-6 hours
symptoms - sudden onset severe N and V. cramps, D and F may also be present. Normally no fever though
duration - 24-48 hours
63
toxic shock syndrome in women is caused by ____________
staph aureus
64
___________ is a nosocomial infection (commonly acquired at a hospital)
staph aureus
65
```
E Coli O157 H7
aka
type
mode
incubation
symptoms
duration
```
aka: enterohemoragic, or HUS - hemolytic uremic syndrome
type - Escherichia coli, gram neg, facultative anaerobe
Toxin Mediated infection
mode - undercooked beef, unpasteurized milk/juice, raw vegetables (sprouts), contaminated water
incubation - 1-8 days
symptoms - severe bloody D, abdo pain, V. usually no fever. kidney failure in kids.
duration - 5-10 days
66
```
Norovirus
aka
type
mode
incubation
symptoms
duration
```
aka: viral gastroenteritis, winter diarrhea, food poisoning, Norwalk virus etc.
virus
mode - fecal oral route - raw produce, contaminated drinking water, poor food handler hygiene, shellfish from contaminated waters
incubation - 12-48 hours
symptoms - N, V, cramps, D, F, headache. D more prevalent in adults, V more prevalent in children.
duration - 12-60 hours
67
```
Streptococcus pyogenes
aka
type
mode
symptoms
```
aka scarlet fever
gram positive
mode - direct contact with airborne droplets, contaminated food and milk
symptoms - sore throat
68
```
Campylobacter jejuni
type
mode
ID
incubation
symptoms
duration
```
```
gram neg, microaerophillic
infection
mode - cross contamination or undercooked poultry, unpasteurized milk, contaminated water
ID 400 bacteria
incubation - 2-5 days
symptoms - D cramps, V, D may be bloody
duration - 2-10 days
easily killed by disinfection
```
69
_______________ is bacterial disease especially from raw or undercooked oysters. Can be fatal to those with liver diseases or weakened immune systems
Vibrio vulnificus
70
Gonyaulax C is the name of the toxin responsible for ____________
paralytic shellfish poisoning
71
Tuberculosis
type
mode
symptoms
```
mycobacterium tuberculosis
acid fast, aerobic
mode - exposure to airborne droplets
symptoms - after 4 to 6 week incubation cough, fever, fatigue
highly contagious
```
72
Relapsing fever is caused by _______________ and is transmitted by ___________
borrelia recurrentis
transmitted by ticks
73
____________'s disease is an atypical form of pneumonia and can be caused when the bacteria gets into air conditioning units
legionaires disease
74
___________________ is a bacteria disease that can occur from contact with water that is contaminated with urine of infected animals such as cattle, dogs, horses and swine
leptospirosis
75
```
Listeria
type
mode
incubation
symptoms
duration
```
listeria monocytogenes, gram pos, facultative anerobe
infection
mode - ingestion of unpasteurized milk, soft cheeses, ready to eat deli meets, seafood products
incubation - 9-48 hours for GI, 2-6 weeks for invasive disease
symptoms - flu like symptoms, pregnant women very susceptible to still birth
duration - variable
notes - very hardy organisms resistant to freezing, dry, hot environments etc.
76
Thrush is a common name for the fungal infection caused by the yeast ________________
candida albicans
77
Gilchrists disease is caused by the yeast _____________
blastomyces dermitidis
78
Valley fever or desert fever can be caught by inhalation of spores form soil or vegetation. It's caused by the fungus _______________
coccidiodes immitis
79
Darlings disease is caused by the fungus ____________________ and can be found in soil around chicken coops and bat caves
histoplasma capsulatum
80
Tinea, or ________________ is a fungal infection from the ______________ and ____________ species.
ringworm
microsporum
trichophyton
on the foot it's called athletes foot
81
Lymes disease is caused by the bacteria ____________ and is transmitted from the tick species ___________
the illness presents as a skin leasion followed by fatigue fever and lymph node inflammation
borrelia
ticks species Ixodes
82
Rickettsia bacteria
gram neg, non spore forming
carried by limes, ticks and other arthropods
diseases include
rocky mountain spotted fever - dermacentor tick
typhus fever - pediculus humanis (lice) oriental rat flea (xenophylla) mite larvae (leptotrombidium)
83
scabies is caused by bites from ________
mites sarcoptes scabiei
84
entamoeba histolytica is an infection from _______________
protozoan
85
Cryptosporodium is an infection caused by a ____________ which can be in contaminated water. the symptoms are usually______
protozoan
watery D, cramps, slight fever
86
_______ is caused by a protozoan which can be in contaminated drinking water. It's common for hikers and day care centers.
giardia
87
Malaria is caused by the protozoan ___________________. The mode is by infected ______________
plasmodium vivax
mosquito
88
the tse tse fly is the mode of transmission for _______________
African sleeping sickness
89
swimmer's itch is caused by the parasite ________________ and is the most common waterborne disease
schistosoma mansoni (blood fluke)
90
beef and pork tape worms are scientifically known as
```
taenia solium (pork)
taenia saginata (beef)
```
91
The two common varieties of hookworms are. to prevent infection do not ___________
ancylostoma duodenale
necator americanus
do not walk barefoot in soils known to have hookworms
they can survive wastewater treatment
92
ascaris lumbricoides is a _________________
roundworm
93
pinworms are called ____________
enterobius vermicularis
