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0

Billy Bob was found to have set fire to Brunswick Elementary School. He would likely be charged with:

a. 844(i)
b. 844(f)
c. 922(g)
d. 844(h)

b. 844(f)

An elementary school is an organization receiving federal financial assistance. Other examples would be universities, hospitals, police departments, etc.

1

Billy Bob set fire to Brunswick Elementary School and as a result, ended up injuring a firefighter who responded to the scene. Upon prosecution for 844(f), Billy Bob's sentence would be no less than _______ years in prison

a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. 20

b. 7

Penalties for 844(f):
- Not less than 5 years
- With injury - not less than 7 years
- with death - not less than 20, up to life

2

According to ATF Order 3320.1D, ATF Management is permitted to release certain information to insurance companies to help them settle claims. Which of the following is an example of information they CANNOT give?

a. Opinions on nature of the fire
b. Depleted inventories
c. Tax information
d. Laboratory reports

c. Tax information

Also cannot release:
- informant identities
- investigative procedures
- grand jury info

3

Which rule under the Privacy Act of 1974 allows ATF to release certain information to insurance companies regarding claims for arsons ATF is investigating?

a. Number 4
b. Number 5
c. Number 6
d. Number 7

d. Number 7

4

The statute that states it's illegal to intentionally damage or destroy a religious property because of the race, color or ethnic characteristic of any person associated with that property is:

a. 247(a)
b. 247(c)
c. 844(i)
d. 844(h)

b. 247(c)

247(a) is intentionally damaging a religious property used in or affecting interstate commerce because of the religious character of the property.

5

Which of the following is not one of ATF's policies regarding reverse stings?

a. No arrest until suspect approaches target building
b. Building to be burned must be owned by ATF or have written consent from outside owner
c. Suspect may never be allowed in the building
d. Suspect not told location of building to be burned until ATF is prepared to conduct 24 hour surveillance of suspect and location to be burned

b. Building to be burned must be owned by ATF or have written consent from outside owner

6

When an ATF agent plays the part of a business person who wants his or her property torched, this is referred to as a:

a. Sting
b. Ruse
c. Reverse sting
d. Solicitation

c. Reverse sting

7

When charging someone for 844(i), attempt, as part of a sting operation, what must ATF agents prove?

a. The business was used in interstate or foreign commerce
b. The business was property of the United States
c. The operation is racially or religiously motivated
d. The suspect made a substantial step in trying to commit the arson

d. The suspect made a substantial step in trying to commit the arson

ATF must prove the suspect made a substantial step in trying to commit the arson. Evidence demonstrating this would be:
- meeting with the UC
- admissions demonstrating his/her motive
- show the UC the property to be burned
- setting a date for the arson
- giving the UC a down payment
- giving the UC a copy of the insurance contract

8

On the tip of a CI, an undercover ATF agent responded to an ambiguous Craig's List ad seeking a consultant to help him "bury his competition." The ATF agent and business owner exchanged emails, and eventually met at which point the business owner show the agents a movie of the premises he wanted destroyed and gave them a down payment. At this point, the business owner could be charged with:

a. 18 USC 373, Solicitation
b. 18 USC 844(i), attempt
c. Both a & b
d. Nothing

b. 18 USC 844(i), attempt

The meeting with the agent, showing of the movie, and down payment all signify a substantial step made to attempt and move it from solicitation to attempt.

If an attempt occurs, the solicitation statute merges with the attempt statute, and therefore the prosecution would only charge the attempt statute.

9

True/False

A business owner in Atlanta, GA torches a would be competing restaurant weeks before it was set to open. Despite having ordered and received supplies from an out of state wholesaler, the suspect could not be charged with 844(i) since the victim business had not opened and was not being used in commerce.

False

Key language of the statute is "any property currently used or INTENDED TO BE USED in interstate or foreign commerce"

10

Which of these is an example of an arson location where you would likely be able to charge 844(f), arson of federal property, and 844(i), arson of property used in interstate commerce?

a. Brunswick High School
b. Joe's All American Grill
c. Brunswick Church
d. University of Georgia

d. University of Georgia

Colleges are in the business of providing educational services, with out of state advertising resulting in a large number of out of state students. This gives them interstate commerce (along with "organization receiving Federal financial assistance" like other educational facilities) which public grammar, middle, and high schools don't have. Those schools would only bring a 844(f) charge.

11

True/False

An arson of a permanently closed fitness center, not listed for sale or rent at the time of the fire, could still be charged with 844(i), arson of a business property

False

It is not involved in commerce if it's not making money or actively being sold.

12

An arson is committed on a vacant, uninhabitable rental house that the owner had no intention of renting by the owner. The owner filed a false proof of loss claim with his insurance company using U.S. Mail. He could be charged with:

a. 844(h) to commit 1341, mail fraud
b. 844(i), arson of a business property
c. Both a & b
d. Both a & b if the property had previously been rented out

a. 844(h) to commit 1341, mail fraud

Since the property was vacant and the owner showed no intent on renting or selling, you couldn't charge it as a business property.

13

When charging 844(i), arson of a business property, or 844(f), arson of a federal property, the key element the government must prove is:

a. Interstate commerce
b. Two or more persons were involved
c. Malicious intent
d. Violation of civil rights

c. Malicious intent

14

True/False

During a riot following a WVU victory over Baylor, an opportunistic Morgantown, WV business owner used the local rioters as an excuse to use aMolotov cocktail to burn down his fledgling business in hopes of obtaining insurance funds.

If charged, he would be guilty of 924(c), using a Molotov cocktail to commit federal arson crimes.

False

The definition of crime of violence in 924(c)(3) uses the term "...against the person or property of another." So you can't commit 924(c) on yourself.

He could be charged with NFA, 844(i), 844(h) - 1343. He could also be charged with 924(c) if he had a co-owner.

15

Which of these is NOT a typical example of how the government proves a suspect knew the fire was going to occur?

a. No pictures on the wall
b. Fire occurred during the suspects vacation
c. No forced entry
d. Fire/burglary alarms turned off

b. Fire occurred during the suspects vacation

Other indicators:
- recent increase in insurance coverage
- old clothing replacing new clothing
- valuables missing
- pets normally present were removed

16

The most common motive for committing arson is:

a. Revenge
b. Defraud insurance company
c. Hatred of religion
d. Covering up other crimes

b. Defraud insurance company

17

If fire investigators arrive on a scene after firefighters have exited:

a. The investigators are free to enter
b. The investigators are free to enter if there's reasonable suspicion an arson was committed
c. The investigators must enter through consent or an inspection warrant
d. The investigators cannot enter

c. The investigators must enter through consent or an inspection warrant

18

If investigators respond to a fire contained to a kitchen of a restaurant and it is determined that arson was the cause, what do investigators have to do to search REP areas not affected by the arson?

a. They can search as long as firefighters are still present
b. Nothing, they have probable cause
c. They must obtain consent or a search warrant
d. They must obtain an inspection warrant

c. They must obtain consent or a search warrant

19

When firefighters remain on the premises after already extinguishing the fire to prevent rekindling and damage to property, this is known as:

a. Spoliation
b. Inventory
c. Excavation
d. Overhaul

d. Overhaul

During this time, investigators are allowed on scene to determine origin and cause

20

True/False

According to ATF Order 3320.10D, ATF management must contact the prosecuting attorney prior to releasing information to insurance companies regarding an arson under investigation?

True

21

True/False

According to 18 USC 846 (ATF inspection authority at explosion scenes), ATF is authorized to inspect site of ANY accident or fire in which there is reason to believe that explosive materials were used

True

In order to carry out, they are authorized to enter into any proper where explosive materials have been used or are suspected of being used, or have been found in an otherwise unauthorized location

22

When firefighters leave the scene of a fire, exigency ceases. What must investigators do at this time?

a. acquire consent or a search warrant if they want to stay
b. they can stay if there's probable cause an arson was committed
c. they can stay for a reasonable amount of time
d. Obtain an inspection warrant

c. they can stay for a reasonable amount of time

23

True/False

Even if damage is so severe as to eliminate any REP, investigators must obtain consent or a search warrant to search the premises

False

24

True/False

According to Rule 404(b), evidence of other crimes are admissible in court for arson to prove motive, intent, and opportunity.

True

Can also be used to prove preparation, plan, knowledge, identity, or absence of mistake.

Examples of crimes that could be used:
- previous false insurance claims
- previous arsons or bombings
- previous hostility towards victim
- other crimes being covered up

25

Which of these is not a service offered by the Criminal Investigative Analysis Program (CIAP)?

a. Profiling
b. Origin and cause determinations
c. Interviewing/negotiation strategies
d. Statement analysis

b. Origin and cause determinations

26

Which of these is not an example of something that may be included as part of a profile?

a. Education level
b. Hair color
c. Race
d. Socioeconomic status

b. Hair color

Others:
- sex
- age
- employment history
- physical and mental health history
- psycho-sexual issues
- personal habits/lifestyle/relationships
- residence/anchor point

27

ATF's 8 page questionnaire VIEW (Verbal Inquiry - Effective Witness) is designed to do all but:

a. Eliminate truthful suspects
b. Allow investigators to focus on likely guilty suspects
c. Determine the type of threat a person poses
d. quickly mine the information of a large number of potential witnesses

c. Determine the type of threat a person poses

28

Statement analysis is done mostly because:

a. Lying is difficult for humans
b. People don't always lie, they just don't tell everything
c. Truthful statements come from memory
d. All of the above

D. All of the above

Also:
- people's language will betray them

29

The Test for Pronouns when analyzing a written statement is done primarily to:

a. Detect deception
b. Detect associates that may be left out
c. Understand a person's psychological behavior
d. Both a & b

d. Both a & b

30

Signs of veracity or truthfulness in statement analysis includes:

a. Lack of the pronoun "I"
b. Non-committal language
c. Sensory details
d. Present tense

c. Sensory details

Full list:
- use of the pronoun "I"
- active tense
- committal language
- past tense
- sensory details
- spatial details

*minor inconsistencies are ok

31

In a threat assessment, assessing the level of risk for the threat being carried out as well as developing a psycho/sociolinguistic profile of the subject would be done for:

a. An unknown threat
b. A known threat
c. A serious threat
d. Both a & b

A. An unknown threat

For a known threat, you simply assess the actual potential for his/her acting out violently

32

Anchor points are:

a. Components of the suspects statement that are suspicious
b. Components of the suspects statement that are truthful
c. The most significant places in a person's spatial life
d. Areas you can rule out of an investigation

c. The most significant places in a person's spatial life

Examples:
- home
- work
- recreation spots
- former residences
- other family members homes

33

A geographic profiler will analyze an offenders target selection and "hunting behaviors." These behaviors are particular useful in:

a. Sexual homicides
b. Serial arsons
c. Robbery
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Also includes:
- burglary
- bombings

34

The actions an offender takes to successfully commit his crime and escape undetected are referred to as his:

a. Rituals
b. Signature
c. Modus Operandi (MO)
d. Staging

c. Modus Operandi (MO)

35

Behaviors that are unnecessary to the commission of the crime or to the offender escaping are referred to as:

a. Modus Operandi (MO)
b. Signature
c. Staging
d. Rituals

d. Rituals

36

The unique combination of MO and ritual that is observed over a series of crimes is referred to as the offenders:

a. Calling card
b. Signature
c. Moniker
d. Gimmick

b. Signature

37

Behavior where the offender intentionally manipulates or alters a crime scene for the purpose of misdirecting the investigation and/or diverting the attention away is referred to as

a. Bluffing
b. Diverting
c. Staging
d. Ritual

c. Staging

38

Examining patterns for time of day, day of week, etc. of a criminal series is referred to as

a. Temporal analysis
b. Spatial analysis
c. Daily analysis
d. Material analysis

a. Temporal analysis

39

The common arson motive described as a crime of opportunity where the arsonist sets unsophisticated fires simply "because they can" is referred to as

a. Excitement
b. Crime concealment
c. Vandalism
d. Recognition

c. Vandalism

40

The profile of ____________ motivated arsonists includes someone who doesn't typically remove items from the scene, but opts to stick around and observe after the fact. They also opt for larger structures for greater damage, but don't follow the case in the media.

a. Vandalism
b. Excitement
c. Revenge
d. Extremist

d. Extremist

41

The most common sub category of the excitement motive for arsons is:

a. Thrills
b. Recognition
c. Attention
d. Sexual

a. Thrills

Thrills (68%)
Recognition (16%)
Attention (16%)
Sexual (>1%)

42

The single most dangerous fire setter is the one motivated by:

a. Institutional revenge
b. Group revenge
c. Personal revenge
d. Societal revenge

d. Societal revenge

Because the target is indiscriminate with no regard for loss of life or property. They're "mad at the world" so everyone is fair game.

43

The key to solving an arson for profit case is:

a. Insurance records
b. Establishing motive and opportunity
c. The quality of interview
d. The CFIs determination

c. The quality of interview

Offenders perceived need, in order to give appearance of having nothing to hide, is to be cooperative throughout investigation and a savvy investigator can trap them in lies.

44

Offenders who often communicate with the media and authorities and claim responsibility are characterized in which of these arson motives?

a. Excitement
b. Extremist
c. Revenge
d. Vandalism

b. Extremist

45

Serial arsonists are classified by _________ or more fires set in separate locations with a significant cooling off period in between

a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five

b. Three

46

Which of these are all common characteristics of an organized crime scene?

a. Presence of ignition system, effort required for access, severity planned
b. presence of ignition system, random targets, impulsive
c. Open flame, available materials, severity planned
d. Open flame, severity unplanned, limited mobility

a. Presence of ignition system, effort required for access, severity planned

Organized crime scene:
- presence of ignition system
- preparation evident
- ignition location not readily accessible
- severity planned
- effort required for access
- unlimited mobility

47

True/False

Pyromania has been described as an "uncontrollable impulse" and studies show that most arsonists are pyromaniacs and unable to control the impulses

False

Offenders appear quite capable of controlling the impulse but choose not to unless risk of detection and arrest outweighs desires.

48

Arsons that are clearly explainable in terms of some immediate rational gain to the offenders are categorized as ____________ motives

a. Logical
b. Expressive
c. Instrumental
d. Common

a. Instrumental

49

Arsons that demonstrate an emotional or psychological gratification rather than a tangible need are described as ______________ motives

a. Instrumental
b. Mental
c. Impulsive
d. Expressive

d. Expressive

50

Those who use bombs for sinister purposes are refereed to as __________ bombers

a. Benevolent
b. Experimenter
c. Egotistical
d. Malevolent

d. Malevolent

Other type:

Experimenters: those who manufacture and employ improvised explosive mixtures and devices out of sheer curiosity

51

True/False

Of the two bomber typologies (experimenters and malevolent), the experimenters bomb scene will display a higher degree of organization than the malevolent bomber.

False

That describes the malevolent bomber.

52

An underachiever who displays an inflated sense of his own intelligence and uses his bomb making ability as a means of showing his "superiority" is a ___________ bombers

a. Experimental
b. Benevolent
c. Malevolent
d. Egotistical

c. Experimental

53

True/False

Explosives that have been stolen or purchased are likely to be more sophisticated than those that were readily available or improvised

True

More organized or sophisticated bombers are likely to have a better source of supply by either stealing or purchasing commercial military, or improvised explosives.

Disorganized bombers are more likely to throw something together using combinations of ammunition propellants or explosives from fireworks.

54

Uses for physical evidence and laboratory analyses in arsons includes each of these except:

a. Collecting additional circumstantial evidence
b. Corroborating an incendiary cause
c. Associating a suspect with a fire
d. Ascertaining a motive

a. Collecting additional circumstantial evidence

55

Burn patterns, electronic sniffers and canines are all used to identify:

a. Suspects
b. Motive
c. Origin and cause
d. Accelerants

d. Accelerants

56

Accelerant residues carried from one scene to another via personnel or equipment would be an example of __________ contamination

a. Cross-case
b. Cross-scene
c. Cross-source
d. Kris Kross

b. Cross-scene

57

Improper storage or packaging may lead to which type of contamination?

a. Cross-Case
b. Contamination from another source to a scene
d. Cross-scene
d. Partial

a. Cross-case

58

Which of these would be an example of contamination from one source to another?

a. Boots not being decontaminated from one scene to another
b. Using a previously used can to package debris from a scene
c. A CFI not washing his hands after using the bathroom
d. A CFI stopping at a gas station on his way to a scene and spilling gas on his pants and boots

d. A CFI stopping at a gas station on his way to a scene and spilling gas on his pants and boots

59

Which of these is never allowed on a fire scene?

a. Disposable tools
b. Previously used tools
c. Gasoline powered equipment
d. Decontamination line

c. Gasoline powered equipment

*previously used tools should be properly cleaned before entering a scene

60

For evidence of an accelerant identified by a K-9 to be admitted in court:

a. The K-9 must have a proven track record
b. Another K-9 must make the same alert
c. A laboratory must corroborate
d. Agent should use a dye to identify if there is an accelerant present

c. A laboratory must corroborate

61

To be sure that the investigator has collected the exact sample that the canine alerted to, a _____________ line should be used once sample have been removed.

a. Contamination
b. Extermination
c. Comparison
d. Discrimination

d. Discrimination

62

When a suspected ignitable liquid is found, a second sample of the same material where no ignitable liquid or solid accelerant is suspected should be taken. This is known as a ___________ sample

a. Comparison
b. Placebo
c. identical
d. Control

a. Comparison

*used to be referred to as control samples
**not always required! determined by lab

63

When collecting debris samples, you should not fill the can more than:

a. 1/4
b. 1/2
c. 2/3
d. 3/4

c. 2/3

A good sample should fill approximately 1/2 the can, DO NOT fill the can more than 2/3 or the lab will have trouble processing

64

True/False

When packaging a liquid sample, only a small amount of necessary is required; place the liquid in an unused vial and then place the vial in a cushioned can, which should then be properly sealed and labeled

True

65

Which of these is not required to be included on the evidence label?

a. Initials of investigator
b. Investigation number
c. Exhibit number
d. Location in which it was collected

d. Location in which it was collected

Need a, b, c and date it was collected at a minimum

66

True/False

FedEx, UPS, and USPS are all acceptable carriers for shipping hazardous substances

False

Shipping must be provided by a carrier that provides tracking. Under no circumstances should USPS be use

67

Why is it important to ask an owner of a property details about his finances immediately after a fire at his property?

a. Establish a possible motive
b. To share the information with the insurance company
c. You want to lock him into a story to uncover lies after investigating
d. All of the above

c. You want to lock him into a story to uncover lies after investigating

68

Which of these would not be a beneficial record to pull during an arson for profit investigation?

a. Bankruptcy records
b. Credit report
c. Birth certificate
d. Tax returns

c. Birth certificate

Others:

- bank account
- credit cards
- financial statements
- accountant records
- state and local records
- supplier/vendor records

69

Which of these is not among the duties of an FISD forensic auditor?

a. Interviewing
b. Public safety
c. Scene support
d. Document gathering and analysis

b. Public safety

70

True/False

The best way to obtain records from the IRS is through grand jury subpoena

False

IRS will not accept/respond to a grand jury subpoena. Forensic auditors can assist in writing affidavits to present to AUSA who then gets a court order for IRS to release records

71

ATF's most common method of obtaining records after leaving the scene of the fire is through:

a. Ex Parte order
b. Search warrant
c. Interviews
d. Grand jury subpoena

d. Grand jury subpoena

72

True/False

The FISD is organizationally independent from field operations

True

73

The financial investigative authority and body made up of professional accountants/auditors is the _______

a. PRB
b. FISD
c. FTB
d. ETB

b. FISD

74

The main goal for a forensic auditor during an arson and profit investigation is to:

a. Determine financial condition of suspect at time of crime
b. Business and/or financial statement reconstruction
c. Provide litigation services
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Also provide a business valuation for insurance purposes

75

Net worth is:

a. Assets minus liabilities
b. Bank account balance minutes liabilities
c. Liabilities minus assets
d. Assets minus debts

a. Assets minutes liabilities

Aka What is owned minus what is owed

76

True/False

During litigation, an FISD forensic auditor may appear as an expert or summary witness

True

Other roles during litigation:
- develop possible ancillary charges
- review defense expert info
- assist AUSA in trial prep
- testify as rebuttal witness
- asset identification and seizure

77

Which of these is not likely to be the motive in an arson for profit scheme?

a. Insurance premium increasing
b. Medical expenses
c. Revenge
d. Disposing of obsolete inventory

c. Revenge

others:
- greed
- stop further losses
- retirement/quitting
- cover up other financial crimes
- relief from unprofitable contract
- EPA/hazardous material cleanup
- tax issues

78

The role of an underwriter is:

a. Assess damage and determine reimbursement
b. Take and submit the application to the insurance company
c. Determine premiums and whether company will insure the risk
d. Conduct investigation for insurance company

c. Determine premiums and whether company will insure the risk

79

Someone other than the insured who will receive money directly from payment of a claim is referred to as a(n):

a. Underwriter
b. Beneficiary
c. Endorser
d. Loss payee

d. Loss payee

80

Which of these is not an acceptable reason for an insurance company to deny a claim?

a. Insured intentionally misrepresents or conceal material facts or circumstances
b. Loss is caused by an act committed by or at the direction of the insured with intent to cause a loss
c. The insured is under investigation for arson
d. The insured does not cooperate with the insurance company

c. The insured is under investigation for arson

81

The __________________ is responsible for determining the amount of loss.

a. Underwriter
b. Insurance agent
c. Claims adjuster
d. Insurance company investigator

c. Claims adjuster

82

Document the insurance agent completes to notify the insurance company after a claim is made:

a. Notice of loss
b. Binder
c. Proof of loss
d. Actual cash value

a. Notice of loss

83

True/False

Insured is required to cooperate with insurance company to be compensated so they're more likely to cooperate with them than LEOs

True

Important for LEOs to have good working relationship with insurance companies

84

Temporary insurance provided until actual policy is issued is a(n)

a. Endorsement
b. Binder
c. Business interruption funds
d. Replacement cost

b. Binder

85

If denied a claim, the insured is likely to sue the company for breach of contract and bad faith. If the insured is successful, he is rewarded:

a. With the actual cash value of the damages
b. Two times the damages
c. Three times the damages
d. Quadruple the damages

c. Three times the damages

86

The contract between the insurance company and the insured is referred to as the:

a. Underwriting file
b. Claim
c. Policy
d. Declaration sheet

c. Policy

87

For an insurance company to deny a claim they must:

a. Prove it was an incendiary fire
b. Prove Insured had motive and opportunity to commit fire
c. Both a and b
d. Obtain a court order

c. Both a and b

88

The formal claim document sworn to and submitted by the insured to the insurance company is the ___________ form

a. Proof of loss
b. Notice of loss
c. Endorsement
d. Loss payee

a. Proof of loss

89

The purchase price of a product less the depreciation is the:

a. Replacement cost
b. Current cash value
c. Actual cash value
d. Adjusted cash value

c. Actual cash value

90

Agents typically make initial contact with the ____________ when working with an insurance company

a. Underwriter
b. Insurance agent
c. Insurance company investigator
d. Claims adjuster

d. Claims adjuster

91

True/False

Arson immunity laws exist in 48 states

False

All 50 states

92

Which of these is not likely to occur following a claim denial?

a. Insured becomes uninsurable
b. Insured can file a new claim
c. Insured becomes economically devastated
d. Insured receives denial letter

b. Insured can file a new claim

93

The insured must submit a signed and sworn statement of loss within ____ days of an incident:

a. 14
b. 30
c. 60
d. 90

c. 60

94

True/False

An insurance company investigator works hand in hand with the LEO investigating the case

False

Independent investigations

95

True/False

In 1996, it was written into public law that agencies were required to report incidents or arsons and explosives to the ATF

True

96

The organization responsible for collecting, analyzing, and disseminating timely and relevant arson and explosives intelligence products internally and externally to other Federal, State, Local, tribal, military and internal LEOs is the:

a. ETB
b. BATS
c. USBDC
d. FTB

c. USBDC

US Bomb Data Center

97

For an agency to have access to BATS, they must:

a. Apply through the ATF
b. Work in public safety
c. Have an ORI number
d. Investigate arsons or explosives

b. Work in public safety

*ORI number is required for full access

98

True/False

BATS is used in conjunction with N-Force and can't be used on its own as a case management systems

False

BATS can be used as a standalone case management system

99

Fire investigations, bombings, suspicious packages, and accidental explosions would all be classified as ________ in BATS

a. Incidents
b. Activities
c. Crimes
d. Investigations

a. Incidents

100

Which of these would not be considered an "activity" in BATS?

a. Training
b. Code enforcement
c. Bomb/arson threat
d. Certification

c. Bomb/arson threat

101

An item placed or fabricated in an improvised manner incorporating destructive, lethal, noxious, pyrotechnic or incendiary chemicals and designed to destroy, incapacitate, harass, or distract is a(n)

a. Bomb
b. Molotov cocktail
c. IED
d. Nuclear bomb

c. IED

102

Definition: A rapid oxidation process with the evolution of light and heat in varying intensities

a. Bomb
b. Fire tetrahedron
c. Fire
d. Incendiary

c. Fire

103

Which of these is not among the three basic elements of fire?

a. Gasoline
b. Oxygen
c. Fuel
d. Heat

a. Gasoline

104

Which of these is not among the three methods of heat transfer?

a. Convection
b. Radiation
c. Combustion
d. Conduction

c. Combustion

105

Heat transfer to another body or within a body by direct contact is:

a. Convection
b. Combustion
c. Radiation
d. Conduction

d. Conduction

106

Heat transfer by circulation within a medium such as gas or liquid is

a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Combustion
d. Radiation

b. Convection

107

Heat transfer by way of electromagnetic waves is

a. Combustion
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Conduction

c. Radiation

108

Combustion without a flame, usually with incandescence and smoke is

a. Spontaneous
b. Diffusion flame
c. Smoldering
d. Radiation

c. Smoldering

109

Initiation of combustion of a material by an internal chemical or biological that has produced sufficient heat to ignite the material is:

a. Smoldering
b. Spontaneous
c. Conduction
d. Pre-mixed flame

b. Spontaneous

110

A flame in which fuel and air mix together at the region of combustion is a(n) _________ flame

a. Orange
b. Pre-mixed
c. Mixed
d. Diffusion

d. Diffusion

Pre-Mixed Flame: any flame in which the fuel and oxidizer are initially mixed and ignited

111

The phase of fire in which the fire is developing in intensity and beginning to spread is the __________ phase

a. Ignition
b. Growth
c. Fully developed
d. Decay

b. Growth

112

The phase of fire in which fuel and oxygen have been brought together as combustion begins is the ________ phase

a. Ignition
b. Growth
c. Fully developed
d. Decay

a. Ignition

113

The phase of fire in which the fire continues to burn freely is the _________ phase

a. Ignition
b. Growth
c. Fully developed
d. Decay

c. Fully developed

114

The phase of fire in which the fire begins to decline in intensity due to lack of heat, fuel, oxygen and/or the interruption of self-sustained chemical reactions is the _________ phase

a. Ignition
b. Growth
c. Fully developed
d. Decay

d. Decay

115

Flashover occurs in the transition between:

a. Ignition and growth
b. Growth and fully developed
c. Fully developed and decay
d. Can occur during any of the above

b. Growth and fully developed

116

The transition stage in fire development when all combustibles in the room reach ignition temperatures simultaneously is:

a. Spontaneous Combustion
b. Flash point
c. Flashover
d. Fire spread

c. Flashover

117

True/False

Fire spreads by moving downward and outward

False

Upward and outward due to buoyancy of the convective gases forming the fire plume.

They continue to rise until reaching resistance (ceiling) and the accumulation forms a layer which spreads horizontally creating a ceiling jet and spreading the fire

118

The ___________ of a solid, liquid or gas is the characteristics that make them burn differently, with some being more intense than others.

a. Combustion level
b. Composition
c. Fuel load
d. Quality

c. Fuel load

119

Explosions in which a high-pressure gas creates internal pressure within a confining container and produces a purely physical reaction is a(n) ____________ explosion

a. Improvised
b. Mechanical
c. Chemical
d. Physical

b. Mechanical

A common mechanical explosion is BLEVE (boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion), the expansion and subsequent failure of a vessel containing a liquid

120

An explosion occurring upon the ignition of combustible gases, dusts, and/or vapors that result in deflagration, as opposed to detonation is a(n) ___________ explosion

a. Improvised
b. Mechanical
c. Accidental
d. Chemical

d. Chemical

121

Which of these is a competent ignition source?

a. Open flame
b. Hot surface
c. Mechanical spark
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Also, electrical arcs including static electricity

122

The systematic approach to determining origin and cause is the __________ method

a. Religious
b. Mathematical
c. Scientific
d. Locard

c. Scientific

123

Fires are investigated primarily to:

a. Determine if a criminal act has occurred
b. Determine liability or responsibility
c. Determine fire prevention
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Criminal, civil, and public safety concerns

124

Which of these is not a primary duty of an ATF CFI?

a. Determine origin and cause
b. Expert witness in court
c. Investigate suspicious persons
d. Examine fire scene

c. Investigate suspicious persons

125

When a CFI is on a fire scene, the case agent should:

a. Assist him/her with excavation
b. Assist him/her with hypothesis through interviews and investigative leads
c. Stay out of his/her way
d. Both a and b

d. Both a and b

126

When examining a fire scene for origin and cause, investigators should work:

a. In a clockwise manner
b. In a counter-clockwise manner
c. From interior to exterior
d. From exterior to interior

d. From exterior to interior

127

The intentional or unintentional destruction of evidence which would prohibit interested parties from a fair examination of evidence is referred to as:

a. Trailer
b. Tampering
c. Negative corpus
d. Spoliation

d. Spoliation

128

Which of the following is not a valid conclusion used in origin and cause reports?

a. Accidental
b. Suspicious
c. Incendiary
d. Undetermined

b. Suspicious

129

When a CFI is unable to come to a final conclusion on how the fire states, he/she will classify it as:

a. Suspicious
b. To be determined
c. Undetermined
d. Mysterious

c. Undetermined

130

True/False

The only way to test a hypothesis is through recreation of the fire at the ATF fire research lab

False

Other ways:
- fire modeling/mathematical calculations
- independent research/study
- peer review

131

True/False

The area of greatest damage is always the area of origin

False

132

The chemical decomposition of a compound into one or more substances by heat is:

a. Combustible
b. Flammable limit
c. Pyrolysis
d. Flashpoint

c. Pyrolysis

133

In order to be ignited, liquids must:

a. Be heated in order to decompose and produce ignitable vapors
b. Produce vapors
c. Be mixed with the proper amount of oxygen
d. Have gas added to it

b. Produce vapors

Solids - need to be heated in order to decompose and produce ignitable vapors

Gaseous - need to be mixed with the proper amount of oxygen

134

True/False

A flammable has a flashpoint of less than 100 degrees Fahrenheit

True

Flammable < 100 degrees F
Combustible > 100 degrees F

135

Definition: The upper or lower concentration limit at specified temperature and pressure of a flammable gas or vapor of an ignitable liquid or vapor expressed as a percentage of fuel by volume that can be ignited

a. Flashpoint
b. Vapor density
c. Pyrolysis
d. Flammable limit

d. Flammable limit

136

The most difficult characteristic to predict in profiling of a suspect is their:

a. Sex
b. Age
c. Race
d. Socioeconomic status

b. Age

137

The measurement of the heat energy produced by a burning fuel is the:

a. Fuel load
b. Vapor density
c. Heat release rate
d. Flashover

c. Heat release rate

138

Which of these fuel loads will have the highest heat release rate?

a. Office trash basket
b. Large polyurethane chair
c. One gallon of gasoline
d. Large polyurethane sofa

d. Large polyurethane sofa

139

True/False

Natural gas is lighter than air

True

Liquified petroleum is heavier than air

140

True/False

Fuels that are lighter than air will result in explosive damage in the upper portions of the structure, and fuels that are heavier than air will result in explosive damage in the lower portion of the structure

False

Buildings fail at their WEAKEST POINTS, whether due to construction, damage, or other factors.

141

In the scientific method, after recognizing the need, what is the next step an investigator should take?

a. Collect data
b. Analyze data
c. Define the problem
d. Develop a hypothesis

c. Define the problem

1. Recognize the need
2. Define the problem
3. Collect the data
4. Analyze the data
5. Develop a hypothesis
6. Test the hypothesis
7. Select final hypothesis

142

True/False

A finished sketch should be made to scale

False

143

In a fire where the origin is clearly defined, it is occasionally possible to make a credible determination regarding the cause of the fire, absent physical evidence, through credible elimination of all other potential ignition sources through:

a. Pyrolysis
b. Negative corpus
c. Spoliation
d. Fire patterns

b. Negative corpus

144

True/False

Rate of Char analysis, alligatoring of wood, and spalling of concrete are all credible indicators for the origin and cause of a fire

False

Common myths and legends:
- spalling of concrete
- crazing of glass
- area of greatest damage = area of origin
- rate of char analysis
- alligatoring of wood
- "hot and fast" fire
- pour patterns vs. post-flashover damage
- melting of aluminum thresholds

145

The profiling concept in which a detailed examination of the victim, either a person or a structure, is done to assist in the development of a motive is:

a. Target selection
b. Victimology
c. Temporal analysis
d. Organized vs. disorganized

b. Victimology

146

The profiling concept in which the time of day, day of the week, etc. of a criminal series is examined is known as:

a. Victimology
b. Comfort zone
c. Target selection
d. Temporal analysis

d. Temporal analysis

147

When collecting a debris sample, the best alternative to a can is a:

a. Polyester (KAPAK) bag
b. Glass jar
c. Paper bag
d. Both a and b are acceptable

D. Both a and b are acceptable

148

The person hired by the insured to determine the amount of loss is the:

a. Claims adjuster
b. Underwriter
c. Public adjuster
d. Insurance agent

c. Public adjuster

149

Which of these is not true about BATS?

a. Documents fire department response
b. Provides case management for incidents
c. Automated origin and cause reporting
d. Restricted to law enforcement, fire investigation units, and bomb squads

a. Documents fire department response

This is done in the National Fire Incident Reporting System (NFIRS) which is used for operations and emergency management (fire suppression)

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