extra anatomy Q's (midterm) Flashcards
(170 cards)
1
Q
In the anatomical position, where are the palms facing?
a. facing backward
b. facing the body
c. facing frontward
A
c. facing frontward
2
Q
Which of the following positions does the patient lie on his stomach?
a. prone
b. supine
c. lithotomy position
A
a. prone
3
Q
Which of the following is more distal?
a. shoulder
b. toes
A
b. toes
4
Q
Which of the following is more proximal?
a. shoulder
b. toes
A
a. shoulder
5
Q
Which of the following is defined as nearer to the trunk or the point of origin?
a. lateral
b. medial
c. distal
d. proximal
A
d. proximal
medial= nearer to the median line
6
Q
the villi of the small intestine are considered as
a. evagination
b. invagination
A
a. evagination
7
Q
Eversion of the foot involves raising which foot border?
a. medial border
b. lateral border
A
b. lateral border
8
Q
Which end of the muscle shows more movement?
a. origin
b. belly
c. insertion
A
c. insertion
a= less movement
9
Q
Which end of the muscle is known as the proximal attachment?
a. origin
b. belly
c. insertion
A
a. origin
10
Q
Which phase of gametogenesis is the same in males and females?
a. first phase
b. second phase
c. meosis phase
d. maturation phase
A
a. first phase
11
Q
What happens when primordial germ cells lose their way or don’t migrate properly?
A
forms into teratomas
12
Q
What is atresia?
a. when spermatogonia degenerate
b. when spermatogonia stop being able to divide
c. when oogonia degenerate
d. when oogonia stop being able to divide
A
c. when oogonia degenerate
13
Q
What kind of epithelial cells surround primordial follicle?
a. squamous
b. cuboidal
A
a. squamous
b=primary follicle
14
Q
At which stage are primary follicles paused?
a. prophase of meiosis I
b. metaphase of meiosis I
c. prophase II of meiosis II
d. metaphase II of meiosis II
A
a. prophase of meiosis I
15
Q
Which of the following is most exterior of a follicle
a. granulosa cells
b. zona pellucida
c. theca
A
c. theca
16
Q
How long does it take to make haploid spermatids?
a. 35 days
b. 44 days
c. 55 days
d. 64 days
A
d. 64 days
17
Q
Which of the following is characterized by cleft lip, mental retardation, deafness, and eye defects?
a. trisomy 13
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 21
A
a. trisomy 13
18
Q
Which of the following is characterized by premature aging, thyroid dysfunction, and intellectual disabilities?
a. trisomy 13
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 21
A
c. trisomy 21
19
Q
Which of the following is characterized by congenital heart problems and flexion of fingers and hands?
a. trisomy 13
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 21
A
b. trisomy 18
20
Q
At which stage are ovulated oocytes paused?
a. prophase of meiosis I
b. metaphase of meiosis I
c. prophase II of meiosis II
d. metaphase II of meiosis II
A
d. metaphase II of meiosis II
21
Q
In which of the following does the zona pellucida and granulosa cells first appear?
a. early primary follicle
b. late primary follicle
c. secondary follicle
A
b. late primary follicle
22
Q
Which characterizes week 9 of pregnancy?
a. part of the embryonic period
b. part of the fetal stage
A
b. part of the fetal stage
fetal stage= 8 weeks to birth
23
Q
Which of the following does LH do?
a. decrease collagenase activity
b. corpus luteum degradation
c. increase prostaglandin
A
c. increase prostaglandin
24
Q
Which of the following causes muscular contractions of the ovarian wall?
a. progesterone
b. prostaglandin
A
b. prostaglandin
25
Which TWO develop the Corpus Luteum?
a. FSH
b. LH
c. progesterone
d. prostaglandin
b. LH
&
c. progesterone
26
Where does capacitation occur?
a. ovaries
b. uterine tube
c. uterus
b. uterine tube
27
When does the acrosomal reaction occur?
a. when the sperm contacts thecal cells
b. when the sperm contacts granulosa cells
c. when the sperm contacts the zona pellucida
c. when the sperm contacts the zona pellucida
| the actin fibers of the sperm elongate and trigger it
28
Which protein of the oocyte membrane does the sperm bind to first?
a. alpha protein
b. beta protein
b. beta protein
| beta protein binds the sperm to the membrane and then alpha protein inserts it into the membrane
29
When Na+ diffuses into the oocyte, what occurs?
a. cortical reaction
b. slow block
c. membrane depolarization
d. ZIPs destroy sperm receptors
c. membrane depolarization
30
When Ca+ is released from the ER into the oocyte, what occurs?
a. cortical reaction
b. sperm binding receptors turn off
c. membrane depolarization
d. fast block
a. cortical reaction
31
The cortical reaction is a part of
a. fast block to polyspermy
b. slow block to polyspermy
b. slow block to polyspermy
| depolarization is the fast block
32
Which of the following adheres into the endometrium?
a. blastomere
b. morula
c. blastocyst
d. embryoblast
c. blastocyst
| the trophoblast cells of the blastocyst integrate
33
Which of the following secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
a. Cytotrophoblast
b. Syncytiotrophoblast
b. Syncytiotrophoblast
34
What does hCG do?
a. stimulates the corpus luteum
b. produce progesterone and estrogen
a. stimulates the corpus luteum
| the corpus luteum makes progesterone and estrogen
35
When is hCG is at its peak?
a. 4 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 10 weeks
b. 8 weeks
| 2nd to 3rd month the placenta starts making progesterone and estrogen making it useless
36
What's FALSE about the basement membrane?
a. it's polysaccharide-rich
b. it has no vascularity
c. it acts as a filter
d. it regenerates slowly
d. it regenerates slowly
| it's highly regenerative
37
The glomerulus of kidney is made up of
a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple squamous epithelium
38
Which of the following synthesizes hormones?
a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium
39
Which of the following characterizes the ovary ducts, or fallopian tubes?
a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium
a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated
40
Which of the following is most likely to be found in the respiratory tract?
a. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium with goblet cells
b. Transitional ciliated epithelium with goblet cells
c. Stratified columnar ciliated epithelium with goblet cells
a. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium with goblet cells
41
Which of the following characterizes the intestinal lining?
a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated with goblet cells
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
42
Which of the following release hormones?
a. Exocrine glands
b. Endocrine glands
c. Paracrine glands
b. Endocrine glands
43
Which of the following describes Simple glands?
a. only secrete hormones
b. only have a tubular secretory parts
c. only have unbranched ducts
c. only have unbranched ducts
44
Which of the following gland type release their product via exocytosis?
a. Apocrine
b. Merocrine
c. Holocrine
b. Merocrine
45
Sebaceous glands of hair follicles are classified as
a. Apocrine gland
b. Merocrine gland
c. Holocrine gland
c. Holocrine gland
46
Mammary glands are
a. Apocrine
b. Merocrine
c. Holocrine
a. Apocrine
47
Which of the following have serous demilunes?
a. Serous cells
b. Mucous cells
c. Seromucous cells
d. Myoepithelial cells
c. Seromucous cells
| ex/ sublingual gland
48
Which of the following are described as pyramid-shaped, with its apex at the lumen
a. Serous cells
b. Mucous cells
c. Seromucous cells
a. Serous cells
49
Which of the following is star-shaped?
a. Serous cells
b. Mucous cells
c. Seromucous cells
d. Myoepithelial cells
d. Myoepithelial cells
50
Which of the following is most likely found respiratory and genital tract?
a. Serous cells
b. Mucous cells
c. Seromucous cells
d. Myoepithelial cells
b. Mucous cells
51
What is on the tip of actin filaments?
a. villin
b. spectrin
a. villin
52
Actin filaments are stabilized by
a. villin
b. spectrin
b. spectrin
53
Which of the following look like finger-like projections?
a. cilia
b. microvilli
b. microvilli
54
Which of the following look like hair-like projections?
a. cilia
b. microvilli
a. cilia
55
A pair of arms that extends off the “A” microtubule to form cross-bridges with the “B” microtubule in the adjacent doublet is called
a. nexin
b. dynein
c. myosin
b. dynein
56
Which of the following links doublets together?
a. nexin
b. dynein
c. myosin
a. nexin
57
Stereocilia are long...
a. cilia
b. microvilli
b. microvilli
58
Flaggellum are long...
a. cilia
b. microvilli
a. cilia
59
What does the Erzin of Stereocilia do?
a. at the tip of stereocilium
b. anchors actin bundles together
c. anchors the actin bundles to plasma membrane
c. anchors the actin bundles to plasma membrane
60
Where are Flagella found?
a. receptor hair cells in the ear
b. sperm
c. male reproductive tract
b. sperm
| the rest are Stereocilia
61
Which of the following interacts with actin filaments?
a. desmosomes
b. belt desmosome
c. hemi-desmosomes
b. belt desmosome
| the rest interact with intermediate filaments
62
Which of the following interacts with intermediate filaments?
a. zonula adherens
b. maculae adherenes
b. maculae adherenes
63
Which of the following interacts with actin filaments?
a. zonula adherens
b. maculae adherenes
a. zonula adherens
64
Gap junctions are made of which protein?
a. nexus
b. connexons
b. connexons
65
Which of the following make up Lamina Densa?
a. Type III collagen
b. Type IV collagen
c. Type VII collagen
d. none
b. Type IV collagen
66
Which of the following makes up the anchoring plaque?
a. Type III collagen
b. Type IV collagen
c. Type VII collagen
d. none
b. Type IV collagen
67
Which of the following makes up the anchoring fibrils?
a. Type III collagen
b. Type IV collagen
c. Type VII collagen
d. none
c. Type VII collagen
68
Lamina Reticularis is made up of?
a. Type III collagen
b. Type IV collagen
c. Type VII collagen
d. none
a. Type III collagen
69
Where is Erzin found?
a. flagella
b. cilia
c. stereocilia
d. microvilli
c. stereocilia
70
Where is Spectrin found?
a. flagella
b. cilia
c. stereocilia
d. microvilli
d. microvilli
71
When does implantation occur?
a. day 4
b. day 7
c. day 14
b. day 7
72
Which part of the germ disc does primitive streak from?
a. cranial region
b. caudal region
b. caudal region
73
The primitive node occurs at which end of the primitive streak?
a. cephalic end
b. caudal end
a. cephalic end
74
What's the function of the Anterior Visceral Endoderm (AVE) cells?
a. express genes essential for head formation
b. express genes essential for limb formation
a. express genes essential for head formation
75
Which of the following aim to ventralize the mesoderm?
a. Brachyury (T) gene
b. Goosecoid
c. BMP4
d. noggin and follistatin
c. BMP4 (and FGF ventralize)
| the rest antagonize it to dorsalize the mesoderm
76
Where does the nodal protein accumulate?
a. on the right side of the node
b. on the left side of the node
b. on the left side of the node
77
Why does serotonin (5HT) increase in concentration on the left side?
a. its metabolized by MAO on the right
b. MAO is expressed on the left & is attracting it
c. LEFTY-1 is expressed on the left & is attracting it
a. its metabolized by MAO on the right
78
Which of the following is the midline barrier of the notochord?
a. serotonin (5HT)
b. MAO
c. Brachyury (T)
d. SHH
e. PITX 2
d. SHH
79
Which of the following causes Malformation of the head region?
a. maternal diabetes
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
c. remnants of the primitive streak
d. Laterality defects
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
80
Which of the following causes Situs inversus?
a. maternal diabetes
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
c. remnants of the primitive streak
d. Laterality defects
d. Laterality defects
81
Which of the following causes sirenomelia (caudal dysgenesis)?
a. maternal diabetes
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
c. remnants of the primitive streak
d. Laterality defects
a. maternal diabetes
82
Which of the following causes Sacrococcygeal teratomas?
a. maternal diabetes
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
c. remnants of the primitive streak
d. Laterality defects
c. remnants of the primitive streak
83
Which is the most abundant cell type in all connective tissue proper?
a. Lymphocytes
b. Mesenchymal Cells
c. Fibroblasts
c. Fibroblasts
84
Which of the following is found in tendons & ligaments?
a. Collagenous fibers
b. Elastic fibers
c. Reticular fibers
a. Collagenous fibers
85
Which of the following is found around the liver & bone marrow?
a. Collagenous fibers
b. Elastic fibers
c. Reticular fibers
c. Reticular fibers
86
Which of the following is found in the aortic wall and the vocal cords?
a. Collagenous fibers
b. Elastic fibers
c. Reticular fibers
b. Elastic fibers
87
Which of the following is the origin of all CT?
a. mesenchyme
b. hematopoietic stem cell
a. mesenchyme
88
Which is most likely to be found in infants?
a. uniocular adipocyte
b. multiocular adipocyte
b. multiocular adipocyte
89
Describe mesenchymal cells (in embryonic CT)
a. large cytoplasm, small nucleus
b. large nucleus, small cytoplasm
c. round shaped nucleus
b. large nucleus, small cytoplasm
| big, oval shaped nucleus in small cytoplasm
90
Which of the following is rich in rER & Golgi?
a. fibroblast
b. fibrocyte
a. fibroblast
91
branched cytoplasm is a characteristic of
a. fibroblast
b. fibrocyte
a. fibroblast
92
describe fat cells under osmotic acid stain
a. white
b. blue
c. black
d. silver
c. black
93
T/F: Reticular Tissue holds blood vessels and
| capillary beds
false, that the job of areolar tissue
94
Which of the following is also known as white fibrous CT?
a. Dense regular connective tissue
b. Dense irregular connective tissue
c. Dense elastic connective tissue
a. Dense regular connective tissue
95
Which of the following is the white of the eyeball made of?
a. Dense regular connective tissue
b. Dense irregular connective tissue
c. Dense elastic connective tissue
b. Dense irregular connective tissue
96
Which of the following is most abundant and widely distributed?
a. Collagen Type I
b. Collagen Type II
c. Collagen Type III
d. Collagen Type IV
e. Collagen Type VII
a. Collagen Type I
97
Which of the following anchors the basal lamina to lamina reticularis?
a. Collagen Type I
b. Collagen Type II
c. Collagen Type III
d. Collagen Type IV
e. Collagen Type VII
e. Collagen Type VII
98
Which of the following is made by Schawnn cell?
a. Collagen Type I
b. Collagen Type II
c. Collagen Type III
d. Collagen Type IV
e. Collagen Type VII
d. Collagen Type IV
| found in basal lamina
99
Which of the following is made by chondroblasts?
a. Collagen Type I
b. Collagen Type II
c. Collagen Type III
d. Collagen Type IV
e. Collagen Type VII
b. Collagen Type II
| makes cartilage; car-TWO-lage
100
In tropocollagen, every third amino acid is
a. serine
b. proline
c. glycine
c. glycine
101
A collagen fiber is made out of
a. tendon
b. bundle
c. fibril
d. three alpha chains
e. tropocollagen
d. fibrils
102
A collagen fibril is made out of
a. tendon
b. bundle
c. fiber
d. three alpha chains
e. tropocollagen
e. tropocollagen
103
A collagen bundle is made out of
a. tendon
b. fibril
c. fiber
d. three alpha chains
e. tropocollagen
c. fibers
104
Tropocollagen is made out of
a. tendon
b. fibril
c. fiber
d. three alpha chains
e. bundle
d. three alpha chains
105
Which of the following is argyrophilic, which means easily stained black by silver salts
a. Reticular Fibers
b. Elastic Fibers
c. Collagen Fibers
a. Reticular Fibers
106
Smooth muscle cells produce which of the following?
a. Reticular Fibers
b. Elastic Fibers
c. Collagen Fibers
b. Elastic Fibers
107
Which stain makes Elastic Fibers appear purple?
a. Orcein
b. Resorcin-fuchsin
c. Weigert’s
b. Resorcin-fuchsin
108
glomerulonephritis and hematuria may be indicators of a genetic disorder affecting which collagen type?
a. Collagen Type VII
b. Collagen type I
c. Collagen Type IV
d. Collagen type III
c. Collagen Type IV
Alport syndrome (AS)
109
Kindler’s Syndrome is a disorder of which collagen type?
a. Collagen Type VII
b. Collagen type I
c. Collagen Type IV
d. Collagen type III
a. Collagen Type VII
110
Blue sclera, discolored or fragile teeth, and nose bleeds are indicators of a deficiency of which collagen type?
a. Collagen Type VII
b. Collagen type I
c. Collagen Type IV
d. Collagen type III
b. Collagen type I
111
Haversian system is
a. functional unit of spongy bone
b. functional unit of compact bone
b. functional unit of compact bone
112
coccyx & sacrum are examples of
a. long bones
b. short bones
c. flat bones
d. Irregular bones
d. Irregular bones
113
sesamoid bone is a type of
a. long bones
b. short bones
c. flat bones
d. Irregular bones
b. short bones
114
phalanges are type of
a. long bones
b. short bones
c. flat bones
d. Irregular bones
a. long bones
115
the bones of the skull undergo
a. intramembranous ossification
b. endochondral ossification
a. intramembranous ossification
116
long bones undergo
a. intramembranous ossification
b. endochondral ossification
b. endochondral ossification
117
The nutrient artery nourishes the inner 2/3 of the cortex, Which of the following enter Volkmann’s canals to nourish the rest of the cortex?
a. Metaphyseal arteries
b. Epiphyseal arteries
c. Periosteal arteries
c. Periosteal arteries
118
Which is the most common classification of joint within the human body?
a. Synarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis
c. Amphiarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis
| AKA Synovial Joints
119
When bones are joined by hyaline they're classified as
a. synchondroses joint
b. symphyses joint
a. synchondroses joint
```
synchondroses= almost immovable joint
symphyses= immovable joint
```
120
When two bones joined by fibrocartilage they're classified as
a. Primary Cartilaginous joints
b. Secondary Cartilaginous joints
b. Secondary Cartilaginous joints
Primary Cartilaginous joint= synchondroses
Secondary Cartilaginous joints= symphyses
121
Which of the following is found between the ulna and the radius?
a. gomphosis
b. syndesmoses
b. syndesmoses
122
Which of the following jioint that binds the teeth to bony teeth sockets?
a. gomphosis
b. syndesmoses
a. gomphosis
123
ribs 11 and 12 are
a. true ribs
b. floating ribs
b. floating ribs
124
An extra rib which arises from the seventh cervical vertebra characterizes
a. Cervical rib syndrome
b. Thoracic outlet syndrome
a. Cervical rib syndrome
125
The scalene muscle is attached to
a. clavicle
b. rib 1
c. rib 2
b. rib 1
126
Which of the following attach to the bottom/top of the vertebrae?
a. tubercle
b. facet
b. facet
| tubercle= attach to the transverse process of vertebrae
127
Which of the following is the most anterior structure of hte thoracic aperture?
a. superior vena cava
b. subclavian vein
a. superior vena cava
128
Which of ht following enter through the tendon of the diaphragm?
a. aorta
b. esophagus
c. inferior vena cava
c. inferior vena cava
129
Where is the aortic arch located?
a. Superior mediastinum
b. Anterior mediastinum
c. Middle mediastinum
d. Posterior mediastinum
a. Superior mediastinum
130
Where is the azygous vein arch located?
a. Superior mediastinum
b. Anterior mediastinum
c. Middle mediastinum
d. Posterior mediastinum
c. Middle mediastinum
131
Where is the esophagus located?
a. Anterior mediastinum
b. Middle mediastinum
c. Posterior mediastinum
c. Posterior mediastinum
132
Where is the descending aorta located?
a. Anterior mediastinum
b. Middle mediastinum
c. Posterior mediastinum
c. Posterior mediastinum
133
Which of the following is at vertebral level L5?
a. Subcostal plane
b. Transtubercular plane
c. Midclavicular plane
b. Transtubercular plane
134
Which of the following is at the inferior border of the 10th costal cartilage and vertebral level L3?
a. Subcostal plane
b. Transtubercular plane
c. Midclavicular plane
a. Subcostal plane
135
Which of the following passes through the anterior superior iliac spine?
a. interspinous plane
b. transpyloric plane
a. interspinous plane
136
Which of the following is more superficial?
a. scarpa fascia
b. tranversalis fascia
c. camper fascia
c. camper fascia
137
Which of the following is more deep?
a. scarpa fascia
b. tranversalis fascia
c. camper fascia
b. tranversalis fascia
138
```
Which of the following is NOT retroperitoneal?
a. duodenum
b kidneys
c. pancreas
d. stomatch
```
d. stomatch
| stomach and spleen are intraperitoneal
139
What induces the ectoderm to form the neural plate?
Notochord
140
neural folds fuse and form somites at the cervical region, which somite is the first to form?
a. 1st somite
b. 5th somite
c. 8th somite
d. 13th somite
b. 5th somite
141
Which of the following closes first?
a. anterior neuropore
b. posterior neuropore
b. posterior neuropore
anterior neuropore= day 25
posterior neuropore= day 28
142
Which of the following are odontoblasts derived from?
a. exoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
d. neural crest
d. neural crest
143
Which of the following forms the dermis of the skin?
a. Intermediate mesoderm
b. Splanchnic mesoderm
c. Somatic mesoderm
c. Somatic mesoderm
| epidermis= ectoderm derived
144
Which of the following forms the urinary and reproductive systems?
a. Intermediate mesoderm
b. Splanchnic mesoderm
c. Somatic mesoderm
a. Intermediate mesoderm
| urinary bladder= endoderm derived
145
When will the mother feel the fetus kicking?
a. 2nd month
b. 3rd month
c. 4th month
c. 4th month
146
Which is an ectodermal germ layer derivative?
a. Schwann cells
b. Glial cells
c. central nervous system
d. Odontoblasts
c. central nervous system
& enamel of the teeth
147
Which is a paraxial mesoderm derivative?
a. vertebra
b. central nervous system
c. mammary glands
d. glial cells
a. vertebra
| paraxial mesoderm become somites
148
Femoral nerves (L2-L4) are located in
a. Lesser pelvis
b. Greater pelvis
b. Greater pelvis
149
Pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-S4) are located in
a. Lesser pelvis
b. Greater pelvis
a. Lesser pelvis
150
Which of the following characterizes a male pelvis?
a. more circular shape
b. ischial spines less projected
c. smaller pubic arch angle
c. smaller pubic arch angle
151
the femoral artery is derived from
a. internal iliac artery
b. external iliac artery
b. external iliac artery
152
What separates the urogenital and anal triangle?
ischial tuberosity
153
Which of the following is multinucleated?
a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
154
Which of the following forms primary villi?
a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
a. cytotrophoblast
155
Which of the following forms trophoblastic lacunae?
a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
156
Which two of the following fuse together?
a. decidua basalis
b. decidua capsularis
c. decidua parietali
b. decidua capsularis
&
c. decidua parietali
157
What separates the placenta from the amniochorionic membrane?
chorionic plate
158
Which two of the following forms the maternal part of the placenta?
a. decidua basalis
b. decidua capsularis
c. decidua parietali
a. decidua basalis
159
Which of the following is formed in the second week?
a. primary vilius
b. secondary vilius
c. tertiary vilius
a. primary vilius
160
Which of the following is formed in the fourth week?
a. primary vilius
b. secondary vilius
c. tertiary vilius
c. tertiary vilius
161
Which of the following can pass from the mother to the fetus?
a. heparin
b. bacteria
c. IgS
d. IgG
d. IgG
162
What's true about monozygotic twins?
a. one chorionic sac
b. one amniotic sac
a. one chorionic sac
163
Which of the following has low amniotic fluid?
a. Oligohydramnios
b. Polyhydramnios
a. Oligohydramnios
164
Which of the following blocks the birth canal?
a. placenta accreta
b. placenta percreta
c. placenta previa
c. placenta previa
165
Which of the following burrows deeper into uterus?
a. placenta accreta
b. placenta percreta
b. placenta percreta
166
Which of the following is characterized by fused feet?
a. cystic hygroma colli
b. sirenomelia
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
d. club foot
b. sirenomelia
167
Which of the following is caused by Radioiodine therapy?
a. cystic hygroma colli
b. sirenomelia
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
d. club foot
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
168
Which of the following is caused by Oligohydramnios?
a. cystic hygroma colli
b. sirenomelia
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
d. club foot
d. club foot
169
Which of the following is characterized by a collar looking malformation?
a. cystic hygroma colli
b. sirenomelia
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
d. club foot
a. cystic hygroma colli
170
Which of the following has the longest average life span?
a. Trisomy 13
b. Trisomy 18
c. Trisomy 21
c. Trisomy 21
| low serum alpha-fetoprotein indicates it
