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CLINICAL BACTERIOLOGY > enterobacteriaceae > Flashcards

enterobacteriaceae Flashcards

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1
Q

● Enterics
● Gram-negative bacilli
● Facultative anaerobes

A

enterobacteriaceae

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2
Q

All species ferment glucose with the product of acid or acid and gas

A

enterobacteriaceae

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3
Q

All are motiles at 35
oC with peritrichous flagella

A

enterobacteriaceae

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4
Q

Catalase positive
- except for ___ type 1, which is
catalase-negative

A

Shigella dysenteriae

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5
Q

Oxidase negative
- except for ___

A

Plesiomonas

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6
Q

Non encapsulated
- except for ___ and ____

A

Klebsiella and Enterobacter

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7
Q

Reduce nitrate to nitrites
- except for ____ and ___

A

Photorhabdus and Xenorrhabdus

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8
Q

Most are commensal of the GI tract
- except for 3

A

Plesiomonas, Salmonella, Shigella,
and Yersinia

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9
Q

may grow at 1
oC to 5 oC

A

Serratia and Yersinia

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10
Q

They do not produce cytochrome oxidase
- except for

A

Plesiomonas

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11
Q

e, coli, citrobacter, klebciella. enterobacter

A

lactose fermenter

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12
Q

salmonella, shigella, proteus, yersinia

A

non lactone fermenter

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13
Q

most imoortant media for lf and nonlf

A
  • MacConkey agar
  • Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar
  • Salmonella Shigella (SS) agar
  • Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) agar
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14
Q

The most important media used to
differentiate these two classifications is the
___, with a pink colony
appearance when lactose is fermented and a
colorless colony appearance in non-lactose
fermenting organisms.

A

MacConkey agar

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15
Q

– this is a heat-stable
antigen located on the cell wall.

A

o antigen (somatic antigen)

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16
Q

this is a heat-labile
antigen found on the surface of flagella, structures
responsible for motility.

A

● H antigen (flagellar antigen)

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17
Q

– this this is a
heat-labile polysaccharide found only in certain
encapsulated species

A

K antigen (capsular antigen)

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18
Q

indicator for TSI or triple sugar iron agar

A

phenol red

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19
Q

TSI = ALK/ALK or K/K, color red tube slant and butt means?

A

no fermentation

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20
Q

Alkaline slant/acid butt or K/A, red/yellow

A

an indicative of glucose
fermentation only.

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21
Q

Acid/acid, Yellow/Yellow, A/A

A

. Lactose (or sucrose or both) fermentation

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22
Q

blackening of the medium
- Blackening of the medium occurs in the
presence of H2S or hydrogen sulfide

A

H2S production

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23
Q

formation of bubbles or splitting of the medium
from the bottom of the tube
- Bubbles or splitting in the agar indicates a
production of gas.

A

Gas production (aerogenic) or no gas
production (nonaerogenic)

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24
Q

IMViC reactions are a set of four useful reactions
what does IMVic stands for

A

● Indole Test
● Methyl Red Test
● Voges-Proskauer Test
● Citrate Utilization Test

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25
Tryptophan Indole reacts with the aldehyde in the reagent to givea red color reaction. An alcoholic layerconcentrates the red color as a red ring at the top.
INDOLE TEST
26
red color after addition of MR pH indicator
METHYL RED TEST
27
It measure the production of ACETOIN after the addition of α-naphthol (catalyst or color intensifier) followed by 40% KOH or NaOH ● Acetoin then oxidized into diacetyl 2,3-Butanediol ● Positive reaction – red complex
VOGES-PROSKAUER TEST
28
It determines whether an organism can use sodium citrate as a sole carbon source ● Medium used – Simmons’ Citrate Medium (SCA) – routinely used
CITRATE UTILIZATION TEST
29
are the nitrogen source in the medium and utilization of these salts results in the release of ammonia, causing a pH change for citrate utilization test
Ammonium salts
30
pH indicator for citrate utilization test, with a blue positive result
bromothymol blue
31
Determines whether an organism has the ability to reduce nitrate to nitrite positive reaction turns red
Nitrate Reduction Test
32
Differentiates Enterobacteriaceae (oxidase-negative) from pleisiomonas (oxidase-positive)
Oxidase Test
33
Determines the presence of the cytochrome oxidase system that oxidizes reduced cytochrome with molecular oxygen Positive reaction - purple or lavender color
Oxidase Test
34
Determines whether a microorganism can hydrolyze urea (by the action of urease enzyme), releasing a sufficient amount of ammonia to produce a color change by a pH indicator
Urease Test
35
pH indicator for urease test
- phenol red
36
Positive reaction for urease test
pink color
37
urease test primarily distinguisded genus__ from other enteric bacteria
proteus
38
indicator for h2s, hydrogen sulfide production
ferrous sulfate
39
lysine positive
salmonella
40
lysine negative
citrobacter
41
pH indicator for LIA
bromocresol purple
42
lysine deamination results to a what color slant?
red slant R/x
43
lysine decarboxylation results to a what color but ?
purple butt x/K
44
negative in decarb positive in deamine
R/A
45
positive both
K/R
46
, the most significant species in the genus Escherichia
● E. coli
47
Strain of E. coli that is considered as the most common cause of UTIs in humans
Uropathogenic E. coli (UPEC)
48
Associated with diarrhea of adults and especially children in tropical and subtropical climates ● It is the most common cause of diarrheal disease
Enterotoxigenic E. coli
49
“traveler’s diarrhea”
Enterotoxigenic E. coli
50
Produce a heat-stable toxin (ST) or a heat-labile toxin (LT) or both
Enterotoxigenic E. coli
51
Causes “infantile diarrhea”
Enteropathogenic E. coli
52
Stool contains large amount of mucus, no blood present
Enteropathogenic E. coli
53
Produce dysentery with direct penetration, invasion, and destruction of the intestinal mucosa
Enteroinvasive E. col
54
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
Associated with hemorrhagic diarrhea and HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome)
55
Watery diarrhea - Bloody diarrhea with abdominal cramps, low grade fever or an absence of fever
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
56
Processed meats (undercooked hamburgers), unpasteurized dairy products, apple cider, bean sprouts and spinach, all have been implicated in the spread of infection
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
57
Shiga-like toxins)
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
58
Cause of diarrhea in HIV positive patients
. EAEC Enteroaggregative E. coli
59
UTIs and diarrheal disease - Cystitis in children and acute pyelonephritis in pregnant women - Chronic or recurring UTIs
DAECs Diffusely Adherent E. coli
60
virulence factor associated with neonatal meningeal infections
K1 capsular antigen
61
All are MR- and VP+ - All give a negative reaction with the methyl red test and a positive reaction with the Voges-Proskauer test.
KLEBSIELLA
62
The absence of motility distinguishes ____ spp. from most other members of the family Enterobacteriaceae.
Klebsiella
63
is the most commonly isolated species and has the distinct feature of possessing a large polysaccharide capsule.
K. pneumoniae
64
Responsible for the moist, mucoid colonies characteristic of___ on MAC
K. pneumoniae
65
Linked to antimicrobial-associated hemorrhagic colitis ● Identical to K. pneumoniae except for its production of indole, and there are reports of ornithine-positive isolates as well
K. oxytoca
66
. pneumoniae subsp. ozaenae
Causes atrophic rhinitis - a tissue-destructive disease restricted to the nose
67
an infection of the nasal cavity that manifests as an intense swelling and malformation of the entire face and neck
K. pneumoniae subsp. rhinoscleromatis
68
Composed of only one specie: H. alvei
hafnia
69
“Burnt chocolate” odor ● Proximal kidney tubules – A
PROTEUS

CLINICAL BACTERIOLOGY (18 decks)

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