Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy & Physiology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Diabetes Insidious is caused by?

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) hyposecretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Negative Feedback inhibition occurs when?

A

Thyroid hormone (TH) targets the anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The hypothalamus-hypophyseal portal system connects the hypothalamus to the?

A

Anterior Pituitary (adenohypophysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What has both endocrine and Exocrine functions?

A

The gonads (ovaries and testes) (and the pancreas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Many hours after a meal , what happens in the pancreas?

A

Alpha (a) cells in the pancreatic islets secrete glucagon, which raises blood glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What hormone does not stimulate the release of another hormone by its target cells?

A

PRL = Prolactin (secreted by pituitary gland, targets breasts/milk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) target?

A

the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Is Insulin a steroid hormone?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is luteinizing hormone (LH) a hypothalamic hormone?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is up-regulation?

A

the increase in the number of receptors making a target cell more sensitive to a hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What gland responds to Hypocalcemia?

A

The Parathyroid gland secretes PTH to raise blood calcium levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the posterior pituitary secrete?

A

Oxytocin (OT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the absence of iodine in the diet lead to?

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) do?

A

Promotes the resorption of calcium from bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the thyroid gland do?

A

secretes a hormone that increases the body’s metabolic rate, promotes alertness, quickens reflexes, and stimulates the fetal nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the hormone that stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)?

A

Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Are Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (DM) characterized by lack of or low levels of insulin?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the anterior pituitary secrete?

A

Growth Hormone aka somatotropin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What hormone has more target cells in the body than any other?

A

Growth Hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) stimulates the secretion of what horomone?

A

Glucocorticoid (cholesterol-derived steroid hormones synthesised and secreted by the adrenal gland)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does Growth Hormone hypersecretion cause in childhood and adulthood?

A

In childhood causes gigantism , in adulthood causes acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is acromegaly?

A

The thickening of bones and soft tissues, especially in the hands, face, and feet due to GH hyper-secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If a cell has a1 adrenergic receptors, what is it sensitive to?

A

Norepinephrine (NE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the background rate of sympathetic and parasympathetic activity called?

A

Autonomic tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Preganglionic fibers run from ____ to ____

A

gray matter to autonomic ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What do muscarinic receptors bind and where are they found?

A

They bind acetylcholine and are found on all cardiac and smooth muscle, and glands when they have cholinergic innervation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Do splanchnic nerves synapse at the sympathetic ganglion?

A

No, they pass through the sympathetic ganglion without synapsing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where does the parasympathetic division originate?

A

The brain and sacral regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where does the sympathetic division originate?

A

The thoracic and lumbar regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Are sympathetic fibers associated with digestion?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Does the sympathetic division have short or long preganglionic fibers?

A

SHORT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Does the parasympathetic division have short or long preganglionic fibers?

A

LONG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does the adrenal medulla mostly secrete?

A

Epinephrine (adrenaline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where is the sympathetic chain ganglion found?

A

At all levels of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Is the adrenal medulla under dual control of the ANS?

A

NO it is not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is associated with the fight or flight response?

A

Inhibition of digestion and reduced urinary output (sympathetic division)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What happens when ACh binds to a nicotinic receptor of a muscle cell?

A

ACh binding to a nicotinic receptor is ALWAYS excitatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The 2 ACh receptors

A

Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is secreted by nearly all sympathetic post ganglionic fibers?

A

Norepinephrine (NE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

2 Types of NE receptors

A

a-adrenergic and b-adrenergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

a-adrenergic receptors

A

excitatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

b-adrenergic receptors

A

inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Most preganglionic fibers in the sympathetic nervous system synapse with how many postganglionic neurons?

A

10-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How does the effect of autonomic fibers on target cells differ from somatic fibers?

A

Autonomic fibers can be excitatory or inhibitory. Somatic fibers are always excitatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Properties of the preganglionic fibers of the autonomic efferent pathway

A

myelinated and release ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the neurotransmitter associated with autonomic ganglia?

A

ACh. It is always ACh for the junction between preganglionic fiber and autonomic ganglion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the neurotransmitters associated with post ganglionic nerve fibers?

A

ACh if its parasympathetic and ACh if its cholinergic sympathetic or NE if its adrenergic sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Properties of autonomic nerve fibers pre and post ganglion

A

Preganglionic fiber is myelinated , post ganglionic fiber is unmyelinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

White Rami

A

= INCOMING SIGNAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Grey Rami

A

= OUTGOING SIGNAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What do the white and gray rami carry?

A

White rami carries preganglionic myelinated neurons, Grey rami carries post ganglionic unmyelinated neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does the Autonomic nervous system control?

A

The Glands, smooth muscle, and caridac muscle. It does NOT control skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where are most fibers of the parasymathetic division found?

A

In the Vagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Motor pathways of the autonomic nervous system usually involve how many neurons?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Where do preganglionic sympathetic fibers release neurotransmitters?

A

Into paravertebral ganglion (sympathetic chain ganglion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does the incus articulate with?

A

The malleus and stapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Where do nerve fibers from all regions of the retina converge?

A

onto the optic disc and exit the eye by way of the optic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What produces a receptor potential in a taste bud?

A

The gustatory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What detects changes in CSF pH?

A

Chemoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What produces that taste sensation Umami?

A

Amino acids such as aspartic acid and glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What houses the sprial organ?

A

the Cochlea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What eye condition does not need a corrective lens?

A

Emmetropia, it refers to 20/20 vision. The eye is the perfect length to focus an image

63
Q

What do pheromones stimulate?

A

Olfactory cells

64
Q

What is the order of cells in the retina from back to front?

A

Photoreceptors - bipolar cells - ganglion

65
Q

When you travel in an elevator, what senses that you are moving?

A

The hair cells of the otolithic membrane of the macula sacculi

66
Q

Is the retina considered an optic component of the eye?

A

NO

67
Q

Macula Sacculi concerns linear or vertical acceleration?

A

Macula Sacculi concerns vertical movement like being in an elevator. It has a vertical orientation in Saccule

68
Q

Macula utriculi concerns linear or vertical acceleration?

A

Macula utriculi concerns linear movement like being in a car. It has a horizontal orientation in utricle.

69
Q

what are the optical components of the eye?

A

the cornea, lens, auqeous humor, and vitreous body

70
Q

What is the crista ampullaris associated with?

A

Dynamic equilibrium in angular acceleration

71
Q

What is the only sense in which signals can reach the cerebral cortex without passing through the thalamus?

A

Olfaction (smell)

72
Q

What allows upper respiratory infections to spread from the throat to the tympanic cavity?

A

The auditory (eustachian) tube

73
Q

Changes in blood pressure are sometimes detected by what in arteries?

A

Mechanoreceptors, its usually baroreceptors

74
Q

What organ does not have nocireceptors?

A

The brain

75
Q

When you view objects close to the eye, what is the adjustment the eye makes called?

A

Accomodation

76
Q

What is visible to the naked eye on the tongue?

A

The Lingual Papilla

77
Q

What is responsible for photopic (day) vision as well as trichromatic (color) vision?

A

Cone Cells

78
Q

A fracture of which vertebrae is least likely to cause a spinal cord injury?

A

Spinal cord only extends to about L1 in adults so fracture to vertebrae L2-L5 is least likely to cause spinal cord injury

79
Q

Where are interneurons located?

A

Spinal Cord

80
Q

What is the brachial plexus comprised of?

A

Anterior rami from C5 - T1

81
Q

In the nodding off reflex, what is the reflex that causes the head to rise?

A

The Stretch reflex (myotonic reflex)

82
Q

How many neurons does a simple reflex involve?

A

2

83
Q

CSF fills what space?

A

Space between the aranchoid mater and the pia mater

84
Q

Where is the arbor vitae found?

A

In the cerebellum

85
Q

What is the brain lobe deep to the lateral sulcus?

A

the Insula, can only be seen by removing some of the overlying cerebrum

86
Q

What sinus does not contain CSF?

A

Dural sinus

87
Q

Describe the appearance and position of the pons

A

Appears as a large bulge just rostral to the medulla

88
Q

Rostral and Caudal

A

Rostral = toward the foward
Caudal = toward the tail (back)

89
Q

What type of fiber are eyes and ears innervated by?

A

Special fibers

90
Q

What does the medulla oblongata originate from?

A

the Myelencephalon

91
Q

What do you call a reflex arc that uses only 2 neurons?

A

Monosynaptic reflex arcs

92
Q

Which is richer in lipid content, white or gray matter?

A

White matter. Myelin is a lipid, myelin is white

93
Q

What are the fibers that carry the action potentials that cause skeletal muscle to contract called?

A

Alpha motor neurons

94
Q

Layer of the meninges from superficial to deep

A

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

95
Q

What do the pons and cerebellum arise from?

A

The secondary embryonic vesicle the metencephalon

96
Q

Destruction of the amygdala would mostly affect expression of what?

A

Emotional feelings

97
Q

What is a ganglion?

A

A cluster of neurosomas in the PNS

98
Q

What can injury to the reticular formation cause?

A

Irreversible coma . The reticular formation is in the middle of the brainstem and controls arousal and consciousness

99
Q

Bacteria and white blood cells in the CSF accompanied with high fever and stiff neck would be a sign of what?

A

Meningitis

100
Q

Somatosensory refers to signals from what?

A

Signals from bones, joints, muscle, skin NOT signals from viscera. Somatosensory signals are for touch, pain, heat, cold, stretch, pressure and one of their most important roles, proprioception

101
Q

What separates the R & L cerebral hemispheres?

A

The longitudinal fissure

102
Q

Motor commands are carried on descending or ascending tracts from the brain along the spinal cord?

A

Descending tracts (information going out)

103
Q

The sensation of touch involves neurons located where?

A

in the the posterior root ganglion

104
Q

What is a nerve?

A

A cordlike ORGAN composed of numerous axons

105
Q

The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus are derivates of what?

A

The Diencephalon (embryonic structure)

106
Q

What does the posterior root of the spinal nerve contains only what?

A

Only contains neurosomas of sensory neurons

107
Q

Where is epidural anesthesia administered to block pain signals during pregnancy?

A

To the epidural space between the Dural sheath and the vertebral bones

108
Q

Loss of motor coordination and equilibrium would most likely be associated with a lesion in what?

A

The cerebellum

109
Q

What is CSF secreted by?

A

Choroid plexueses in the ventricles

110
Q

What is CSF reabsorbed by?

A

Arachnoid granulations in the superior sagital sinus

111
Q

Where are the hippocampus and amygdala found?

A

In the limbic system

112
Q

A _____ is composed of a granular cluster of 8 proteins called ____ with DNA wrappe d around them

A

Nucleosome, histones

113
Q

The genetic code is the link between?

A

mRNA and the 20 amino acids that they represent

114
Q

A cell finishing mitosis has how many DNA molecules? And A cell finishing DNA replication has how many DNA molecules?

A

46 and 92

115
Q

Most kidney tubules are made of what kind of epithelial tissue? specialized for absorption and secretion

A

Simple cuboidal

116
Q

What epithelium provides a moist and slippery surface and is well suited to resist stress, as seen in the what?

A

Nonkeratinized, vagina

117
Q

A brush border of microvilli is found in what kind of epithelium? Where can it be found?

A

Simple columnar epithelium, small intestine

118
Q

Fibroblasts and protein fibers are associated with both what and what?

A

Dense regular and dense irregular connective tissues

119
Q

The membrane that lines lumenal surfaces of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts consists of what?

A

Epithelium and lamina propria (mucous membrane)

120
Q

Breast shrinkage after lactation ceases is a consequence of ?

A

Apoptosis

121
Q

The most influential medical textbook of the ancient era was written by?

A

Galen

122
Q

Who established a “code of ethics” for physicians and is considered the father of modern medicine?

A

Hippocrates

123
Q

Who was known as the father of modern anatomy and was the first to publish accurate drawings of the body / an atlas?

A

Vesalius

124
Q

What does Calcitrol (vitamin D) do?

A

Raises blood calcium levels

125
Q

What does Calcitonin do?

A

Reduces blood calcium level. Produced by thryroid hormone. Has little affect on adults but big effect on children. Inhibits osteoclasts and ramps up osteoblast activity

126
Q

What does Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) do?

A

Increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts promoting resorption of calcium from bones , promotes calcium reabsorption by the kidneys , promotes calcitrol synthesis

127
Q

2 Things that raise blood calcium levels
1 Thing that lowers blood calcium levels

A

PTH and Calcitrol
Calcitonin - secreted by thyroid

128
Q

Why is osteoporosis common in older women?

A

Because estrogen usually would inhibit osteoclast activity but low levels of estrogen in older women = increased osteoclast activity

129
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

bone is broken into 3 or more pieces

130
Q

Compound fracture

A

Bone is breaking through the skin / open wound

131
Q

What is any bony prominence called?

A

A process

132
Q

What 2 facial bones are unpaired?

A

Sphenoid and ethmoid bones

133
Q

What articulates with the vertebral column?

A

The occipital condyle

134
Q

What is the pelvic outlet?

A

The inferior opening of the pelvis

135
Q

What is the false pelvis?

A

The lower part of the the abdominal cavity between the illiums

136
Q

Synostosis

A

Fusion of 2 bones and is the least moveable joint

137
Q

What is a Synarthrosis and what are the 3 types?

A

Synarthrosis is a fibrous joint and the 3 types are Sutures, Gomphoses, Syndesmoses. Sutures and Gomphoses = short collagen fibers, not much movement
Syndesmoses = longer collagen fibers, more movement. Syndesmoses is found between ulna and radius

138
Q

What are the joints between vertebrae?

A

Symphyses. Symphyses are bound by fibrocartilage

139
Q

What type of lever is the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

1st Class Lever

140
Q

What type of lever is flexing your elbow?

A

3rd Class lever

141
Q

What type of lever is extending your elbow?

A

1st Class lever

142
Q

Sitting in a chair and raising one thigh is what kind of lever?

A

2nd Class

143
Q

Raising onto balls of the feet (plantar flexion) is what type of lever?

A

2nd Class

144
Q

Both flexion and extension at the knee joint is what kind of lever?

A

3rd Class

145
Q

What marks the boundaries of a sarcomere?

A

Z discs

146
Q

Triads of a muscle fiber

A

2 Terminal cisterns and 1 T tubule

147
Q

Where do cross bridges form?

A

Between binding sites on myofilaments and myosin heads

148
Q

During muscle contraction, the movement of what protein exposing binding sites for myosin?

A

Tropomyosin

149
Q

What protein is a calcium receptor in skeletal muscle?

A

Troponin

150
Q

What is mechanical advantage?

A

Ratio of output force to input force

151
Q

In order for muscle to continue contracting in anaerobic fermentation , what is essential?

A

Myokinase ( creatine phosphate also works in a similar way)

152
Q

What shape is the muscle of the recturs femoris?

A

Pennate

153
Q

What should you use to lift a heavy box off the floor?

A

The power of the knee and hip extensors

Anatomy & Physiology (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions