Equine Reproductive Failures Flashcards

(85 cards)

1
Q

When does the highest pregnancy loss occur?

A

within the first 14 days

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2
Q

Why is there an increased pregnancy loss rate in older mares?

A

More likely to produce defective oocytes

Lack of oocytes reaching oviducts

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3
Q

What happens when early embryonic death occurs before maternal recognition of pregnancy?

A

Normal inter-oestrus interval

EED unsuspected

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4
Q

What is the suspect cause of EED?

A

Low P4

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5
Q

What is the normal growth rate of an embryo (mm/day)?

A

3mm/day

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6
Q

After how many days does the embryo fix at the base of the uterine horn?

A

16 days

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7
Q

When is heartbeat check done?

A

28 days

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8
Q

What should you do if the embryo is not progressing and does not look good after rechecking?

A

Abort

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9
Q

What vesicle size indicates that there is an abnormalilty?

A

Small vesicle

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10
Q

A continued mobility of vesicle upon ultrasound indicates what?

A

Abnormal development

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11
Q

Name the 5 things to check upon embryo assessment

A
  1. Size of vesicle
  2. Mobility of vesicle
  3. Fluid presence surrounding vesicle
  4. Appearance of conceptus
  5. Heart beat
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12
Q

Is fluid surrounding the vesicle normal? What does it indicate?

A

No. Endometrial oedema

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13
Q

What two things should you do if a lymphatic cyst is discovered upon ultrasound?

A
  1. Map out location

2. Determine size of cyst

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14
Q

Name the 3 methods of cyst ablation

A
  1. Mechanical removal
  2. Puncture and aspirate
  3. Laser therapy
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15
Q

What is the incidence rate of abortion?

A

5-15%

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16
Q

Abortion is the _____ of the pregnancy before the foetus is capable of _____ life

A

Abortion is the termination of pregnancy before the foetus is capable of extrauterine life.

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17
Q

What 3 infectious agents are associated with abortion storms?

A
  1. Equine herpes virus type 1
  2. Equine herpes virus type 3
  3. Mare Reproductive Failure Syndrome
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18
Q

What must you be careful of when handling the foetus/foetal membranes?

A

Infectious agents - disinfect

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19
Q

What are the 4 routes of transmission for Equine Herpes Virus?

A
  1. Transplacental
  2. Aerosol
  3. Nasal mucosa
  4. Aborted foetus
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20
Q

How can a mare pass EHV to her unborn foal?

A

Transplacental transmission

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21
Q

What % of abortions are caused by EHV?

A

10-15%

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22
Q

What type of EHV is associated with respiratory disease?

A

EHV 1

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23
Q

What two breeds have the highest prevalence of Equine Viral Arteritis?

A

Standardbreds and warmbloods

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24
Q

Is the mare or the stallion the carrier for Equine Viral Arteritis?

A

Stallion

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25
Natural infection stimulates strong long lasting immunity in which virus?
EVA (Equine Viral Arteritis)
26
What insect causes Mare Reproductive Loss Syndrome?
Eastern tent caterpillar
27
What insect causes Equine Amnionitis and fetal loss (EAFL) in Australia?
Processionary caterpillar
28
Why does caterpillar ingestion cause abortions?
Exoskeleton/hairs
29
What bacterium is carried by birds?
Chlamydia psittaci
30
Taylorella equigenitalis is responsible for what disease?
Contagious equine metritis
31
What disease causes a shortened dioestrus in mares?
Contagious equine metritis
32
What are the 3 swab sites from the stallion that are used to diagnose contagious equine metritis?
1. Urethra 2. Urethral fossa 3. Penile sheath
33
What are the 2 swab sites from the mare that are used to culture and diagnose contagious equine metritis?
1. Clitoral fossa | 2. Clitoral sinuses
34
Which diagnostic method for contagious equine metritis is the most reliable?
PCR
35
What is the incidence rate of placentitis?
3-7%
36
What is the most common type of placentitis?
Ascending
37
What are the 3 aetiologies of placentitis?
1. Pathogenic 2. Haematogenous 3. Nocardioform
38
What is the normal foetal heart rate before day 160 of gestation?
160 BPM
39
What is the best method to diagnose twins?
Transrectal ultrasound
40
How many days post ovulation is an ultrasound done?
14-15 days
41
What 2 things do you check for in a transrectal ultrasound?
1. Check ovaries | 2. Count CLs
42
How many days post OV does fixation of the embryo occur?
16 days
43
Where does fixation occur?
Base of the uterine horn
44
What is the best method of removing an embryo pre-fixation?
Embryonic crushing
45
If the embryos are bilateral during post fixation phase, what is the best method of twin management up to day 35?
Embryonic crush
46
If the embryos are unilateral during post fixation phase, what is the best management methods up to day 35?
Recheck in a couple of days
47
Which breeds have the highest risk of multiple ovulations?
TB, draught horses, quarter horses and standardbreds
48
Mares are very efficient at reducing twins to a single pregnancy. True/False?
True
49
What is the most common form of twin pregnancy?
Unicornial
50
What is a diagnostic method used to detect foetal heart beat?
Colour doppler
51
What is one twin management method during post fixation that can be done prior to day 35?
Transvaginal ultrasound guided aspiration
52
What procedures can be done to remove a twin pregnancy after the endometrial cups form during the post fixation phase (>35 days)
Cranio-cervical dislocation | Transcutaneous foetal injection
53
After how many days post OV can a transcutaneous foetal injection be carried out?
>100 days
54
What is the normal length of an umbilical cord?
<80cm
55
How many twists indicate a torsion?
>12 twists
56
What are the 4 things you should first check when a mare is not cycling?
1. Spring transition 2. Pregnancy 3. Ovarian abnormalities 4. Developmental abnormalities
57
What is the normal karyotype in mares?
64XX
58
What diagnosis can be used to determine chromosomal abnormalities?
History Physical examination Blood sample for karyotyping
59
What are the signs of a granulosa cell tumors in mares?
Stallion like behaviour | Anestrus
60
What 3 diagnostic methods can be used to determine a GCT?
1. Palpation 2. US 3. Hormones
61
What is the hallmark hormone test for granulosa cell tumor?
Anti-mullerian hormone (AMH)
62
What is the preferred method of resolving a granulosa cell tumor?
Surgical removal of ovary
63
What are the two types of anovulatory follicles?
1. Hemorrhagic anovulatory follicle | 2. Persistent anovulatory follicle
64
What does HAF stand for?
Hemorrhagic anovulatory follicle
65
What does PAF stand for?
Persistent anovulatory follicle
66
During what time of year are anovulatory follicles more persistant?
Autumn
67
What are 4 contributing factors to the 'problem mare'?
1. Not being able to carry a foal to term 2. Know reproductive pathology 3. Behavioural issues related to reproduction 4. Not becoming pregnant after being bred to a fertile stallion over 3 oestrus cycles
68
What are the 3 most common reproductive abnormalities in a mare?
1. Failure to ovulate 2. Bacterial endometritis 3. Persistent post mating endometritis
69
What are 3 contributing factors to Persistent post mating endometritis (PMIE)?
1. Poor lymphatic drainage 2. Poor conformation 3. Poor contractions
70
Poor c_____, poor c_______ and poor l______ are all contributing factors to PMIE
Poor contractions, poor conformation and poor lymphatics are all contributing factors to PMIE
71
What are 3 ecbolic treatment methods for PMIE?
1. Oxytocin 2. Prostaglandin 3. Uterine lavage
72
What 2 things should be minimised to help manage PMIE?
1. Uterine contamination | 2. Number of breedings
73
What are the 3 seals that protect the mares genital tract?
1. Vulvar seal 2. Vestibulovaginal seal 3. Cervix
74
The vulvar lips should be evenly ____ and ____ orientated.
The vulvar lips should be evenly closed and vertically orientated
75
What fraction of the vulvar should be distal to the level of the ischial arch?
2/3
76
H______, S____, P____ ___ and C___ ____ should be taken into account when forming a diagnosis for a mare.
History, signs, physical exam and common pathogens should be taken into account when forming a diagnosis for a mare.
77
What number of neutrophils/high power field indicate active inflammation in a mare's uterine cytology?
1-2 NTP/hpf
78
What number of neutrophils/high power field indicates moderate-severe inflammation?
>5 NTP/hpf
79
What is the gold standard test for endometritis?
Endometrial biopsy
80
C___ s___, u____ e____ s____ and r___ c___ d___ are all procedures which correct the damaged physical barrier in a case of physometra.
Caslick's surgery, urethral extension surgery and repairing cervical damage are all procedures which correct the damaged physical barrier in a case of physometra.
81
Name 3 disinfectants that can be used to treat endometritis.
1. Iodine solution 2. Acetic acid/vinegar 3. Hydrogen peroxide
82
What disinfectant is NOT suitable for use to treat endometritis?
Chlorhexidine
83
What 3 chelators can be used to treat endometritis?
1. EDTA-tris 2. N-acetylcysteine 3. DMSO solutions
84
What do chelators do?
Break down biofilms of pathogens
85
Name 3 antifungal agents that can be used to treat endometritis.
1. Nystatin 2. Clotrimazole 3. Fluconazole