Grok SOPs 1000-1100s Flashcards
(152 cards)
1
Q
What is the purpose of the Infection Control Program?
A
To minimize personnel exposure to communicable diseases.
2
Q
What is the policy for infection control?
A
To provide PPE, training, education, and immunizations to personnel.
3
Q
What does the Infection Control Program include?
A
Use of all Standard Precautions.
4
Q
When should disposable gloves be worn?
A
During any patient contact.
5
Q
What PPE is used for sharp or rough edges?
A
Structural firefighting gloves.
6
Q
When is facial protection equipment required?
A
When blood, body fluids, or infectious material pose a risk.
7
Q
What is used to collect used needles?
A
Sharp’s container.
8
Q
What topics are covered in infection control training?
A
PPE use, guidelines, epidemiology, blood-borne pathogens, disposal methods, disease outbreaks, and exposure management.
9
Q
What records are maintained for training?
A
Dates, content summary, trainer qualifications, and attendee names/job titles.
10
Q
What immunizations are offered to employees?
A
Hepatitis B, influenza, tetanus, measles, mumps, rubella, polio, and diphtheria.
11
Q
What happens if an employee refuses immunization?
A
They must sign a ‘Refusal of Immunization’ form.
12
Q
Who maintains medical records?
A
The Battalion Chief of EMS, keeping them confidential.
13
Q
How are patients’ blood and body fluids treated?
A
As potentially infectious, using maximal PPE.
14
Q
How many personnel are used for on-scene operations?
A
The minimum required to safely complete tasks.
15
Q
Who should refrain from patient contact?
A
Personnel with open sores, weeping dermatitis, or unprotected abrasions.
16
Q
How long should hand washing be performed?
A
Sixty seconds with soap and water.
17
Q
What is prohibited at EMS operation scenes?
A
Eating, drinking, handling contact lenses, applying cosmetics, or smoking.
18
Q
When is mouth-to-mouth resuscitation performed?
A
As a last resort if no other equipment is available.
19
Q
What PPE is worn for airborne communicable diseases?
A
Correct size N95 particulate mask, fit tested annually.
20
Q
How is contaminated PPE disposed of?
A
Placed in leak-proof, color-coded biohazard bags.
21
Q
How is contaminated equipment handled?
A
Collected for disposal or decontamination as soon as possible.
22
Q
What is used for disinfection?
A
Approved disinfectant or 1:100 bleach and water solution.
23
Q
How is contaminated firefighting clothing cleaned?
A
Per manufacturer’s recommendation or with hot soapy water and air drying.
24
Q
What happens if an employee is noncompliant with infection control?
A
They are counseled, retrained, and may face disciplinary action.
25
What is the purpose of Exposure Protocols?
To investigate exposures and provide counseling, management, and medical attention.
26
What must an employee do after an exposure?
Immediately report to their supervisor, who contacts the Battalion Chief and DICO.
27
What constitutes an exposure incident?
Contact with blood/body fluids via percutaneous injury, exposed skin, mucous membranes, mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, or as defined by state law.
28
How is a percutaneous injury cleaned?
Washed with soap and water for five minutes, allowing free bleeding.
29
How long after exposure must testing occur?
Within two hours.
30
What reports are completed after an exposure?
Dallas County 'Request to Test Source,' 'Affidavit In Any Fact,' NFIRS 'Fire Service Casualty,' and SOP 607.0 reports.
31
Who evaluates exposure reports?
The Designated Infection Control Officer (DICO).
32
What is the purpose of Paramedic/EMT Certifications?
To ensure delivery of basic and advanced EMS.
33
What certification must Paramedics maintain?
Active Paramedic certification/license with Texas Department of State Health Services.
34
What certification is required for Driver/Engineer and above?
Minimum EMT certification.
35
What happens if a Paramedic trainee fails the National Registry Test three times?
They are terminated from employment.
36
What is an active Paramedic?
One meeting Texas Department of State Health Services requirements and operating under the Medical Director’s license.
37
What is the purpose of the Tactical Paramedic Program?
To provide EMS support during SWAT operations.
38
Who directs the Tactical Paramedic Program?
The SWAT Commander for SWAT-related matters.
39
What is the role of a Field Training Officer (FTO)?
To train and evaluate new EMTs and Paramedics.
40
How many shifts are new Paramedics evaluated by an FTO?
Up to ten shifts with one FTO, then ten with another.
41
What happens if FTOs disagree on a new Paramedic’s readiness?
The Battalion Chief of EMS determines the next course of action.
42
How long are new EMTs evaluated by an FTO?
Two to three shifts as a third rider.
43
What additional responsibilities do FTOs have?
Maintain CPR instructor certification, ACLS, attend FTO meetings, participate in CQI, and assist in EMS training.
44
What can lead to FTO suspension?
Disciplinary action, unexcused absences, unprofessional conduct, or failure to follow policy.
45
How often are FTO meetings held?
Quarterly or as needed, with mandatory attendance.
46
What is the purpose of EMS Billing?
To bill patients for MICU transport services via a third-party billing service.
47
Who can waive an EMS bill?
The Battalion Chief of EMS or the Chief of the Department.
48
What information is provided to the billing company?
Pertinent patient information per Texas Health and Safety Code.
49
What is the purpose of the Baby Moses policy?
To comply with Texas law allowing parents to surrender infants 60 days or younger.
50
What must a member do upon receiving an abandoned infant?
Notify their supervisor, who contacts Communications, Police, Battalion Chief, and EMS Division.
51
What information should be collected about the infant?
Date of birth, medical problems, allergies, and current medications.
52
Can a parent be restrained from leaving after surrendering an infant?
No, they have the legal right to leave immediately.
53
Who is notified about an abandoned infant?
Texas Department of Protective and Regulatory Services.
54
What is the purpose of the Drug Adulteration policy?
To ensure safe storage and maintenance of emergency care medications.
55
What is adulteration?
Storing a drug under conditions that compromise its safety or effectiveness.
56
Where are controlled substances stored?
In locked facilities, accessible only to authorized personnel.
57
Who receives drug shipments?
A member of the EMS Division.
58
What happens to damaged drugs upon receipt?
They are returned to the shipper with a record made.
59
How are drugs inspected?
For clarity, absence of precipitation, damage, and expiration per SOP 1009.0.
60
Who coordinates drug recalls?
The Battalion Chief of EMS.
61
What is a Class I Recall?
An emergency situation where a product could cause serious health problems or death.
62
What is a Mass Casualty Incident (MCI)?
An incident involving a number of patients that overwhelms available resources.
63
What is dispatched for an MCI with 10+ victims?
A full first alarm assignment plus all available RFD MICUs.
64
What mutual aid is available for an MCI?
Dallas County EMS MICUs, Garland and Farmers Branch MCI units, and Ambus vehicles.
65
What equipment is carried for an MCI?
Black MCI kit, Rescue Task Force bags, and additional supplies on EMS-1.
66
What does the Triage Group do in an MCI?
START
Sorts and evacuates victims using the S.T.A.R.T. triage system, maintains patient counts, and moves patients to treatment.
Simple triage and rapid treatment:
Respiration, perfusion, mental status.
Red, yellow, green, black
67
What is the role of the Treatment Group in an MCI?
Organizes treatment areas, treats victims by priority, and coordinates with Transport.
68
What does the Transport Group do in an MCI?
Manages patient transportation, coordinates hospital assignments, and maintains patient counts.
69
What triage system is used in an MCI?
S.T.A.R.T. triage system.
70
Where is the Treatment area located in an MCI?
At a safe, convenient distance from the Triage Group, near the Transport area.
71
What is the purpose of the Active Shooter RTF policy?
To guide Rescue Task Force deployment for medical care and evacuation in active shooter incidents.
72
What is a Rescue Task Force (RTF)?
A team of fire, EMS, and law enforcement providing medical care in cleared but not fully secured areas.
73
What is a Warm Zone?
An area where the threat is neutralized but not fully cleared, safe for RTF with law enforcement protection.
74
What is a Hot Zone?
An area with an ongoing active threat where RTF does not operate.
75
What is a Causality Collection Point (CCP)?
Where casualties are staged after triage and treatment by RTF.
76
What PPE is required for RTF personnel?
Protective ballistic equipment and medical PPE (gloves, eye protection).
77
Who establishes Unified Command (UC) in an active shooter incident?
The first arriving fire officer, with command transferring to a chief officer.
78
What is the optimal RTF team composition?
Four fire department members and two police officers.
79
Where does the initial RTF team move first?
To the final location of the neutralized shooter to assess patient numbers.
80
What triage method is used in the Warm Zone?
SALT (Sort, Assess, Lifesaving Interventions, Treatment/Transport).
81
What interventions are provided by RTF teams?
Tourniquets, chest seals, H bandages, and needle decompression.
82
What is a Protected Corridor?
A cleared area allowing ambulance crews to evacuate victims.
83
When is a medical officer established in an active shooter incident?
During extended operations, to manage the CCP.
84
What happens during RTF demobilization?
A debrief, personnel/equipment accounting, and mental health support.
85
What is the role of the Transport Staging Area?
To stage patients needing transport for efficient ambulance access.
86
What reports are completed for an MCI?
Patient counts, triage categories, and hospital transport records.
87
How are deceased patients managed in an MCI?
By the Triage Group, ensuring proper handling and documentation.
88
What is the role of the EMS Division in drug storage?
Maintains the primary drug storage facility and distributes drugs to stations.
89
How are Class III recalls handled?
They generally do not affect operations, with actions directed by the Battalion Chief of EMS.
90
What is the purpose of the S.T.A.R.T. triage system?
To prioritize victims based on severity for rapid sorting and treatment.
Respirations and perfusion – circulation
Mental status – RPM
Red, immediate
yellow, delayed
green, minor
black, deceased
91
What is the role of the Battalion Chief of EMS in billing?
To obtain updates on collection rates and EMS revenue.
92
How are ambulance windows managed during transport of airborne disease patients?
Opened with ventilation systems on high.
93
What is the purpose of the EMS-1 vehicle in an MCI?
To provide additional MCI and triage supplies.
94
How are contaminated boots cleaned?
Scrubbed with hot soapy water, rinsed, and air-dried.
95
What is the role of the Station Captain in drug storage?
Ensures fire station drug storage facilities are clean and orderly.
96
How are delicate equipment like radios cleaned?
Wiped with hot soapy water, a moist towel, and disinfected, then air-dried.
97
What is the purpose of the Dallas County 'Request to Test Source' form?
To request testing of the source patient for infectious diseases.
98
How are controlled substances accessed?
Only by authorized personnel, with storage facilities locked.
99
What is the role of the SWAT Commander in the Tactical Paramedic Program?
Directs SWAT-related matters, missions, and training.
100
How are new Paramedics evaluated for readiness?
By two FTOs over up to 20 shifts, with final approval by the Battalion Chief of EMS.
101
What is the purpose of the Performance Improvement Plan (PIP) for EMS?
To provide further training and coaching for EMS-related issues.
102
How are drug recalls prioritized?
Based on FDA classification (Class I, II, or III).
103
What is the role of the Protection Bubble in an active shooter incident?
A cleared area with secured entry points for safe RTF operations.
104
How are later arriving MICUs directed in an MCI?
To the Transport or Staging area as assigned by Command.
105
What is the purpose of the EMS Division in the Baby Moses policy?
To notify the Texas Department of Protective and Regulatory Services.
106
How are damaged drugs handled during inventory?
Removed from service, recorded, and destroyed.
107
What is the role of the FTO in trainee evaluations?
To guide, teach, counsel, and evaluate, ensuring patient care and trainee progress.
108
How are triage tags used in an MCI?
Affixed to patients for tracking and accountability before transport.
109
What is the purpose of the CAN report in an active shooter incident?
To provide immediate and frequent updates on conditions, actions, and needs.
110
How are spare medications handled after patient treatment?
Removed from service and destroyed if opened but not used.
111
What is the role of the Medical Director in Paramedic training?
Sets standards for curriculum and certification.
112
How is the CCP team established in an active shooter incident?
By the initial RTF team, setting up triage/treatment after choosing the CCP location.
113
What is the purpose of SOP 1100.0 Hazardous Materials Response?
To define the Richardson Fire Department's responsibilities and priorities during Hazardous Material Incidents.
114
What is the policy for Hazardous Material Incidents?
The Fire Department assumes scene management responsibility within Richardson and assists via Mutual Aid.
115
Who assumes responsibility at a Haz-Mat incident?
The Incident Commander (IC) directs all city forces involved.
116
Which station is designated as the Hazardous Material Response Team (HMRT)?
Station 5.
117
What happens if Haz-Mat 5 is out of service?
Equipment is transferred to a reserve apparatus, which functions as the Haz-Mat response vehicle.
118
What units respond to a Haz-Mat incident?
First due engine, Haz-Mat 5, Ambulance 35, and Battalion 1.
119
What triggers a Hazardous Materials Response dispatch?
"Natural gas line breaks 2\" or greater in high-risk areas or unidentified/unknown solid substances."
"What are the HMRT's responsibilities?","Assess hazards
120
What PPE is required for Haz-Mat rescue attempts?
Bunker coat, pants, boots, gloves, helmet, hood, and SCBA.
121
What does the IC do at a Haz-Mat incident?
Coordinates operations, expands Incident Management System, acquires resources, and notifies agencies.
122
Who is the Hazardous Material Coordinator?
The Assistant Chief of Operations.
123
What is the purpose of SOP 1101.0 Vehicle Extrication?
To provide procedures for extricating victims from vehicles while minimizing risks.
124
What does the Officer size up at an MVC?
Number of vehicles, injuries, vehicle types, fire risks, stability, safety systems, and hazards.
125
When can extrication begin?
"After vehicle stabilization, deploying a 1 3/4\" charged handline
126
What PPE is required in the extrication zone?
Full protective clothing, including SCBA (optional), EMS gloves, fire gloves, or extrication gloves.
127
Who oversees the extrication process?
The Rescue Group Officer, informing the IC of progress.
128
What is the purpose of SOP 1102.0 High/Low Rope Rescue?
To establish guidelines for safe and effective High/Low Angle Rope Rescues.
129
What is a low angle evacuation?
An evacuation with less than 40° inclination.
130
What is a high angle evacuation?
An evacuation with 40° to 90° inclination.
131
What does the Recon Group do?
Performs a preliminary survey to gather information on victim condition, location, and rescue needs.
132
What are the tactical objectives for rope rescue?
Arrive, assume command, size up, secure witnesses, locate victims, assess resources and hazards.
133
What makes the rescue area safe?
Removing civilians and non-essential personnel and notifying rescuers of unsecured hazards.
134
What is the order of rescue from low to high risk?
Talk victim to self-rescue, stokes extrication, belay/tag line, steep angle evacuation.
135
What safety factor is maintained for high angle rescues?
A 15:1 safety factor with double rope technique.
136
What is the purpose of SOP 1103.0 Confined Space Rescue?
To establish guidelines for conducting confined space rescue operations.
137
What is a confined space?
Areas like caverns, tunnels, or tanks with restricted ventilation and access.
138
What is assessed in the primary assessment?
Hazards, witness accounts, victim status, number of victims, and rescue vs. recovery mode.
139
What does the HazMat Group do in confined space rescue?
Conducts atmospheric testing and advises on PPE.
140
What PPE is required for confined space entry?
Long pants, eye protection, gloves, helmet, Class III harness, and SCBA or supplied air.
141
How many personnel support confined space entry?
A 2:1 ratio outside to inside, including a 1:1 standby rescue team.
142
What is the purpose of SOP 1104.0 Water Rescue?
To provide guidelines for water rescue/recovery operations using trained personnel and equipment.
143
What is the Hot Zone in water rescue?
Approximately 10 feet from the water line, including bridges or structures.
144
What PPE is required in the Hot Zone?
Swift water rescue PPE, including PFD and water rescue helmet, not structural firefighting gear.
145
What hazards are assessed in water rescue?
Volume, velocity, water temperature, floating debris, drop-offs, hydraulic effects, and depth.
146
What is the order of water rescue from low to high risk?
Talk, Reach, Throw, Row, Go.
147
What is a 'Talk' rescue?
Talking the victim into self-rescue by swimming to shore or assisting rescuers.
148
What is a 'Throw' rescue?
Throwing a throw bag or flotation device to the victim, with downstream personnel in position.
149
What is a 'Go' rescue?
A high-risk operation where a trained rescuer enters the water to reach the victim.
150
What does the Upstream Division do in swift-water rescue?
Spots floating debris and notifies Command and the Extrication Group.
151
What happens during incident termination?
Conducts PAR, accounts for equipment, restocks vehicles, debriefs, and secures the scene.
152
What is the difference between the two triage methods – SALT and START
SALT: more comprehensive, allowing, global sorting and life-saving actions. Includes tourniquet,, airway management, needle, decompression.
Allow sorting patients by following commands.
Includes gray category
START: Rapid, quickly categorizing patients, uses respiration, perfusion, mental status (RPM). no major interventions.
Used for speed with lots of patients .
