Drugs in the Liver Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

What is metabolism?

A

All chemical reactions involved in maintaining the living state of cells and the organism.

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2
Q

What is intrinsic clearance?

A

The theoretical maximum clearance of unbound drug by an organ, without limitations from blood flow or protein binding.

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3
Q

What is conjugation in drug metabolism?

A

The addition of chemical groups to drugs, making them more water-soluble for excretion.

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4
Q

What is hydrolysis in drug metabolism?

A

The chemical breakdown of a compound due to a reaction with water.

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5
Q

What is reduction in a chemical reaction?

A

The gain of electrons or loss of oxygen.

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6
Q

What is oxidation in a chemical reaction?

A

The loss of electrons or gain of oxygen.

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7
Q

What factors determine hepatic clearance of oral drugs?

A

Liver blood flow, intrinsic clearance, and protein binding.

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8
Q

What does a high extraction ratio indicate?

A

Drug is rapidly cleared in a single liver pass; clearance depends mostly on hepatic blood flow.

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9
Q

Give an example of a drug with a high extraction ratio.

A

Morphine, verapamil, or propranolol.

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10
Q

What does a low extraction ratio indicate?

A

Drug is poorly cleared; clearance depends on liver’s metabolic capacity and free drug fraction.

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11
Q

Give an example of a drug with a low extraction ratio.

A

Warfarin or phenytoin.

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12
Q

What does an intermediate extraction ratio mean?

A

Clearance is influenced by both hepatic blood flow and intrinsic metabolism.

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13
Q

Give an example of a drug with intermediate extraction ratio

A

Aspirin or codeine.

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14
Q

What are CYP450 enzymes?

A

A family of enzymes responsible for Phase 1 drug metabolism, primarily oxidation.

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15
Q

What is the main role of CYP450 enzymes in metabolism?

A

Conversion of drugs into inactive metabolites.

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16
Q

Where are CYP450 enzymes found?

A

Mostly in the liver.

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17
Q

What reactions are typically catalyzed by CYP450 enzymes?

A

Oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis.

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18
Q

How can drugs interact through CYP450 enzymes?

A

By competing for the same enzyme binding site.

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19
Q

What happens to the drug with lower enzyme affinity in a drug-drug interaction?

A

It is metabolized more slowly, leading to prolonged effects.

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20
Q

What is a potential consequence of CYP450 competition?

A

Increased risk of toxicity or prolonged drug action.

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21
Q

What is the main purpose of Phase II metabolism?

A

Detoxification via conjugation to make drugs more water-soluble for excretion

22
Q

What happens to the drug in Phase II metabolism?

A

It is conjugated with molecules like glycine, glutamine, or sulfur compounds.

23
Q

What is glucuronidation?

A

glucuronic acid is added to a drug.

24
Q

Where are glucuronides eliminated?

A

In bile and urine.

25
What is amino acid conjugation?
Conjugation of drugs with amino acids like glycine or glutamine for urinary excretion.
26
Why are neonates vulnerable to drugs like chloramphenicol?
Slow glucuronidation can lead to toxic accumulation.
27
What is sulfoconjugation?
Conjugation of drugs with sulfate, making them polar and easily excreted in urine.
28
What is biliary excretion?
The excretion of drugs directly into bile, especially after conjugation.
29
What drugs are more likely to be excreted in bile?
Polar and lipophilic drugs with molecular weight > 200 kDa.
30
What happens to drugs with smaller molecular weight?
They are more likely to be excreted via urine.
31
What kind of transport is used in biliary excretion?
Active, energy-dependent transport that can become saturated.
32
What are risk factors for impaired drug metabolism in liver disease?
Hepatocellular failure, reduced blood flow, impaired enzyme function, low protein binding.
33
What effect does liver disease have on plasma protein binding?
Decreases it, increasing free drug and volume of distribution.
34
How does malnutrition affect liver metabolism?
It reduces availability of essential micronutrients.
35
What is Drug-Induced Liver Injury (DILI)?
Liver damage caused by medications, from mild enzyme elevation to acute liver failure.
36
What is the most common cause of acute liver failure in the U.S. and Europe?
Drug-induced liver injury.
37
What is idiosyncratic DILI (IDILI)?
Rare, unpredictable liver injury not clearly related to drug dose.
38
How common is significant liver damage from methotrexate?
Rare – about 1 in 300 patient years.
39
What are methotrexate-related liver risks?
Fatty liver disease, fibrosis, cirrhosis (with cumulative doses > 2g).
40
What increases liver risk with methotrexate?
Alcohol, obesity, age.
41
How is methotrexate liver risk monitored?
LFTs, serum fibrosis markers, and liver biopsy.
42
What dose of paracetamol can cause hepatic necrosis?
10 grams.
43
How long before toxicity signs appear after paracetamol overdose?
Up to 48 hours.
44
What predicts poor prognosis in paracetamol toxicity?
Prolonged prothrombin time and acidosis.
45
Who is more prone to paracetamol toxicity?
Alcoholics, fasting patients, or those on enzyme-inducing drugs.
46
What is the antidote for paracetamol toxicity?
IV Acetylcysteine (21-hour or 12-hour infusions).
47
What tool helps guide paracetamol overdose treatment?
TOXBASE.
48
How does chronic alcohol use affect liver enzymes?
Induces them, increasing hepatotoxicity risk.
49
How does acute alcohol use affect enzyme activity?
Inhibits enzymes.
50
Which common analgesic is metabolized via glucuronidation and sulfation?
Aspirin.
51
What condition makes glucuronidation inefficient in infants?
Immature liver function.