FINAL REVIEW Flashcards
(353 cards)
1
Q
What is the difference between the Nervous System and Endocrine System?
A
Endocrine system has widespread, general effect on many organs
Nervous system has targeted and specific effects on 1 organ or tissue
Endocrine system’s effects are slow and long-lasting
Nervous system’s effects are rapid and stop quickly
2
Q
What are the similarities between the Nervous System and Endocrine System?
A
Some chemicals can be hormones AND neurotransmitters
Some hormones are secreted by “neuroendocrine “ cells (bit of both)
The 2 systems can have overlapping results on the same organs
The 2 system can regulate each other
3
Q
How do the Nervous and Endocrine systems regulate eachother?
A
Neurons can trigger hormone secretion
Hormones can inhibit or stimulate neurons
4
Q
Give an example of overlapping effects of the Nervous and Endocrine system
A
In “fight or flight,” endocrine and nervous system can release the same chemicals in response to a stimuli, like glycogen to up the glucose level in the blood to prepare for energy exertion
5
Q
What hormones are secreted by neuroendocrine cells
A
Oxytocin
Antidiuretic hormone
6
Q
What does antidiuretic hormone do?
A
Tells body to decrease urine production
7
Q
What are the 3 types of hormone release?
A
Neurally
Humorally
Hormonally
8
Q
What does Neurally mean in relation to hormone release?
A
The secretion or inhibition of hormones is influenced by emotion or stress
9
Q
What does Humorally mean in relation to hormone release?
A
The secretion or inhibition of hormones is dependent on the concentration of other NON-hormonal substances in the blood
10
Q
What does Hormonally mean in relation to hormone release?
A
Hormones are regulated by other hormones
11
Q
The __________ carries out function for the Hypothalamus
A
Pituitary Gland
12
Q
Which hormones does the posterior Pituitary Gland store and release?
A
Oxytocin
Antidiuretic hormone
13
Q
What does Oxytocin do?
A
Hormone responsible for deep emotional bonding, labor contractions, and lactation
14
Q
Name 6 anterior Pituitary Gland hormones
A
FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)
LH (luteinizing hormone)
TSH (Thyroid stimulating hormone)
ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
GH (growth hormone)
PRL (prolactin)
15
Q
What are the 2 gonadotropins?
A
LH and FSH
16
Q
What does FSH do in females and males?
A
Female - stimulates development of eggs and follicles in the ovaries
Male - stimulates production of sperm in testes
17
Q
What does LH do in female and males?
A
Female - stimulates ovulation and secretion of estrogen and progesterone
Male - stimulates interstitial cells in testes to secrete testosterone
18
Q
What does TSH do?
A
Stimulates growth of the thyroid gland
Stimulates secretion of thyroid hormone (T3 and T4)
19
Q
What does ACTH do?
A
Regulates response to stress by stimulating Adrenal Gland cortex with corticosteroids that regulate glucose, fat, and protein metabolism
20
Q
What does GH do?
A
Promotes tissue growth
21
Q
What does PRL do?
A
Milk production in females
Increased sensitivity to LH in males causing testosterone to increase
22
Q
Define hydrophobic hormones and describe how they work? Travel?
A
Hormones derived from cholesterol which are lipid soluble (water INsoluble)
Move directly through phospholipid bi-layer and act via INTRAcellular receptors (usually acting on gene transcription within the cell)
Must bind to a blood plasma transport protein to be transported across body (bound) OR can travel very short distance unbound
23
Q
Define hydrophilic hormones and describe how they work? Travel?
A
Hormones derived from polypeptides and proteins which are water soluble (lipid INsoluble)
Cannot move directly through phospholipid bi-layer, so attaches to membrane-bound receptors and modifies existing metabolic protein to trigger events inside the cell to occur
Since it is water soluble, these hormones dissolve easily with blood plasma for transport
24
Q
What does the Adrenal Cortex produce?
A
STEROIDS
Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
Glucocorticoids (cortisol and cortisone)
Tiny bit of sex hormones (androgen + estrogen)
25
What does the Renin-Angiotensin System control?
Regulates blood pressure
26
What is aldosterone's role in the Renin-Angiotensin System?
Released by the Adrenal Cortex to promote water reabsorption by INCREASING Na+ absorption and SECRETING K+ to help with blood volume
27
How does the Pancreas function as an exocrine gland?
Produces digestive enzymes
28
How does the Pancreas function as an endocrine gland?
Beta cells produce insulin
Alpha cells produce glucagon
29
What is insulin? How does it work?
A HYPOglycemic hormone (LOWERS blood glucose levels)
Increase glucose reuptake in cells and storage of fats, aminos, and glucose
30
When do insulin levels increase?
After eating
31
What is glucagon? How does it work?
A HYPERglycemic hormone (INCREASES blood glucose levels)
Causes liver to break down glycogen (stored glucose) and promotes the breakdown of fat and protein
32
When do glucagon levels increase?
During fasting
33
What are the 2 cardiovascular circuits?
Pulmonary Circuit
Systemic Circuit
34
What side is the pulmonary circuit on, and what is its purpose?
Right side of the heart
Bring blood to the lungs for gas exchange
35
What side is the systemic circuit on, and what is its purpose?
Left side of heart
Bring oxygenated blood to all areas of the body
DYNAMIC bloodflow
36
Define dynamic bloodflow and give an example
Flow caters to the body's current needs
During exercise, increased flow to lungs, myocardium, and skeletal muscle; decreased flow to intestines and kidneys
37
What are the layers of the heart wall?
Epicardium
Myocardium
Endocardium
38
Describe the myocardium and its functions
Thick, muscular layer with a fibrous skeleton of collagen and elastin fibers
Support, cardiac muscle attachment sites, and electrical insulation
39
Describe the endocardium
Smooth inner layer
40
What are the 4 heart chambers?
Left and right atria
Left and right ventricles
41
What are the 4 heart valves?
2 atrioventricular valves (AV)
Tricuspid valve
Bicuspid/Mitral valve
2 semilunar valves
Aortic semilunar valve
Pulmonary semilunar valve
42
Where does blood pass to through the pulmonary semilunar valve?
Pulmonary trunk
43
Where does blood pass to through the aortic semilunar valve?
Aorta
44
What regulates the pace of the heart?
Sinoatrial (SA) node / Pacemaker
45
Define AV node
Atrioventricular node is the electrical gateway to the ventricles
46
Define AV bundle and its branches
Pathway for electrical signals from AV node thru interventricular septum down to the apex
47
Define Purkinje fibers
Fibers upward from the apex to spread electrical signals thru ventricular myocardium
48
The AV node ______ electrical spread. Why?
Slows
To give time for atria to contract before ventricle
49
1 depolarization of the SA node =
1 heartbeat
50
An electrocardiogram measures ...
The combined electrical activity of the nodal and non-nodal cells
51
What occurs during the P wave ?
SA node fires, atrial depolarization and atrial systole
52
What occurs during the QRS wave?
AV node fires, ventricular depolarization and ventricular systole, atrial depolarization and atrial diastole
53
What occurs during the T wave?
Ventricular repolarization, ventricular diastole
54
The cardiac cycle is
1 complete contraction and relaxation
55
What is the equation for cardiac output
SV x HR
(Stroke volume x heart rate)
56
What are the 2 types of circulatory routes in the vascular system?
Common
Portal System
57
Describe a common circulatory route
Heart
Artery
Arteriole
Capillary bed
Venule
Vein
58
Describe a portal system route
Heart
Artery
Arteriole
2 CAPILLARY BEDS
Venule
Vein
59
Define blood pressure
The force blood exerts against vessel walls
60
Systolic refers to ...
Diastolic refers to ...
Ventricle contracted
Ventricle relaxed
61
Define colloid osmotic pressure (COP)
Pressure from build up of colloids (like albumin) in plasma, causing liquid to be drawn back into the capillary
62
Where are chemoreceptors
Aortic and carotid bodies
63
What is the purpose of chemoreceptors
Autonomic response to change in blood chemistry
1. adjust respiration
2. *vasomotion*
Work to stimulate vasoconstriction and increase BP and perfusion
64
Describe the angiotensin system
Angiotensinogen constantly released by liver
Kidney releases Renin when BP is low which converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I
Lungs release ACE which converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
Angiotensin II triggers vessels to vasoconstrict and adrenal gland to release Aldosterone
Aldosterone increases reabsorption of NaCl and H2O in kidneys
*BP raised!*
65
Define angiotensinogen
A pre-hormone constantly released by the liver
66
Define renin
A kidney enzyme which is released in response to low BP which converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
67
Define ACE
angiotensin converting enzyme
Released by lungs to concert angiotensin I to angiotensin II
68
Define angiotensin II
Powerful vasoconstrictor which stimulates the production of aldosterone
69
Define aldosterone
Hormone which causes kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water, therefore decreasing urine output and increasing the amount of liquid in the blood and in effect, raising BP
70
Name 5 hormones which control BP and blood flow
Aldosterone
Atrial natriuretic factor (ANP)
Antidiuretic hormone
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
71
Define atrial natriuretic factor (ANP)
Hormone which promotes sodium and water excretion, increasing urine output and stimulating vasodilation, resulting in lowered BP
72
Define antidiuretic hormone
Hormone which promotes water retention and in high concentration, promotes vasoconstriction to increase BP (during times of fasting, sleeping)
73
Define epinephrine and norepinephrine
Hormones which bind to skeletal and cardiac vessels and promote vasodilation, especially in response to "fight or flight" situations
74
Functions of blood
transportation
(respiration, nutrition, waste elimination, thermoregulation, immune defense, water balance, an pH balance)
75
What are the components of blood
Formed elements (RBC, WBC, and platelets)
Plasma
76
Define osmolarity and what is it regulated by
Total molarity of dissolved solutes in blood
High osmolarity = concentrated solutes = increased fluid reabsorption = dilute blood
Low osmolarity = diluted = tissues retain fluid = edema
Regulated by albumin
77
Define albumin
most common protein in plasma, controls the viscosity and osmolality of blood
78
What are fibrinogens for
clotting
79
Albumins and fibrinogens are produced in the
liver
80
Define erythocyte
red blood cell full of hemoglobin which carries mostly O2 and some CO2
81
Define leukocyte
white blood cell for immunity, allergy response, antibody production, and inflammation
82
Define thrombocyte
platelets for hemostasis (clotting)
83
Define hemostasis
clotting
84
Hemopoiesis is stimulated by (chemicals)
erythropoietin
thrombopoietin
colony stimulating factors
85
Describe the appearance of erythrocytes
Disc-shaped with a bi-concave shape for extra surface area
No organelles inside
86
What triggers erythrocyte homeostasis
Low levels of O2 (hypoxemia)
detected by kidneys to release EPO
87
Hemoglobin holds _____ O2
4
88
A heme group binds ____ to _____
O2 to Fe
89
RBCs die and are broken down in the
spleen by macrophages
90
Heme is converted to ____ to ______ to ______
biliverdin
bilirubin
urobilinogen
91
Transfusing the wrong blood type causes
Agglutination
92
B-Cells and T-Cells are
lymphocytes
93
Describe a vascular spasm
Quick constriction of blood vessel to give time to other mechanisms to work
Stimulated by pain receptors to release serotonin and endothelin
94
Describe platelet plugs
Broken, rough vessel disturbs prostacyclins and triggers platelet plug formation
Platelets degranulate and release serotonin, adenosine diphosphate, and thromboxane A2
95
Describe coagulation
Quick and accurate "fish net" formed from conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin threads
Process boosted by procoagulants released by liver
96
What dissolves clots
Fibrinolysis
97
What are the 3 functions of the lymphatic system?
Lipid absorption
Fluid recovery
Immunity
98
Describe lipid absorption by the lymphatic system
Lacteals in the small intestine absorb dietary lipids
99
Describe immunity by the lymphatic system
Immune cells in the lymph organs can respond to foreign cells/chemicals while the fluid is being filtered
100
Describe lymph
Colorless, clear fluid that is similar to plasma but with less proteins
101
Define non-specific defense
Broadly effective defenses which require no prior exposure to pathogens
Include external barriers
INNATE immunity (phagocytes, antimicrobial proteins, fever, etc.)
102
What are 4 external barriers for non-specific defense?
Skin
Mucous membranes
Digestive system
Genitourinary system
103
How is the skin an external barrier?
Tough keratin
Dry, nutrient poor environment
Defensin proteins which attack microbes (from neutrophils)
Lactic acid mantle
104
How are mucous membranes an external barrier?
Sticky mucus
Lysozymes in tears and saliva which kill pathogens
105
How is the digestive system an external barrier?
Stomach acidity and lysozymes in saliva
106
How is the genitourinary system an external barrier?
Vaginal acidity
Flushing with urine
107
Acquired immunity is _____ and has a _____
specific with a memory
108
Describe cellular immunity
Cell mediated by T Cells
109
Describe humoral immunity
Antibody mediated by B Cells
110
What are the 4 types of acquired immunity?
Natural active
Artificial active
Natural passive
Artificial passive
111
How do you get natural active immunity?
Natural exposure to an antigen causes you to produce your own antibodies or T Cells (which have memory)
112
How do you get artificial active immunity?
Vaccination which causes you to produce your own antibodies or T Cells (which have memory)
113
How do you get natural passive immunity?
Gain non-self antibodies thru natural methods (thru placenta and breast milk)
Don't produce memory cells so immunity is temporary
114
How do you get artificial passive immunity?
Gain non-self antibodies thru artificial methods like treatments for snakebite, rabies, tetanus, etc.
Don't produce memory cells so immunity is temporary
115
Describe clonal selection
Only the T or B lymphocytes that are activated by the antigen exposure will proliferate, which THEN differentiate and specialize against antigen
116
Describe how antibodies initiate destruction of an antigen
Antibody binds to antigen, disables it ("net"), and tags it for destruction by a phagocyte
117
What are the 5 functions of the digestive system?
Ingestion
Digestion
Propulsion
Absorption
Defecation
118
What are the 2 types of digestion?
Mechanical and chemical
119
Describe mechanical digestion and the methods
Physical breakdown of food into smaller particles
Chewing
Stomach churning
Bile action
Segmentation and peristalsis
120
Describe chemical digestion and 4 macromolecules it breaks down
Breaking chemical bonds in food to convert macromolecules to monomers
Polysaccharides (carbs) break down to monosaccharides (sugars)
Protein breaks down into amino acids
Fat/Lipids break down into monoglycerides and fatty acids
Nucleic acid breaks down into nucleotides
121
What are the 6 accessory organs to the GI tract
Teeth
Tongue
Salivary glands
Liver
Gallbladder
Pancreas
122
What are the 4 layers of the GI tract walls (inner to outer)
Mucosa
Submucosa (with blood vessels and lymph vessels)
Muscularis
Serosa
123
What do the cheeks and lips do for the GI tract?
Keeps food in between the teeth for mastication
124
What does the tongue do for the GI tract?
Has sensory papillae and moves the bolus back toward oropharynx
125
What do the hard and soft palate do for the GI tract?
Soft palate - separates oral cavity from nasopharynx
Hard palate - separates oral cavity from larynx
126
What do teeth do for the GI tract?
Mastication and increasing surface area of food particles for enzyme penetration
127
What are the 4 components of saliva
Water
Amylase
Mucus
Lysozyme
128
Amylase is primarily for
starch digestion
129
What neutralizes the pH of saliva?
Bicarbonate
130
What do intrinsic salivary glands do?
Are inside mucosa of oral cavity
Constantly secrete saliva
131
What do extrinsic salivary glands do?
Connect to the oral cavity through ducts (parotid, submandibular, and sublingual)
Mainly to assist with digestion
132
What are the functions of the stomach?
Mechanical churning to break up/liquify chyme
Chemical digestion of proteins with pepsin
Absorbs water and some drugs, NOT nutrients
133
What does HCl do in stomach
Drops the stomach pH to 2-4 (acidic)
Activates pepsinogen to become pepsin
Breaks up tough cell walls and tissue
Converts iron to an absorbable form
Kills pathogens
134
What does intrinsic factor do
Secreted by parietal cells to help absorb B12 in the small intestine
135
What is the function of pepsin
Pepsinogen (from chief cells) are converted to pepsin by HCl, which activates more pepsin
Pepsin digests proteins into small polypeptide chains and amino acids
136
Describe cholecystokinin
Release in response to fat in the chyme entering duodenum
Causes gallbladder to contract, relaxes hepatopancreatic sphincter, and secretes pancreatic enzymes
137
Describe secretin
Released in response to acid in chyme entering duodenum
Increase bicarbonate secretion to neutralize the acids
138
Describe gastric inhibiting peptide
Released to decrease gastric motility and secretions
139
What does the liver do for digestion?
Produces bile which mechanically digests fat
140
What does the gallbladder do for digestion?
Stores and concentrates bile from the liver
141
What does the pancreas do for digestion?
Exocrine gland secretes digestive enzymes and pancreatic juice into duodenum
142
What are the 6 enzymes in pancreatic juice?
Trypsin
Chymotrypsin
Lipase
Amylase
Nuclease
Peptidases
143
How are carbohydrates digested?
Pancreatic lipase takes over for salivary amylase, finishes starch digestion
Brush border enzymes act on oligosaccharides and disaccharides
Those sugars are absorbed via active transport into cells and then use facilitated diffusion to move into the blood
144
How are proteins digested?
Begins in stomach with pepsin, when reaches sm. intestine pepsin is deactivated by pancreatic juice
Trypsinogen converts to trypsin which digests proteins and activates peptidases and chymotrypsinogen to further break peptides into amino acids
145
How are amino acids absorbed?
Active transport into cells and then into blood
146
How are lipids digested?
Bile acids emulsify fat globules
Lipases further break down triglyceride to fatty acid and monoglyceride
Absorb into cell through simple diffusion (because its a lipid) and then into LACTEALS through exocytosis
147
Nuclease hydrolyzes ______ into ______
DNA/RNA into nucleotides
148
Define respiration
Gas exchange in the body
149
Define external respiration
Exchange of gasses between air and the blood in lungs
150
Define internal respiration
Exchange of gasses between blood and body tissues
151
Define cellular respiration
Chemical reaction inside a cell's mitochondria which converts food into ATP
152
Define pulmonary ventilation
Inhaling and exhaling
153
Where does external respiration take place?
Lungs
154
Where does internal respiration take place?
Everywhere except the lungs
155
Define pressure gradients in respiration
The difference between atmospheric and intrapulmonary pressures which is created by volume change of the chest (expand or contract to create/decrease space)
Air flows from high pressure to low
156
Define intrapulmonary pressure
Pressure that is inversely proportionate to volume
(Boyle's law)
Low volume (small space) = High pressure and vice versa
157
During passive expiration, what occurs? Why?
Intrapulmonary volume decreases which increases pressure, forcing air out of the lungs
Thorax volume decreases as diaphragm and external intercostals relax and alveoli spring back to OG shape
158
What factors affect gas exchange?
Henry's Law
Concentration gradients of gases
Gas solubility
Membrane thickness
Membrane surface area
Ventilation-Perfusion coupling
159
After hemoglobin binds with 1 O2, it has a _________ effect. Explain this
Positive feedback
Obtaining the 1 O2 makes the hemoglobin change shape so it obtains the next 3 O2 faster
160
When tissue is active, what decreases? What does this cause Hb to do?
Decreased O2 so Hb releases more O2 ("Unloads")
161
What happens when temperature increases in tissue?
Hb releases more O2 ("unloads")
162
Describe the Bohr effect
Active tissue has more CO2, so it attracts more H+ which lowers the pH, causing Hb to release O2 ("unloads")
163
Describe the Haldane effect
If hemoglobins are not fully loaded, can carry CO2 but
deoxyhemoglobins (fully empty) binds to CO2 and H+ and creates bicarbonate (HCO3) to easily transport CO2 in body
164
Muscles involved in normal inspiration
Diaphragm
Scalenes
External Intercostals
165
Muscles involved in normal expiration
none, all just relax
166
Name the 5 functions of the kidneys
Excretion
Filter blood plasma
Regulate blood volume, pressure, and osmolarity
Secrete hormones
Regulate acid/base balance of blood
167
What wastes are filtered by the kidneys
Excess minerals
Nitrogenous wastes
168
What are 3 nitrogenous wastes
Urea
Uric acid
Creatinine
169
What is urea produced from
Protein metabolism
170
What is uric acid produced from
Nucleic acid metabolism
171
What is creatinine produced from
phosphagen energy system
172
Describe the flow of blood INTO the kidneys
1. renal artery
2. segmental arteries
3. interlobar arteries
4. arcuate arteries
5. cortical radiate arteries
6. afferent arteriole
7. Glomerulus
173
Define Glomerulus
capillary network which is the filtration center of the nephron
174
Describe the flow of blood OUT of the kidney
1. Glomerulus
2. efferent arteriole
3. peritubular capillary
4. cortical radiate veins
5. arcuate veins
6. interlobar veins
7. renal vein
175
What is the function of a nephron
Filter blood to produce urine
176
What are the 2 types of nephrons
Cortical nephrons
Juxtamedullary nephrons
177
Describe cortical nephrons
80% of nephrons
Short loop which produces most of the urine
178
Describe juxtamedullary nephrons
20% of nephrons
Long loop which extends deep into the renal medulla
Maintains Na+ levels and water balance
179
What are the 2 major parts of the nephron
renal corpuscle
renal tubule
180
Describe a renal corpuscle and its function
Site of filtration where the glomular capsule surrounds the glomerulus
181
What are the renal tubules
Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
Nephron Loop
Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
end at the collecting duct
182
Describe the form and function of proximal convoluted tubules (PCTs)
Longest tube (microvilli lined) with many coils (mitochondria lined)
Receives filtrate from the glomerulus
Performs majority of reabsorption of filtrate
183
Describe the form and function of the nephron loop
U-shaped with a thin (descending) limb and thick (ascending) limb
Ascending limb does active transport of salts
Descending limb balances water
WATER CONSERVATION
REGULATE BLOOD pH
184
What is the function of mitochondria in the proximal convoluted tubule
active transport of filtrates (glucose and amino acids)
185
What is the function of microvilli in the proximal convoluted tubule
increased surface area for more reabsorption
186
What are the 2 routes of reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule
Transcellular (across cell)
Paracellular (between cells)
187
Renal tubules are surrounded by
peritubular capillaries
188
Describe flow of urine out of kidney
glomerular capsule
proximal convoluted tubule
nephron loop
distal convoluted tubule
collecting duct
papillary duct
minor calyx
major calyx
renal pelvis
ureter
urinary bladder
urethra
189
What are the 4 parts of urine formation
Filtration
Reabsorption
Secretion
Water conservation
190
Define Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
Amount of filtrate formed per minute
191
Net filtration pressure is determined by
glomerular capillary pressure (BP), colloid osmotic pressure (albumin), and pressure in glom. capsule
192
Kf (filtration coefficient) is determined by
surface area and permeability of filtration membrane
193
An increased GFR leads to
increase urine output
dehydration
decreased electrolytes
194
A decreased GFR leads to
waste retention
195
Describe how the sympathetic nervous system controls GFR
increased exercise or stress causes afferent arterioles to contract, which decreases GFR and urine output, while redirecting blood to heart, brain, and muscles
196
Describe hormonal control of GFR
Angiotensin - Renin system
197
Which hormones decrease urine output to increase water retention
Renin
Aldosterone
ADH
PTH
198
What does aldosterone promote
Salt and water reabsorption
(decrease urine, increase BP)
199
What does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) promote
Water reabsorption in collecting ducts in response to dehydration
200
What does atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) promote
Water and salt excretion in response to high BP
(increase urine, decrease BP)
201
What does parathyroid hormone (PTH) promote
Kidney reabsorption of calcium and osteoclast activity to increase blood calcium levels
202
What is the purpose of the countercurrent mechanism in nephron
Retain water to avoid dehydration
203
What does the descending limb of the countercurrent mechanism do
Reabsorb water from tubule
Concentrates tubular fluid
204
What does the ascending limb of the countercurrent mechanism do
Reabsorb Na+, K+, Cl-
Maintain osmolarity of renal medulla
Dilute tubular fluid
205
What do primary sex organs produce? Name both.
Produce gametes
Ovaries and Testes
206
What are the purpose of secondary sex organs?
Essential for reproduction
207
What are the male secondary sex organs? What are their altogether purpose?
Duct, glands, and penis
Deliver sperm cells
208
What are the female secondary sex organs? What are their altogether purpose?
Uterine/fallopian tubes, uterus, and vagina
Receive sperm and nourish a growing fetus
209
What are the functions of the male reproductive system?
Produce sperm
Produce sex hormones
Deliver sperm
210
Where is sperm produced in the testes?
Seminiferous tubules
211
Seminiferous tubules drain into the tubular network called the ________
rete testis
212
What are the 2 main cells in testes?
Sertoli ("nurse") cells
Spermatogenic cells
213
What is the role of Sertoli cells?
Nourish and protect spermatogenic cells
214
What is the role of Spermatogenic cells?
Divide to create new sperm cells
215
What is the purpose of the scrotum?
Thermoregulation
216
Which 3 tissues in the scrotum control thermoregulation of the testes?
Cremaster muscle
Dartos muscle
Venous plexus
217
Define scrotum
Pouch that holds testes
218
Define spermatic cord. Where does run through?
Blood vessels, lymph vessels, and ductus deferens which run through the inguinal canal
219
How does the cremaster muscle promote thermoregulation?
They are segments of the internal oblique muscle which can contract to pull the testes closer to the body when cold
220
How does the dartos muscle promote thermoregulation?
Smooth muscles that can wrinkle the skin around the scrotum to decrease surface area to preserve heat
221
How does the venous plexus promote thermoregulation?
The countercurrent heat exchange keeps the testes at a consistent temperature
222
Describe how the countercurrent heat exchange works in the venous plexus
Arterial blood cools as it descends into testis and warms back up in vein when returning to body
Artery and vein run next to eachother so constantly exchange heat to regulate
223
Name the 4 spermatic ducts
Efferent ductules
Epididymis
Ductus deferens
Ejaculatory duct
224
The spermatic ducts are _________ sex organs
secondary
225
Describe the efferent ductules in the testis
A passageway from the rete testis to the epididymis
226
Describe the epididymis
Site of sperm maturation and storage
227
Describe the ductus deferens
Passageway from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct
228
Describe the ejaculatory duct
Leads to prostatic urethra
229
Describe the pathway of sperm from beginning to ejaculation
Seminiferous tubules - rete testis - efferent ductules - epididymis - ductus deferens - ejaculatory duct
230
Name the 3 accessory glands which contribute to seminal fluid
Seminal vesicles
Prostate gland
Bulbourethral gland
231
What are the 3 contributions to seminal fluid from the seminal vesicles? What is the purpose of each?
Fructose (ENERGY for sperm)
Fibrinogen (sticky semen)
Prostaglandins (stimulate female peristalsis)
232
What are the 2 contributions to seminal fluid from the prostate gland? What is the purpose of each?
Fibrinolysin (liquefy sticky fibrinogen after 30 min so it can MOVE up canal)
Spermine (base which stabilizes seminal pH @ 7.2-7.6)
233
What is the 1 contribution to seminal fluid from the bulbourethral gland? What is its purpose?
Alkaline pre-ejaculatory fluid (CLEANS out urethra and lubricates)
234
The penis is a ________ sex organ
secondary
235
What are 3 parts of the penis? What are the 3 tissues?
Internal root, visible shaft, and glans
1 corpus spongiosum
2 corpora cavernosa
236
Describe the corpus spongiosum
Tissue on bottom side of the penis which extends to the glans and surrounds the urethra
237
Describe the corpora cavernosa
2 bilaterial cylindrical tissues on top side of penis which have lacunae that fill with blood to erect the penis
238
What stimulates the beginning of male puberty? What happens in male puberty?
Increase in pituitary gonadotropins LH and FSH
Sperm production and testosterone release
239
What are the effects of increased testosterone levels in puberty?
Facial, pubic, and chest hair
Deep voice
Broader shoulders and muscle mass
240
What does FSH promote in male puberty?
Sperm production
241
What does LH promote in male puberty?
Testosterone production
242
What are the 5 functions of the female reproductive system?
Produce and deliver ova
Produce sex hormones
Provide nourishment and room for fetus
Birth
Nourish infant
243
What do the ovaries produce?
Eggs (ovum) and female hormones
244
Where do the eggs develop?
Within a fluid-filled follicle in the ovary
245
What are the 2 ligaments related to the ovaries?
Ovarian ligament (ovary-uterus)
Suspensory ligament (ovary-pelvic wall)
246
What are the internal genitalia of females?
Duct system (uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina)
247
What are the external genitalia of females?
Clitoris, labia minora, labia majora, and accessory glands (for lubrication)
248
The fallopian/uterine tubes are a _______ sex organ
secondary
249
Describe the fallopian/uterine tubes
Muscular tubes lined with ciliated cells
Fimbriae "catch" the released egg and move to tube
250
What are the 3 layers of the uterus?
Perimetrium
Myometrium
Endometrium
251
Describe the perimetrium
Outer serous layer of uterus
252
Describe the myometrium
Middle smooth muscle layer of uterus
253
Describe the endometrium
Inner tissue of uterus with 2 layers
Stratum functionalis = superficial layer
Stratum basalis = deep layer
254
What does the stratum functionalis do?
Sheds with each period if not pregnant
If pregnant, nourishes fetus until placenta organ grows
255
What does the stratum basalis do?
Regenerates new stratum functionalis each cycle
256
Describe the vagina and its function
Distensible/Stretchy muscular tube
Discharges menstrual fluid, births baby, receives semen
257
What are the 3 tissue layers of the vagina?
Outer serosa, middle muscularis, and inner mucosa
258
What does bacteria do in the vagina? What is the effect on pH?
Ferments glycogen in epithelial cells which makes pH acidic
259
Define transudation
The process by which erectile tissue around the vagina wall squeezes fluid out to lubricate when aroused
260
What are the 4 parts of the vulva?
Mons pubis
Labia majora
Labia minora
Vestibule
261
Define mons pubis
Mound of fat over the pubic symphysis
262
Describe the labia majora and labia minora. What do they form?
Thicker folds of skin with pubic hair
Thinner, middle folds of skin without hair
Form vestibule containing the urethra and vaginal opening, as well as the prepuce over the clitoris
263
Define vestibular bulbs
Erectile tissue around vagina which narrows vagina around the penis
264
Define greater and lesser vestibular glands
Glands which open in vestibule to provide lubrication
265
Breasts are secondary _______ __________
sex characteristics
266
Describe breasts
Adipose tissue with areola surrounding nipple
Is a modified sweat gland with mostly ducts and fat unless pregnant (which increases glandular tissue)
267
What triggers puberty in women?
Increase in GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone) which triggers anterior pituitary to release gonadotropins FSH and LH
268
Define menarche
First menstrual period
269
Which hormone causes development of sex characteristics?
Estrogen
270
Sexual reproduction involves ______ from both parents
genetic material
271
Zygote is formed by
male and female gametes
(sperm + egg)
272
Cells contain ______ pairs of chromosomes
23
273
Male sex chromosome pair =
XY
274
Female sex chromosome pair =
XX
275
Define SRY gene
Sex-determining Region of Y gene
276
What does the SRY gene do
In males, it codes for TDF (testis determining factor) protein which causes the development of testes in utero
277
What happens if the TDF protein is present?
Increased sensitivity to testosterone
Leydig/interstitial cells secrete testosterone
Sertoli cells secrete MIF (mullerian-inhibiting factor)
Mesonephric ducts devolop and paramesonephric ducts degrade
= MALE!
278
What is MIF?
Mullerian-inhibiting factor
Causes the paramesonephric ducts to degenerate so that female sex organs do not grow
279
No Y chromosome means no ____ gene which means
No SRY gene = no male hormones = FEMALE!
280
When do gonads develop in utero? How long are they identical? How are they identical?
6 weeks after fertilization = gonadal ridges
Identical from week 8-10
Have both mesonephric and paramesonephric ducts
281
The presence of testosterone and MIF =
mesonephric ducts develop
paramesonephric ducts degenerate
282
The absence of testosterone and MIF =
paramesonephric ducts develop
mesonephric ducts degenerate
283
By the end of week 12, the 3 structures become distinctly M/F
Penis OR clitoris
Penile skin OR labia minora
Scrotal skin OR labia majora
284
Why do testes descend from the pelvis
Because sperm need lower temperatures to develop and mature
285
What connects the testis to the abdominopelvic floor?
Gubernaculum (cord)
286
What is the difference between mitosis and meisosis?
Purpose?
Product?
Divisions?
Mitosis: growth, repair, replace old cells
1 cell division to produce 2 identical diploid cells (has 46 chromosomes each)
Meiosis: sexual reproduction
2 cell divisions to produce 4 haploid gametes (23 chromosomes, will join with other parent gamete)
287
What mechanisms take place during meiosis to provide genetic diversity?
Crossing over, recombination, and random assortment
288
Describe the first cell division in meiosis
Meiosis I
One homologous chromosome separates into 2 haploid cells
289
Describe the second cell division in meiosis
Meiosis II
The 2 haploid cells duplicate sister chromatids and then separate into 4 haploid cells
290
What are germ cells in germinal epithelium?
Stem cells that produce gametes
291
How do Sertoli cells promote sperm cell development?
Blood-Testis barrier is formed between tight junctions between sertoli cells
This keeps immune cells in the blood stream from attacking new sperm cells
292
Spermatagonia produces 2 types of daughter cells. Describe them
Type A
Cells outside blood-testis barrier which produce more cells until death
Type B
Cells which become spermatocytes that travel across blood-testis barrier to the lumen of seminiferous tubules
293
Describe meoisis of sperm cells
Primary spermatocyte splits into 2 secondary spermatocytes
Secondary spermatocytes duplicate chromatids and then split into 4 spermatids
294
Spermiogenesis turns ____ into _____. How?
Spermatid to Spermatozoa
Discards extra cytoplasm and grows tail
295
What are the parts of a spermatozoa
Head, midpiece, and tail
296
What is in the head of a spermatozoa
Nucleus with the haploid chromosomes
Acrosome with enzymes that penetrate the egg
297
What is in the midpiece of a spermatozoa
Mitochondria which produce ATP for the flagellar movement of the tail
298
Oogenesis happens
once a month
299
Spermatogenesis happens
Constantly
300
The female germ cells in an embryo differentiate into
oogonia
301
What occurs IN UTERO for the oogonia
Starts meiosis I to become primary oocyte
302
What happens to the primary oocytes when puberty begins?
FSH stimulates a primary oocyte MONTHLY to finish Meiosis I, creating a secondary oocyte and the 1st polar body
303
What is the difference between a secondary oocyte and polar body?
Secondary oocyte takes most of the cellular material from primary oocyte, leaves polar body with only DNA
304
The secondary oocyte starts meiosis II and then
Ovulates
305
The only way for the secondary oocyte to finish meiosis II is ______. What is the product?
Fertilization
Zygote and 2nd polar body
306
GnRH stimulates the release of what 4 hormones in men?
FSH
LH
Testosterone
Inhibin
307
In men, FSH triggers
Sertoli cells release ABP (androgen binding protein) which stimulates sperm production
308
In men, LH triggers
Interstitial cells produce testosterone
309
In men, testosterone triggers
Increased sperm production
310
If sperm count is too high, ________ inhibits _______
Inhibin inhibits FSH
311
All 4 hormones triggered by GnRH are controlled by
Negative feedback
312
GnRH stimulates the release of what 4 hormones in women?
FSH
LH
Estrogen
Progesterone
313
In women, FSH triggers
Ovarian follicular cells to develop an ovum as well as produce estrogen
314
In women, LH triggers
Ovulation (follicle bursts and becomes corpus luteum)
Corpus luteum produces progesterone
315
What is the role of estrogen and progesterone in hormone regulation?
Regulates secretions from hypothalamus and pituitary gland, also preps uterus for implantation
316
What are the phases of the Ovarian Cycle?
Follicular phase
Ovulation
Postovulatory phase
317
What are the phases of the Follicular phase in the ovarian cycle?
Menstrual (discharge menstrual fluid)
Preovulatory (1 follicle matures and "balloons" towards ovary surface and releases estrogen)
318
What triggers follicular development and maturation?
FSH
319
Define zona pellucida
"Zone of cells" surrounding egg for support
320
What fills the expanding mature follicle?
Estrogen rich fluid
321
What causes ovulation?
LH spike due to increase in estrogen
322
What weakens the ovary's wall so that the egg can exit?
Collagenese
323
What sweeps up the egg into the fallopian tubes
Fimbriae
324
What 2 phases occur during the postovulatory phase of the ovarian cycle?
Luteal (Corpus luteum forms and produces progesterone)
Premenstrual (no fertilization = corpus luteum degrades = no progesterone = menstruation)
325
What are the 3 phases of the uterine cycle?
Menstruation
Proliferative phase
Secretory phases
326
Describe the menstruation phase of the uterine cycle
Drop in progesterone causes arterial constriction which kills endometrial cells
Blood, serous fluid, and endometrial tissue are discharged
327
Describe the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle
Increase in estrogen from follicles causes increased mitosis in stratum basale of endometrium = thickened
328
Describe the secretory phase of the uterine cycle
Progesterone stimulates secretory glands to fill endometrial tissue with fluid = thickened
329
What causes an erection?
Parasympathetic system triggers nitric oxide and acetylcholine secretion which causes arteries to dilate and fill with blood
330
What occurs during female sexual excitement
Inner vagina dilates
Labia minora is vasocongested
Vaginal transudate moistens vagina
331
What occurs during female sexual plateau
Uterus is vertical
Cervix withdraws
Orgasmic platform (lower vagina) constricts penis
Clitoris engorges and withdrawn under prepuce
332
What occurs during female orgasm
Orgasmic platform (lower vagina) contracts rhythmically
Peristaltic contractions in uterus
333
What are the 2 penis arteries? What are their purposes?
Dorsal - regular blood supply
Deep - supplies lacunae of corpora cavernosa with blood to erect penis
334
What types of nerves are in the penis
Tactile, pressure, and temperature
335
What are the 2 phases of ejaculation?
Emission - sympathetic nervous system propels sperm through ducts w/ added secretions
Expulsion - semen in urethra activates muscular contractions to release sperm
336
Describe the composition of semen:
60% ______
30% ______
10% ______
along with ...
60% seminal vesicle fluid
30% prostatic fluid
10% sperm
AND
fructose, fibrinogen, prostaglandins, fibrinolysin, and spermine
337
What is the refractory period?
anywhere from 10 minutes to hours after orgasm where another erection is impossible
338
Describe fertilization
Acrosome of sperm digests zona pellucida of egg
Sperm proteins bind to egg receptors and eject nucleus
Egg completes meiosis II
Fertilization complete when chromosomes of both sex cells combine in nucleus of egg
339
An implanted zygote in the uterus produces what hormone?
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
340
What does HCG do for pregnancy?
Increases progesterone to maintain endometrium and prevents menstruation
341
Describe the hormone levels and sources in the 3 trimesters of pregnancy
1st trimester: corpus luteum releasing estrogen and progesterone while placenta develops
2nd trimester: placenta becomes main source of estrogen and progesterone as it grows and corpus luteum degrades
3rd trimester: All hormones come from placenta
342
After birth, what 2 hormones are released in response to suckling?
Prolactin - milk production
Oxytocin - milk ejection and emotional bonding
343
Describe prostate cancer:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Risk Group?
Cancer in prostate
Problems with urination, such as dribbling and issues starting/stopping
men over 65, African American men, family history
344
Describe Cervical cancer:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Risk Group?
Cancer of cervix due to HPV
Pain during sex, pelvic pain, unusual bleeding and discharge
HPV infected women, multiple sex partners, smokers, long term use of oral contraceptives
345
Describe Polycystic Ovary Syndrome:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Risk Group?
Hypersecretion of male hormones causes fluid filled sacs to develop on ovaries
Facial hair growth, infertility, irregular periods, pelvic pain, thinning hair
1 in 10 women, obese, family history
346
Describe Endometriosis:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Risk Group?
Endometrium grows outside uterus and sheds with each cycle, causing build up in abdominopelvic cavity
Pelvic pain, heavy periods, infertility
Women who never give birth, pelvic infections, family history
347
Describe Pelvic Inflammatory Disease:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Risk Group?
Infection in female reproductive tract which inflames the fallopian tubes (usually from chlamydia or gonorrhea)
Abdominal pain, fever, irregular discharge, infertility from scar tissue, increased risk of ectopic pregnancies
Under 25 with STD/STI, women with IUD, multiple sex partners
348
Describe Erectile Dysfunction:
Risk Group?
Inconsisent or complete inability to maintain erection
Older men, obesity, smokers, diabetes, certain medications (such as antidepressants), and drug/alcohol abuse
349
Describe Gonorrhea:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Treatment?
Common bacterial infection
Women often asymptomatic, burning urination, increased vaginal discharge, anal itching, soreness and bleeding, increased risk of PID in women
(Same symptoms as Chlamydia)
Treat with antibiotics
350
Describe Chlamydia:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Treatment?
MOST COMMON bacterial infection
Frequently asymptomatic, burning urination, increased vaginal discharge, anal itching, soreness and bleeding, increased risk of PID in women
(Same symptoms as Gonorrhea)
Treat with antibiotics
351
Describe Syphilis:
Cause?
Symptoms/Phases?
Treatment?
Bacterial infection which can be fatal if untreated
Primary stage: painless sores at infection site
Secondary stage: rash, swollen lymph nodes, fever
Latent stage: no symptoms
Tertiary stage: systemic infections that affect other major organs, fatal
Treat with antibiotics (penicillin)
352
Describe Human Papilloma Virus (HPV):
Cause?
Symptoms?
Treatment?
High risk strain of virus increases risk of cancer
Low risk strain of virus = gential warts
MOST COMMON VIRAL STI
Prevent with vaccines and yearly screenings
353
Describe Genital Herpes:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Treatment?
Viral STI
HSV I = cold sores
HSV II = genital herpes
Painful, itchy blisters, occur several times per year, sometimes asymptomatic but still highly infectious
