Vaccinations Flashcards by Ellie Stephenson

When did the UK initially achieve WHO measles elimination status?

2017

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What was the primary reason for the UK losing its measles elimination status in 2018?

Increase in confirmed measles cases

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What is the main characteristic of acquired immunity?

It has a high degree of specificity

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Which of the following is a feature of clonal selection?

Cells expand after antigen recognition

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What is the main goal of active immunization?

To create memory cells for faster future response

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Which of the following diseases has been eradicated through vaccination?

Smallpox

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What is a major disadvantage of the Sabin (live attenuated) polio vaccine?

Can cause vaccine-induced poliomyelitis

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What is the key function of adjuvants in vaccines?

To enhance immunogenicity

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What is the primary purpose of the HPV vaccine?

To reduce the risk of cervical cancer

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What is the primary mechanism by which SARS-CoV-2 infects cells?

By using its spike (S) protein to

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What are the two main types of vaccines?

Live vaccines and Non-living vaccines.

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Give an example of a live attenuated vaccine.

Oral polio vaccine (OPV), measles, mumps, rubella (MMR).

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Give an example of a non-living vaccine.

Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV), diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis (DTP).

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What are adjuvants used for in vaccines?

They enhance the immune response.

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What are the two types of polio vaccines?

Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) and Oral polio vaccine (OPV).

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What is the main disadvantage of OPV?

It can sometimes revert to a virulent form and cause vaccine-induced polio.

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ame two types of COVID-19 vaccines.

mRNA vaccines (e.g., Pfizer, Moderna) and viral vector vaccines (e.g., AstraZeneca).

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What is a rare side effect of mRNA COVID-19 vaccines?

Myocarditis

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What are live attenuated vaccines?

Vaccines containing a weakened but live version of the pathogen.

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Give an example of a live attenuated vaccine.

Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR) vaccine.

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What is a major disadvantage of live attenuated vaccines?

They can cause disease in immunocompromised individuals.

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What are inactivated vaccines?

Vaccines containing killed pathogens that cannot replicate.

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Give an example of an inactivated vaccine.

Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV).

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What is a disadvantage of inactivated vaccines?

They often require booster doses to maintain immunity.

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What is a subunit vaccine?

A vaccine that contains only specific antigens from the pathogen.

Give an example of a subunit vaccine.

Hepatitis B vaccine.

What is a toxoid vaccine?

A vaccine that contains inactivated bacterial toxins.

Give an example of a toxoid vaccine.

Tetanus vaccine.

What year was smallpox declared eradicated?

1980.

What factors contributed to smallpox eradication?

No animal reservoir No subclinical infections Lifelong immunity from vaccination

What is the herd immunity threshold for measles?

95% vaccine coverage.

What is the herd immunity threshold for COVID-19?

Estimated between 60-80%.

Give an example of a vaccine containing an adjuvant.

The Hepatitis B vaccine contains aluminium salts as an adjuvant.

Who was the first person to develop a vaccine?

Edward Jenner in 1796, for smallpox.

What is herd immunity?

When enough people are vaccinated to stop disease spread, protecting those who can't be vaccinated.

Why do some people hesitate to get vaccinated?

Concerns about safety, misinformation, or personal beliefs.

What is vaccine efficacy?

The percentage a vaccine reduces the risk of disease in a controlled study.

What is the difference between vaccine efficacy and effectiveness?

Efficacy is measured in studies, while effectiveness is how well it works in real life.

What is vaccine hesitancy?

Reluctance or refusal to vaccinate despite vaccine availability.

How can vaccine hesitancy be reduced?

Through education, addressing fears, and building trust in science.

Why is misinformation about vaccines dangerous?

It can lead to lower vaccination rates and outbreaks of preventable diseases.

At what ages is the 6-in-1 vaccine administered to infants?

8 weeks, 12 weeks, and 16 weeks of age.

Which diseases does the 6-in-1 vaccine protect against?

diphtheria, hepatitis B, Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b), polio, tetanus, and whooping cough

When is the first dose of the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine given to children?

1 year of age.

At what age is the HPV vaccine offered to children?

12 to 13 years

Which vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2 to 15 years?

flu vaccine

At what age is the shingles vaccine first offered to adults?

The shingles vaccine is first offered to adults at 65 years of age if they turned 65 on or after 1 September 2023.

What is the purpose of the MenACWY vaccine given at 14 years of age?

The MenACWY vaccine protects against meningococcal groups A, C, W, and Y diseases.

When is the 4-in-1 pre-school booster vaccine administered? nhs.uk

3 years and 4 months of age.

What vaccines are given to babies at 8 weeks of age?

6-in-1 vaccine, Rotavirus vaccine, MenB vaccine.

When is the second dose of the 6-in-1 vaccine given?

At 12 weeks of age.

Which vaccines are administered at 1 year of age?

Hib/MenC, MMR (1st dose), Pneumococcal (2nd dose), MenB (3rd dose).

When is the second MMR vaccine dose given?

At 3 years and 4 months.

Which vaccine is offered every year to children aged 2 to 15?

The children's flu vaccine.

What vaccine is given to children aged 12 to 13 years?

The HPV vaccine.

Which two vaccines are given at 14 years old?

3-in-1 teenage booster (Td/IPV) and MenACWY vaccine.

What vaccines are offered to adults at age 65?

Flu vaccine, Pneumococcal vaccine, and from 1 Sept 2023, Shingles vaccine.

What vaccine is offered to pregnant women around 20 weeks?

Whooping cough (pertussis) vaccine.

Which groups are recommended to have the COVID-19 vaccine seasonally?

Adults aged 75 and over, people with weakened immune systems, and care home residents.

Who discovered the first vaccine and in what year?

Edward Jenner in 1796, using cowpox to protect against smallpox.

What major vaccine milestone happened in 1980?

Smallpox was declared eradicated worldwide.

Name three tips for successful shared decision-making.

Present options, provide benefit-risk information, and assist based on patient values.

Name two commonly cited benefits of vaccination.

Vaccines save lives and protect future generations.

List two common concerns or criticisms about vaccines.

Vaccines can cause side effects, and some people believe they infringe on personal freedom.

What is 'herd immunity' and why is it important?

It protects those who cannot be vaccinated by reducing disease spread in the community.

What factors shape public opinion on immunisation? 4

Lifestyle, perception of health, trust in institutions, and beliefs about diseases and vaccines.

How do public policies balance individual and group interests?

Policies aim to achieve herd immunity while respecting individual rights, but tensions arise when low perceived risk leads individuals to opt out.

What is the goal of active immunisation?

To induce immunological readiness so a first infection is recognized like a second, involving activation of B and T cells.

How does passive immunisation differ from active immunisation?

Passive immunisation transfers preformed immune mediators (usually antibodies), providing immediate but temporary protection.

What are the two primary benefits of vaccination?

1. Protection of the individual; 2. Protection of the population.

What must be understood to protect individuals via vaccination? 5

Host immunity, pathogen evasion, effector mechanisms, exposure duration, and potential for immune evasion.

What does population-level protection from vaccines require?

Understanding disease epidemiology and modes of transmission.

Name four diseases treated using passive antibody transfer.

Tetanus, gangrene, hepatitis B, rabies.

What are two sources of maternal antibodies?

Placental IgG and colostral IgA.

What are the two major categories of vaccines?

Live (attenuated) vaccines and non-living (inactivated or subunit) vaccines.

Give two examples of artificially attenuated live vaccines.

Measles, oral polio vaccine.

What is a subunit vaccine and give an example.

A vaccine made from antigenic components, e.g., DTP (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis).

What is the purpose of adjuvants in vaccines?

To enhance immune responses by inducing inflammation, mimicking microbial signals, or creating antigen depots.

Name two licensed adjuvants.

AS04 (used in HPV and HepB vaccines), MF59 (used in flu vaccines).

What type of virus is poliovirus?

A small, positive-sense single-stranded RNA virus.

What are the two types of polio vaccines?

Inactivated (Salk, 1955) and attenuated oral vaccine (Sabin, 1959).

What are the advantages of the inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)?

No risk of poliomyelitis, safe for immunocompromised, good stability.

What are the advantages of the live oral polio vaccine (OPV)?

Induces gut immunity, lifelong protection, can indirectly immunise others.

What HPV types are targeted by Gardasil?

HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18.

How long is HPV vaccine protection expected to last?

Approximately 10 years.

What is the structure of SARS-CoV-2?

A positive-sense single-stranded RNA virus

What key protein does SARS-CoV-2 use to enter human cells?

The spike (S) protein, binding to ACE2 receptors.

How many types of Sabin oral polio vaccines are there and how do they differ?

Three types — Type 1 has 57 bp substitutions; Types 2 and 3 have two significant bp substitutions.

What issue occurred with the Type 2 OPV in Haiti and the Dominican Republic?

A polio outbreak due to genetic reversion of the attenuated virus to a virulent form.

What is the M. bovis BCG vaccine used for?

It is used to protect against TB meningitis, especially in newborns.

What is a limitation of the BCG vaccine?

Its efficacy varies in adults and across different geographical regions.

How does combining the MMR vaccine doses improve protection?

Combining reduces the number of injections from 6 to 2, improving uptake and overall protection.

Vaccinations Flashcards

(92 cards)