Midterm Review Flashcards

1
Q

what emergent disease is still confined to India, Southeast Asia, and Micronesia?

A

Nipah virus

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2
Q

what is the reason for Africa’s high rate of TB infection?

A

co-infection with HIV/AIDS

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3
Q

how many types of parainfluenza infect humans?

A

2

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4
Q

the number 2 point of entry into the body is the ____

A

gastrointestinal tract

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5
Q

control groups are always used in what type of epidemiological study?

A

analytical

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6
Q

the human system involved with the majority of hospital acquired infections is ____

A

urinary

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7
Q

psittacosis is commonly known as ____

A

parrot fever

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8
Q

the most common vector is ____

A

insects

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9
Q

the type of transmission that occurs when a pathogen “rides” water/food/air is called ____

A

vehicle

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10
Q

microbes that infect the genitourinary tract are sometimes referred to as ____

A

sexually transmitted diseases

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11
Q

mastoiditis is a potential complication of ____

A

otitis media

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12
Q

a hosts ability to mount an immune defense is ____

A

immunocompetence

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13
Q

the nation with the highest TB rates with immigration into the US is ____

A

mexico

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14
Q

lockjaw is the old-fashioned name for ____

A

tetanus

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15
Q

which virus entered the US in 1999 and now is found in all contiguous 48 states?

A

west nile

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16
Q

what respiratory infection may present with subconjunctival bleeding?

A

pertussis (whooping cough)

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17
Q

the number of individuals affected by a disease during a set period divided by the total population is called ____

A

morbidity rate

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18
Q

kochs postulates provide a template for ____

A

disease transmission and communicability

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19
Q

respiratory syncytial virus (does/does not) present with a cough

A

does NOT

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20
Q

what are 3 potential reservoirs of pathogens?

A

animals, humans & non-living surfaces

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21
Q

the deadliest of the viral hemorrhagic fever is ____

A

ebola

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22
Q

the continent with the highest number of TB infected persons is ____

A

africa

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23
Q

clostridia species produce some of the deadliest of the ____

A

neurotoxins

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24
Q

the associated mortality rate of untreated aspergillosis is ____

A

100%

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25
what feature of the pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is destroyed in pertussis (whooping cough)?
cilia
26
enterotoxins work by damaging the lining of the ____
intestines
27
the test that is used to determine prion infections is the ____
ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
28
the form of prion disease that is spread to and from humans via cannibalism is ____
kuru
29
which of the following types of epidemics is over more quickly: common source or propagated
common source
30
the types of epidemiological study concerned with the physical aspects of patients and the spread of disease is _____
descriptive
31
someone who is infectious but never shows signs or symptoms of illness is a ____
carrier
32
sin nombre virus is spread via ____
inhalation of dried rodent urine & feces
33
when symptoms develop slowly and the disease lasts a long time, the disease is said to be ____
chronic
34
a severe complication of untreated otitis media is ____
mastoiditis
35
a disease that has never been seen before is classified as ____
emerging
36
where does the lower respiratory tract begin from a microbiological perspective?
trachea
37
coccidiomycosis is also known as ____
valley fever
38
where in the cell does a parainfluenza replicate?
cytoplasm
39
a virus that is transmitted to a human host by an insect bite is called ____
arbovirus
40
prions can be destroyed by ____
none of the above: cooking, disinfectants, autoclaving (resistant to all of these)
41
early in the AIDS epidemic, infection with ____ was the only indicator signifying infection with HIV
pneumocytis
42
in an illness, the first sign and symptoms appear in the ____
prodromal period
43
what are reasons for the increase in TB?
- co-infection with HIV/AIDS - increased immigration of infected persons - increased number of institutionalized elderly (all of the above)
44
in an illness, the earliest period free of signs and symptoms is the ____
incubation period
45
which nations have more cases of avian influenza in birds?
poorer nations
46
diseases that are transmitted from animals to humans are called ____
zoonotic
47
bacterial sinusitis is commonly misdiagnosed as ____
allergic rhinitis
48
when an incidence of disease is higher than expected, it is called a ____ disease
epidemic
49
the expected mortality rate of uncomplicated influenza is ____
0.1-2.5%
50
ghon (is/is not) a test for TB
is NOT (PPD skin test, chest film, sputum sample w acid-fast staining, biopsy)
51
the most dangerous effect of endotoxin poisoning is ____
disseminated intravascular clotting
52
lipid A is an ____
endotoxin
53
transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are also known as ____
prions
54
what serotype of influenza is associated with all influenza pandemics?
A
55
the total number of people infected within a population at any given time is called ____
prevalence
56
coiled macrophages are indicative of infection with ____
legionella pneumophila
57
biological vector transmission involves ____
insects, bites
58
when an uninfected person is exposed to a pathogen via touching an infected reservoir, the type of contact transmission has occurred is ____
direct
59
there are ____ categories of bacteria toxins
2
60
a place where a pathogen grows and accumulates is a ____
reservoir
61
direct damage to the host is controlled by ____
the immune response
62
which virus is known in the US as sin nombre?
Hanta
63
a disease that occurs in epidemic proportions throughout the world is called a _____
pandemic
64
walking pneumonia is the name given to an infection caused by ____
mycoplasma pneumonia
65
hypercapnia is associated with ____ and is an ____ level of ____
RSV elevated CO2
66
the ____ route refers to breaks in the skin that allow the passage of microbes
parenteral
67
the reservoir for influenza is ____
aquatic birds
68
the number one point of entry into the body is the ____
respiratory tract
69
hemolysins are ____ that ____
exotoxins destroy WBCs and RBCs
70
what substance is found ONLY in the walls of all gram+ bacteria?
M proteins
71
the majority of emerging diseases are caused by ____
viruses
72
the most common normal flora to cause infection in both the upper and lower respiratory tract is ____
staphylococcus
73
the most important part of the respiratory tract defense system is the ____
mucociliary escalator
74
what are the components of triple antibiotic therapy for TB?
- isoniazid (INH) - pyrazinamide (PZA) - rifampicin (RFP) (triple therapy cocktail)
75
what type of study is predominantly concerned with cause and effect?
analytical
76
when an uninfected individual inhales infected particulate matter expelled from an infected person, this type of transmission is called ____
droplet
77
endotoxins are released from dead ____ bacteria in the form of ____
gram- lipid A
78
what genus of bacteria have mycolic acid in their cell walls?
mycobacterium
79
the etiologic agent of Q fever is ____
coxiella
80
in an illness, the highest chance of secondary infection occurs in what period?
period of decline
81
what factors are contributing to emerging disease trends?
- global travel - war - lack of vaccination (all of the above)
82
what disease may present with a pseudomembrane composed of bacteria fibrin and cell debris?
diphtheria
83
lipid A elicits...
a strong immune response
84
what grows in the placenta of infected mammals?
coxiella
85
a common complication of untreated sinus blockage is ____
sinusitis
86
croup is also known as ____
parainfluenza
87
____ is commonly known as strep throat
pharyngitis
88
what is the correct order of pertussis?
- prodromal - catarrhal - paroxysmal - covalescence
89
an infection acquired after being treated in a hospital or clinical setting is ____
nosocomial
90
patient zero is most commonly associated with ____
propagated epidemic disease
91
an accumulation of bacteria residing on a surface is known as ____
biofilm
92
the number of new cases of a disease contracted within a set population during a specific timeframe is called ____
incidence