extra physiology Q's (endterm) Flashcards

(160 cards)

1
Q

What’s the main component of tight junctions?

a. claudin
b. occludin

A

a. claudin

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2
Q

How does glucose enter the intestinal cells?

a. primary transport
b. secondary transport
c. tertiary transport
d. facilitated diffusion

A

b. secondary transport

Na driven glucose symports

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3
Q

How does glucose leave intestinal cells and go into the blood?

a. primary transport
b. secondary transport
c. tertiary transport
d. facilitated diffusion

A

d. facilitated diffusion

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4
Q

Which is found in the basolateral surface?

a. heregulin
b. heregulin receptors

A

b. heregulin receptors

a= apical surface

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5
Q

What do desmosomes use to anchor cells?

a. actin filaments
b. cytoskeletal filaments

A

b. cytoskeletal filaments

hemidesmosomes use actin filaments AKA microfilaments

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6
Q

Which connects cells to ECM?

a. anchoring proteins
b. Integrin proteins

A

b. Integrin proteins

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7
Q

What helps convert integrins from an inactive bent form to an extended primed state?

a. IPP
b. Src
c. Talin

A

c. talin

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8
Q

Which is a monomer?

a. F-actin
b. G-actin

A

b. G-actin

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9
Q

Which is added to bound protein to produce microfilaments?

a. F-actin
b. G-actin

A

a. F-actin

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10
Q

Which is located on cell edges?

a. actin
b. tubulin
c. nucleus
d. myosin I

A

a. actin

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11
Q

Which is responsible for cell shape and locomotion?

a. actin
b. tubulin
c. nucleus

A

a. actin

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12
Q

Which is responsible for mitosis?

a. actin
b. tubulin
c. nucleus

A

b. tubulin

tubulin forms microtubules which are responsible for mitosis

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13
Q

Which of the following is responsible for major cell movement?

a. membrane shuttle movement
b. Integrin shuttle movement

A

b. Integrin shuttle movement

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14
Q

What stops actin polymerization?

a. cytochalasins
b. phalloidin

A

a. cytochalasins

phalloidin inhibits depolymerization

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15
Q

Which is NOT a function of myosin I?

a. regulate tension
b. maintain cell shape
c. aid in cell movement
d. bind actin filaments and cellular membranes
e. aid in endo- and exocytosis

A

c. aid in cell movement

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16
Q

Where do lipids bind myosin I?

a. TH1 domain
b. Motor domain
c. Neck region

A

a. TH1 domain

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17
Q

Where does ATP bind myosin I?

a. TH1 domain
b. Motor domain
c. Neck region
d. THA domain

A

b. Motor domain

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18
Q

Which cannot work alone?

a. myosin I
b. myosin II
c. myosin V

A

c. myosin V

it’s a dimeric motor protein

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19
Q

When does myosin V dissociate from actin?

a. when ATP binds
b. when ADP is released
c. when the phosphate is released

A

a. when ATP binds

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20
Q

Which initiates the waiting stage of myosin V?

a. when ATP binds
b. when ADP is released
c. when the phosphate is released

A

c. when the phosphate is released

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21
Q

What protein makes a thick filament?

a. actin
b. myosin

A

b. myosin

actin = thin filament

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22
Q

Where are the microtubules located?

a. in the nucleus
b. edges of cell
c. in the middle of the cell

A

c. in the middle of the cell

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23
Q

Which side of microtubules does polymerization take place (which side is the positive side)?

a. α-tubulin
b. β-tubulin

A

b. β-tubulin

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24
Q

Which of the following microtubules will rapidly dissociate?

a. one with mostly GTP bound tubulin
b. one with mostly GDP bound tubulin
c. one with completely GDP bound tubulin

A

c. one with completely GDP bound tubulin

it always needs to be active

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25
In mitosis, which microtubule end is facing the microtubule organizing center? a. α-tubulin b. β-tubulin
a. α-tubulin | the negative side
26
In mitosis, which microtubule end is facing the cell edge? a. α-tubulin b. β-tubulin
b. β-tubulin | the positive side
27
Which is responsible for retrograde transport? a. Kinesin b. Dynein
b. Dynein
28
Kinesin & Dynein proteins travel on a. Microfilaments b. Microtubules
b. Microtubules
29
myosin proteins travel on a. Microfilaments b. Microtubules
a. Microfilaments | actin microfilaments
30
Keratin is classifies as a a. Microfilament b. Intermediate Filament c. Microtubule
b. Intermediate Filaments
31
Flagella and cilia are both made of a. Microfilaments b. Microtubules
b. Microtubules
32
How many polypeptides does it take to produce one Intermediate Filament? a. 8 b. 10 c. 13 d. 4
a. 8
33
Desmosomes use what to anchor cells together? a. Microfilaments b. Intermediate Filaments c. Microtubules
b. Intermediate Filaments | aka cytoskeletal filaments
34
Which of the following is anisotropic to light? a. A band b. I band c. H zone d. Z disc
a. A band | it's dark
35
Which of the following only has myosin? a. A band b. I band c. H zone d. Z disc
c. H zone
36
Sarcomere is the area between two ____ a. A bands b. I bands c. H zones d. Z discs
d. Z discs
37
What attaches actin filaments together? a. A band b. I band c. H zone d. Z disc
d. Z disc
38
What causes conformational changes in myosin causing it to bind to actin? a. ATP hydrolyzed b. new ATP binds c. ADP is released d. Pi is released
d. Pi is released
39
What allows myosin to release from actin? a. ATP hydrolyzed b. new ATP binds c. ADP is released d. Pi is released
b. new ATP binds
40
Which of the following blocks actin from attaching to myosin? a. Tropomyosin b. Troponin
a. Tropomyosin
41
What doesn't get smaller during a muscle contraction? a. A band b. I band c. H zone
a. A band
42
the staircase mechanism of muscle contraction is also called a. Summation b. Twitch c. Graded contraction d. Tetanus
c. Graded contraction | or treppe
43
What occurs when the load is greater than the tension? a. Concentric contraction b. Eccentric contraction c. Isometric contraction
c. Isometric contraction
44
What causes Phospholamban Protein (PLB) to open the ER and let the calcium go in? a. Phosphorylation b. Dephosphorylation
a. Phosphorylation
45
Which of the following have vertically arranged myosin filaments? a. cardiac muscle b. skeletal muscle c. smooth muscle
c. smooth muscle
46
Which of the following causes more smooth muscle contraction? a. more calmodulin-calcium complex b. low MLCK to MLCP ratio c. myosin phosphatase activation
a. more calmodulin-calcium complex | this complex activates MLCK, which activates MLC causing contractions
47
Which is a source of intracellular calcium? a. L-type calcium channels b. Receptor-operated channels c. Mechanosensitive channels d. Inositol trisphosphate receptor channels
d. Inositol trisphosphate receptor channels
48
Which of the following causes depolarization? a. opening Ca-regulated chloride channels b. opening potassium channels c. Na/K-ATPase channels
a. opening Ca-regulated chloride channels | b & c cause repolarization
49
Which of the following opens by depolarization? a. receptor operated channels b. store operates channels c. L type calcium channels d. ryanodine receptor channels
c. L type calcium channels
50
How does Rho-kinase activation lead to muscle contraction? a. Rho-kinase activates MLCK b. Rho-kinase activates MLCP c. Rho-kinase inactivates MLCP
c. Rho-kinase inactivates MLCP (by phosphorylating it)
51
in VSMC, cAMP & cGMP promote a. contraction b. relaxation
b. relaxation
52
What hydrolysis cAMP & cGMP, thus causing VSMC contraction? a. Acetylcholine b. Epinephrine c. Phosphodiesterases
c. Phosphodiesterases (PDE) inhibit PDE to relax VSMC
53
What do cAMP & cGMP do? a. activate protein-kinases PKA and PKG b. inactivate protein-kinases PKA and PKG
a. activate protein-kinases PKA and PKG
54
Which of the following does pars nervosa secrete? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) c. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) d. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
c. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ADH and oxytocin = produced in Posterior Pituitary aka pars nervosa
55
Which of the following is inhibited by dopamine? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) d. Luteinizing hormone (LH) e. Prolactin (PRL) f. Growth hormone (GH)
e. Prolactin (PRL) | dopamine is also known as prolactin inhibiting hormone
56
Which of the following works to decrease calcium levels? a. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) b. Calcitriol (D3) c. Calcitonin
c. Calcitonin
57
What type of cell in islets of Langerhan makes glucagon? a. α-cells b. β-cells
a. α-cells
58
What type of cell in islets of Langerhan makes insulin? a. α-cells b. β-cells
b. β-cells
59
An access of which of the following causes high calcium levels? a. Calcitriol b. Calcitonin
a. Calcitriol
60
What is the relationship between Arterial blood volume & pressure? a. directly proportional b. indirectly proportional
a. directly proportional
61
How does the cross-sectional area of a vessel effect velocity? a. directly proportional b. indirectly proportional
b. indirectly proportional
62
In which of the following is blood velocity higher? a. capillaries b. aorta
b. aorta
63
What reduces the risk of turbulent flow? a. narrowed vessels b. higher velocity c. higher viscosity d. anemia
c. higher viscosity
64
What has the highest volume of blood? a. arteries b. veins
b. veins | more compliant
65
Which of the following occurs when the blood is relaxed? a. diastole b. systole
a. diastole
66
Which of the following does NOT have transporting epithelium? a. endocrine glands b. exocrine glands c. intestine d. kidney
b. exocrine glands
67
Which connects the endothelial cells to the underlying basement membrane? a. Desmosomes b. Hemidesmosomes
b. Hemidesmosomes
68
What determines the permeability of the tight junctions to Na+ in the kidney? a. claudin-4 b. claudin-16 c. claudin-22
a. claudin-4
69
What determines the permeability of the tight junctions to divalent cations in the thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop (TALH)? a. claudin-4 b. claudin-16 c. claudin-22
b. claudin-16
70
An axoneme is a structure that encapules a. cilia b. microvili
a. cilia
71
What's resposnsible for cilia movemnent? a. Kinesin b. Dynein
b. Dynein
72
Which part of the kidney has a brush border? a. distal tubule b. thick ascending limb c. proximal tubule
c. proximal tubule
73
Which is responsible for reabsorption of Na+ and secretion of K+? a. Principal cells b. Intercalated cells
a. Principal cells
74
Which is responsible for regulating acid-base balance? a. Principal cells b. Intercalated cells
b. Intercalated cells
75
Which of the following occurs via simple diffusion? a. transcellular transport b. paracellular transport
b. paracellular transport
76
Which of the following crosses tight junctions? a. transcellular transport b. paracellular transport
b. paracellular transport
77
What has a gated water channel? a. humans b. birds c. plants d. fish
c. plants
78
How do you control water movement into and out of the cell? a. phsophorylate aquaporins b. dephsophorylate aquaporins c. changing the number of aquaporins
c. changing the number of aquaporins
79
Which of the following is an antiporter? a. Na+ K+ 2Cl- transporter (NKCC2) b. GLUT2 transporter c. Na+-H transporter (NHE-1)
c. Na+-H transporter (NHE-1)
80
Which of the following is a symporter? a. Na+ K+ 2Cl- transporter (NKCC2) b. GLUT2 transporter c. Na+-H transporter (NHE-1)
a. Na+ K+ 2Cl- transporter (NKCC2)
81
Which TWO of the following have claudin-2? a. proximal tubule b. thin descending limb c. collecting duct claudin-3, 4 and 8 d. distal tubule
a. proximal tubule & b. thin descending limb
82
Which TWO of the following have claudin 3, 4 and 8? a. proximal tubule b. thin descending limb c. collecting duct d. distal tubule
c. collecting duct & d. distal tubule
83
What describes the function of Aldosterone? a. K+ reabsorption b. Na+ reabsorption c. Na|+ secretion
b. Na+ reabsorption | and K+ secretion
84
What occurs when the BP is too high? a. Sympathetic Nervous System is inhibited b. Parasympathetic Nervous System is inhibited
a. Sympathetic Nervous System is inhibited
85
What occurs when the BP is too low? a. Sympathetic Nervous System is activated b. Parasympathetic Nervous System is activated
a. Sympathetic Nervous System is activated
86
Which is most likely released when BP gets too high? a. Acetylcholine b. Noradrenaline
a. Acetylcholine
87
Which of the folloiwing sites for body temperature monitoring has a higher temperature? a. axillary b. rectal c. oral
b. rectal
88
What controls body temperature?
Thermoregulatory Neurons in the Preoptic Area of Hypothalamus (POA)
89
When is the body temperature the lowest? a. after a shower b. late at night c. early in the morning d. six hours after you wake up
c. early in the morning
90
when does the body temperature of a female increase by 0.5 celcius? a. during menstruation b. after menstruation c. before ovulation d. after ovulation
d. after ovulation
91
during rest, which method does the body lose more heat out of? a. convection b. evaporation c. radiation d. conduction
c. radiation
92
during exercise, which method does the body lose more heat out of? a. convection b. evaporation c. radiation d. conduction
b. evaporation
93
Where are cold receptors more abundant than warm receptors? a. Central thermoreceptors b. Peripheral thermoreceptors
b. Peripheral thermoreceptors
94
Which have more warm than cold thermoreceptors? a. Central thermoreceptors b. Peripheral thermoreceptors
a. Central thermoreceptors
95
Which response is more appropriate during cold weather? a. vasodilation b. vasoconstriction
b. vasoconstriction
96
Which response is more appropriate for Kuwait's weather? a. vasodilation b. vasoconstriction
a. vasodilation | increase heat loss
97
describe the thermoregulatory mechanism of a neonate a. high heat loss after birth due to evaporation, which causes shivering to maintain the heat b. high heat loss after birth due to evaporation, which causes non-shivering thermogenesis to maintain the heat c. cannot maintain heat and need direct body contact to survive
b. high heat loss after birth due to evaporation, which causes non-shivering thermogenesis to maintain the heat
98
Which of the following occurs due to higher body set point? a. hypothermia b. hyperthermia c. fever
c. fever
99
During an episode of fever, Amani experiences a crisis/flush. Which of the following is more accurate? a. her body set point decreased b. her body set point increased c. she may have a heart attack
a. her body set point decreased
100
To block fever development, we must stop the production of... a. Prostaglandin E2 b. Progesterone E2 c. Salicylate d. IL-2
a. Prostaglandin E2
101
Describe the thermogenic regulation of people living in the artic a. lower resting BMR b. lower levels of T3 c. hyperthyroidism d. more vasoconstriction of fingers
c. hyperthyroidism
102
Describe the thermogenic regulation of people that are acclimatized to the heat. a. higher salt secretion in sweat b. sweat secretion starts at lower set point c. sweat secretion starts at higher set point
b. sweat secretion starts at lower set point
103
What is the function of incretins? a. the stimulate an increase in blood glucose levels b. they activate leptin c. released after eating to help insulin release
c. released after eating to help insulin release
104
Which of the following is the hunger center? a. ventromedial nucleus b. lateral hypothalamus c. paraventricular nucleus
b. lateral hypothalamus
105
Which of the following has an anorexigenic function? a. POMC neurons b. NYP neurons c. AgRP neurons
a. POMC neurons
106
Which has a slow response to food intake? a. GABA b. Neuropeptides c. Glutamate
b. Neuropeptides
107
Which of the following does leptin & insulin stimulate? a. POMC neurons b. NYP neurons c. AgRP neurons
a. POMC neurons
108
How are AgRP neurons affected by Ghrelin? a. activated b. inhibited
a. activated ghrelin= hunger AgRP neuron= stimulates appetite
109
Whats describes the relationship between Ghrelin and Growth Hormone? a. directly proportional b. inversely proportional
a. directly proportional
110
How does the BMI scale evaluate a mesomorph body type? a. underestimate b. overestimate
b. overestimate
111
How does the BMI scale evaluate a endomorph body type? a. underestimate b. overestimate
a. underestimate
112
mutations in the MC4 gene+ cause a. leptin deficiency b. leptin resistance c. leptin
b. leptin resistance
113
describe the diet of a person that has a rate of oxygen utilization of 4.8 cal per L of oxygen a. mostly fat diet b. mostly carbs diet c. mostly protein diet d. mixed diet
d. mixed diet
114
describe the diet of a person that has a rate of oxygen utilization of 5.01 cal per L of oxygen a. mostly fat diet b. mostly carbs diet c. mostly protein diet d. mixed diet
b. mostly carbs diet
115
Which has a higher buffering power? a. plasma proteins b. hemoglobin
b. hemoglobin
116
How does histidine buffer?
imidazole group does buffering
117
Which compartment has the highest amount of the bicarbonate buffer? a. intracellular b. extracellular
b. extracellular
118
Which compartment has the highest amount of the phosphate buffer? a. intracellular b. extracellular
a. intracellular
119
If the base excess of a patient is 4, what can you conclude?
metabolic acidosis. It takes more bicarbonate to get the blood to the normal PH, meaning it is more acidic.
120
if the base excess is 1, what can you conclude?
metabolic alkalosis because it takes less bicarbonate to get the blood to a normal PH, which means it's alkaline
121
What can you conclude about a patient with a healthy kidney that has a high anion gap? a. has lots of basic components b. has lots of acidic components
b. has lots of acidic components | more acid in the blood leads to less bicarbonate-because it buffers the acid- and thus a higher anion gap
122
Which makes the anion gap smaller? a. lactate b. H c. Cl d. Na
c. Cl
123
What causes an increased strong ion difference (SID)? a. high Na+ b. low Na+ c. high lactate
a. high Na+
124
A decreased strong ion difference (SID) is caused by
low Na+ aggressive administration of Normal Saline severe diarrhea high lactate
125
What causes an increased strong ion difference (SID)? a. severe diarrhea b. aggressive administration of Normal Saline c. low Cl- d. low Na+
c. low Cl-
126
Long term potentiation occurs mostly in a. cholinergic synapses b. glutamatergic synapses
b. glutamatergic synapses
127
Which of the following are increased in effectiveness via phosphorylation during LTP? a. NMDA receptor b. AMPA receptor
a. NMDA receptor
128
Which of the following has lower postsynaptic calcium levels? a. LTP b. LTD c. Rest
c. Rest
129
What occurs after prolonged low-frequency stimulation? a. LTP b. LTD
b. LTD
130
Which is a correct compensatory mechanism for metabolic alkalosis? a. increase H+ secretion via kidneys b. decrease HCO3 secretion via kidneys c. hyperventilate d. hypoventilate
d. hypoventilate
131
Which is a correct compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis? a. increase H+ secretion via kidneys b. increase HCO3 secretion via kidneys c. hypoventilate
a. increase H+ secretion via kidneys
132
describe the acid-base properties of chloride a. strong acid b. weak acid c. strong base d. weak base
d. weak base
133
A morbidly obese person who is hypoventilating most likely has a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. metabolic acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis
a. respiratory acidosis
134
What buffers CO2? a. kidney b. lungs c. hemoglobin
c. hemoglobin (CO2 buffered entirely by hemoglobin
135
What is a requirement of CO2 buffering? a. Mg b. H c. Cl d. PO4
c. Cl
136
Generally speaking, which of the following innervates organs? a. Preganglionic neuron b. Postganglionic neuron
b. Postganglionic neuron
137
Cells in the adrenal medulla receive innervation from a. Preganglionic neuron b. Postganglionic neuron
a. Preganglionic neuron
138
Which cranial nerve innervates the otic ganglion? a. Oculomotor nerve b. Facial nerve c. Glossopharyngeal nerve d. Vagus nerve
b. Facial nerve
139
Which cranial nerve innervates the ciliary ganglion? a. Oculomotor nerve b. Facial nerve c. Glossopharyngeal nerve d. Vagus nerve
a. Oculomotor nerve
140
Which cranial nerve innervates the stomach? a. Oculomotor nerve b. Facial nerve c. Glossopharyngeal nerve d. Vagus nerve
d. Vagus nerve
141
Which of the following is unmyelinated? a. Preganglionic neuron b. Postganglionic neuron
b. Postganglionic neuron
142
Which is degraded by monoamine oxidase and catecholamine-O-methyl transferase? a. Adrenaline b. Acetylcholine
a. Adrenaline
143
Preganglionic neurons always secrete a. Adrenaline b. Acetylcholine
b. Acetylcholine
144
Postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system secrete a. Adrenaline b. Acetylcholine
a. Adrenaline
145
Postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system secrete a. Adrenaline b. Acetylcholine
b. Acetylcholine
146
Which of the following cholinergic receptor is always stimulatory? a. Nicotinic Receptors b. Muscarinic Receptors
a. Nicotinic Receptors
147
Which of the following is a potassium channel? a. Nicotinic Receptors b. Muscarinic Receptors
b. Muscarinic Receptors
148
which of the following increases heart rate? a. α1 receptors b. α2 receptors c. β1 receptors d. β2 receptors e. β3 receptors
c. β1 receptors
149
which of the following relaxes the muscles in the airway? a. α1 receptors b. α2 receptors c. β1 receptors d. β2 receptors e. β3 receptors
d. β2 receptors
150
What causes pupil constriction? a. Sympathetic stimulation b. Parasympathetic stimulation
b. Parasympathetic stimulation
151
What causes high glucose release? a. Sympathetic stimulation b. Parasympathetic stimulation
a. Sympathetic stimulation
152
Which hemoglobin has a higher affinity to oxygen? a. fetal hemoglobin b. adult hemoglobin
a. fetal hemoglobin
153
What's the driving force of oxygen transport? a. partial pressure b. affinity
b. affinity
154
What's the most effective way of increasing the oxygen content of water? a. increasing the partial pressure b. adding hemoglobin
b. adding hemoglobin
155
What's the relationship between affinity and the partial pressure of oxygen? a. directly proportional b. inversely proportional
b. inversely proportional
156
Which of the following increase the partial pressure of oxygen? a. lower temperature b. lower pH c. low partial pressure of carbon dioxide
b. lower pH
157
Which of the following increases oxygen affinity? a. higher temperature b. higher pH c. lower pH
b. higher pH | more basic pH
158
Which of the following decreases oxygen affinity? a. lower temperature b. higher temperature c. lower pH
b. higher temperature
159
Which of the following is a weaker acid? a. oxygenated Hb b. deoxygenated Hb
b. deoxygenated Hb
160
Which of the following best describes the Bohr effect? a. the higher the CO2 concentration, the higher the oxygen affinity b. the higher the CO2 concentration, the lower the oxygen affinity
b. the higher the CO2 concentration, the lower the oxygen affinity