Final Review (9-12) Flashcards

(134 cards)

1
Q

In microbiology, what is considered an upper respiratory tract infection?

A

Above the trachea (larynx, pharynx, mouth)

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2
Q

In microbiology, what is considered a lower respiratory infection?

A

Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

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3
Q

What is the most important part of the respiratory tract systems defensives?

A

Mucociliary escalator

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4
Q

What is the technical name for a strep throat?

A

Pharyngitis

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5
Q

What is the name for an inner ear infection?

A

Otitis media

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6
Q

Mastoiditis is a potential complication of what condition?

A

Otitis media

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7
Q

What are possible complications if otitis media is left untreated?

A

Mastoiditis, Petrositis, or Labyrinthitis

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8
Q

What is a common complication of untreated sinus blockage?

A

Sinusitis

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9
Q

What is halitosis?

A

Bad breath

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10
Q

What is a reduced ability to smell called?

A

Hyposmia

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11
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Pharyngitis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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12
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Diptheria?

A

Corynebacterium diptheraie

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13
Q

How many types of Parainfluenza Virus (HPIV) can infection humans?

A

2 types

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14
Q

What is the common name for a Mycoplasmal Pneumonia infection?

A

Walking Pneumonia

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15
Q

What is the chief complain of Walking Pneumonia?

A

Persistent, nagging, unproductive coughing

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16
Q

What are some of the signs and symptoms of Tuberculosis?

A

Fever, weight loss, SOB, hacking cough, hemoptysis (blood in cough), night sweats

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17
Q

What are the three antibiotics included in the treatment for Tuberculosis?

A

Pyrazinamide, Rifampicin, Isoniazid

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18
Q

What are the possible diagnosis tests of Tuberculosis?

A

PPD, Mantoux or Tine

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19
Q

What is the term for a calcified tubercle found in X-ray of the lungs?

A

Ghon complex

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20
Q

What structure gets affected when you have a Pertussis infection?

A

Ciliated bronchial epithelium

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21
Q

What disease may present with subconjunctival bleeding in not treated?

A

Pertussis

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22
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetii

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23
Q

What type of bacteria grows in the placenta of infected animals?

A

Coxiella burnetii

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24
Q

What is the common name for a Psittacosis infection?

A

Parrot fever

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25
What is the etiologic agent of Parrot fever?
Chlamydia psittaci
26
what is the order of the three stages of pertussis?
Prodromal, Catarrhal, Paroxysmal, Convalescence
27
What serotype of influenza is responsible for all flu pandemics?
Serotype A (bolded in notes)
28
How long does it take for respiratory epithelium to be restored from influenza?
2-10 weeks
29
What type of infections has the appearance of coiled macrophages?
Legionella pnemophila
30
Croup cough is the common name for what infection?
Parainfluenza
31
Where in the cells does a parainfluenza virus replicate?
cytoplasm
32
Hypercapnia is a symptom associated with what disease?
RSV
33
What is the term for elevated CO2 levels?
Hypercapnia
34
What fungal disease is most commonly associated with AIDS patients?
Pneumocystis pneumonia
35
Early in the AIDS epidemic, what infection was the only indicator signifying infection with HIV?
Pneumocystis
36
What population most likely gets Blastomycosis?
Hunters (men between 20-40)
37
psittacosis is commonly known as ____
parrot fever
38
mastoiditis is a potential complication of ____
otitis media
39
what respiratory infection may present with subconjunctival bleeding?
pertussis (whooping cough)
40
respiratory syncytial virus (does/does not) present with a cough
does NOT
41
the associated mortality rate of untreated aspergillosis is ____
100%
42
what feature of the pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is destroyed in pertussis (whooping cough)?
cilia
43
the test that is used to determine prion infections is the ____
ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
44
a severe complication of untreated otitis media is ____
mastoiditis
45
where does the lower respiratory tract begin from a microbiological perspective?
trachea
46
coccidiomycosis is also known as ____
valley fever
47
early in the AIDS epidemic, infection with ____ was the only indicator signifying infection with HIV
pneumocytis
48
what are reasons for the increase in TB?
- co-infection with HIV/AIDS - increased immigration of infected persons - increased number of institutionalized elderly (all of the above)
49
which nations have more cases of avian influenza in birds?
poorer nations
50
bacterial sinusitis is commonly misdiagnosed as ____
allergic rhinitis
51
the expected mortality rate of uncomplicated influenza is ____
0.1-2.5%
52
ghon (is/is not) a test for TB
is NOT (PPD skin test, chest film, sputum sample w acid-fast staining, biopsy)
53
which virus is known in the US as sin nombre?
Hanta
54
walking pneumonia is the name given to an infection caused by ____
mycoplasma pneumonia
55
hypercapnia is associated with ____ and is an ____ level of ____
RSV elevated CO2
56
the reservoir for influenza is ____
aquatic birds
57
the most common normal flora to cause infection in both the upper and lower respiratory tract is ____
staphylococcus
58
croup is also known as ____
parainfluenza
59
what is the correct order of pertussis?
- prodromal - catarrhal - paroxysmal - covalescence
60
what disease may present with a pseudomembrane composed of bacteria fibrin and cell debris?
diphtheria
61
"oriental sore" is the common name for the disease ____
Leishmaniasis
62
severe immunosuppression in children is a complication of ____
Rubeola (measles)
63
which types of hepatitis are associated with the development of hepatocellular carcinoma
hepatitis B & C (Lecture 12)
64
the vector for spread of pneumonic plague is ____
human
65
a skin disease associated with children and poor hygiene is ____
impetigo
66
the oral disease ____ is potentially reversible
gingivitis (Lecture 12)
67
a palpable lesion containing clear fluid is a ____
vesicle
68
name 3 factors that contribute to food poisoning
- failing to cook thoroughly - allowing food to "sit" at room temp or warmer - improper storage conditions (Lecture 12)
69
african sleeping sickness is fatal because it infects the ____
brain
70
the most common etiologic agent of Traveler's Diarrhea is ____
escherichia coli (Lecture 12)
71
Loaiasis is an infection of the eye caused by a ____
worm
72
what is the inactivated poliovirus vaccine?
Salk (Lecture 12)
73
what is of significant concern to pregnant women because of the damage to the fetus?
Listeria (Lecture 12)
74
"Rabbit Fever" is the disease ____
tularemia
75
the blackened papule produced in woolsorter's disease is a(n) ____
eschar
76
scalded skin syndrome is caused by ____ toxins produced by ____
exfoliative, staphylococcus
77
"rice water stools" are associated with ____
cholera (Lecture 12)
78
"Pink eye" is the common name for the disease ____
conjunctivitis
79
infection of the veins is known as ____
thrombophlebitis
80
the skin disease that sounds like "Rice Crispies" cereal after the addition of milk is ____
gas gangrene
81
"Sin Nombre" virus is spread via ____
inhalation of dried rodent urine & feces
82
"Flesh-eating bug" is the common name for ____
necrotizing fasciitis
83
Salmonella can be transmitted by ____
exotic pets such as reptiles (Lecture 12)
84
the incubation time from ingestion until signs and symptoms is shortest in ____
intoxication (Lecture 12, bolded in notes)
85
the vector for transmission of bubonic plague is ____
flea
86
rotavirus infections are dangerous in infants and toddlers because of...
rapid dehydration (Lecture 12)
87
the most virulent bacterial infection ever known to man is ____
plague
88
this arbovirus is also known as "breakbone fever"
dengue
89
Gullain-Bare syndrome has been associated with infection by ____
campylobacter jejuni (Lecture 12, bolded in notes)
90
the most prevalent rickettsial disease in the US is ____
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
91
South American Sleeping Sickness is spread via the bite of the ____
kissing bug
92
candidiasis of the skin in babies is known as ____
diaper rash
93
Varicella-Zoster refers to the viral illness of ____ and ____
chicken pox, shingles
94
what are the insect vectors in relapsing fever?
Tick, louse
95
in rocky mountain spotted fever, the rash begins on the ____ and moves towards ____
extremities, torso
96
the most common normal flora to cause infection in both the upper and lower respiratory tract is ____
streptococcus
97
a predisposing cause of gastric adenocarcinoma is infection with ____
helicobacter pylori (Lecture 12)
98
the vector associated with Ebola is ____
unknown
99
EHEC is the acronym for ____
escherichia coli, which produces shiga toxin (Lecture 12, bolded in notes)
100
the joint predominantly affected by chronic Lyme Disease is ____
knee
101
warts are caused by ____
HPV
102
the leading eye infection in underdeveloped nations contracted via ____
vaginal birth
103
african sleeping sickness is spreading by the bile of the ____
tsetse fly
104
infection of the valves of the heart is known as ____
endocarditis
105
which of the hepatitis viruses confers life-long immunity?
hepatitis A (Lecture 12)
106
the etiologic agent of lyme disease is ____
borrelia
107
the annual influenza season is an example of ____
antigenic drift (bolded in virology lecture)
108
the most common method of contracting undulant fever in the US is consumption of ____
unpasteurized dairy produces
109
"hot tub" folliculitis is caused by ____
pseudomonas
110
the most serious and extensive form of acne is ____
nodular cystic
111
the most common treatment for the removal of warts is ____
cautery with cryotherapy
112
the most common vector in the arboviruses is the ____
mosquito
113
an endogenous infection of the digestive tract is caused by...
normal flora (Lecture 12)
114
____ accounts for 90% of nosocomial gastrointestinal infections
clostridium difficile (Lecture 12)
115
varicella is caused by ____
HHV3
116
the virus that causes severe neurological complications in developing fetuses is ____
rubella (bolded in notes)
117
blistering of the urogenital mucosa is predominantly caused by ____
human herpesvirus 2
118
hemolytic syndrome is associated with ____
escherichia coli, which produces shiga toxin (Lecture 12)
119
what digestive virus demonstrates a seasonal infection pattern?
enterovirus (Lecture 12)
120
what is the most common form of poliomyelitis?
paralytic (Lecture 12)
121
the parasitic disease Filariasis is caused by either ____ or ____
Wuchereria; Brugia
122
a localized region of pus with extensive inflammation is a ____
furuncle
123
erythema migrans is ____
bulls eye rash
124
the secondary reservoir in lyme disease is ____
deer
125
the leading eye infection in undeveloped nations is caused by ____
chlamydia trachomatis
126
tularemia may manifest as...
ulceroglandular typhoidal oculoglandular
127
fever blisters on the oral mucosa are predominantly caused by ____
human herpesvirus 1
128
undulent fever is also known as ____
brucellosis
129
the primary reservoir in lyme disease is ____
ticks
130
tooth health is directly associated with ____ health
heart (Lecture 12)
131
the most common cause of bacterial endocarditis is ____
streptococcus
132
south american trypanosomiasis is called ____
Chagas' disease
133
rotavirus outbreaks are common in ____
infants and toddlers (Lecture 12)
134
epidemic gastrointestinal infections are [related to]...
public health failures (Lecture 12)