SOP 800 1000 1100's Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

What should you do if permission is denied during a preincident plan?

A

You should leave the premise and report to the AC-operations.

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2
Q

What should you do if fire or life safety hazards are observed during a pre-incident plan?

A

Attempt to have the occupants correct the issue, or if not corrected report to the prevention section.

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3
Q

When should the incident commander request an investigator via dispatch?

A

For suspected arson, fire death or injury,
substantial loss fires with undetermined cause,
fires attracting public or media interest,
explosions.

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4
Q

When is a fire investigator not necessary?

A

For minor fires
non-incendiary minor burns,
car fires from the engine compartment,
minor grass or trash fires with no witnesses,
traffic crash fires with RPD investigating.

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5
Q

Who controls the scene during a fire investigation?

A

The control of the scene is released by the incident commander to the investigator.

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6
Q

What incidents require assistance from the on-call fire investigator?

A

Fires of suspicious nature,
thermal burn injuries,
multiple alarm fires,
fires involving death or severe injury,
significant loss fires,
explosions,
hazardous conditions threatening citizens,
fire code violations creating imminent hazards.

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7
Q

How is the response of fire 1 to active emergencies activated?

A

By the determination of the incident commander.

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8
Q

How is fire 1 activated for training or other beneficial events?

A

By arrangements from the officer in charge.

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9
Q

What does level 1 EMS quality assurance require?

A

The Station Officer to check the ePCR for completeness, spelling, grammar, and documentation discrepancies.

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10
Q

When should a paramedic notify the immediate supervisor after arriving at the hospital?

A

If out of service time is greater than 30 minutes.

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11
Q

What is required for transporting a person under arrest in an ambulance?

A

An RPD officer must accompany the prisoner; no handcuffed patients are allowed without an RPD officer.

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12
Q

What must be done if there is a discrepancy in controlled substances?

A

The paramedic must immediately report to the station officer, who reports to the battalion chief and EMS division.
An audit and electronic narcotic incident report must be completed.

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13
Q

When must a discrepancy in controlled substances be reported to the Richardson Police Department?

A

If it cannot be accounted for within four hours.

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14
Q

Who establishes billing fees for patients transported by RFD MICU?

A

The Richardson City Council.

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15
Q

What does the Baby Moses law allow?

A

Parents to surrender a child less than 60 days of age.

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16
Q

What are the procedures for the Baby Moses law?

A

Notify communications, place apparatus out of service, create an incident report, notify RPD and EMS division, provide medical care if needed, and transport the child to an appropriate hospital.

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17
Q

How are drug recalls categorized?

A

Class 1 - emergency situation;
Class 2 - priority situation;
Class 3 - routine recall.

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18
Q

What constitutes a mass casualty incident (MCI)?

A

A number of patients that will overwhelm available resources.

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19
Q

What is the RFD MCI response for 10 or more victims?

A

A full alarm assignment plus all MICUs.

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20
Q

What mutual aid will be used for an MCI?

A

Dallas County mutual aid as requested by command.

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21
Q

What are the MICU assignments for different alarm levels during an MCI?

A

1st alarm - 5 MICUs and GFD MCI unit;
2nd alarm - 5 MICUs;
3rd alarm - 10 MICUs and FBFD MCI unit.

22
Q

Where are AMBUS locations?

A

Frisco FD, Flower Mound FD, Cedar Hill FD.

23
Q

What groups should be established during an MCI?

A

Triage group, treatment group, transport group.

24
Q

What does the IAP for an MCI include?

A

Establishing command,
triage group,
treatment or transport group,
coordinating with transport officer.

25
What is the composition of the rescue task force (RTF) in an active shooter response?
Optimally 4 RFD members and 2 RPD members.
26
What is the casualty collection point (CCP)?
Location where casualties are staged after treatment and triage by the RTF.
27
What is the protected corridor?
An area cleared by PD for victim evacuation by ambulance crews.
28
What should the first arriving fire department officer do in an active shooter response?
Establish command and become the initial RTF team.
29
What should the initial RTF team do?
Move past the injured to the neutralized shooter, choose a CCP, and begin assessing patients.
30
What triage method is used for rapid assessment of victims?
SALT - sort, assess, life-saving interventions, treatment/transport.
31
What does a hazmat response include?
The first due engine company, hazmat 5, Amb 35, Battalion 1.
32
What constitutes a gas leak that requires a hazmat response?
Natural gas line 2" or larger within a high-risk area.
33
What are the tactical priorities for hazmat response?
Protection of life, environment, and property.
34
What are the strategic priorities for hazmat response?
Size up, approach from upwind, advise incoming apparatus, request hazmat response level, establish a perimeter, initiate hazmat incident action plan.
35
Who should be the incident commander of a hazmat incident?
A TCFP certified hazmat incident commander.
36
Who is the HazMat Coordinator with the LEPC?
The AC-Ops.
37
What notifications are made for hazmat responses?
The AC-Ops, City health department, Chief, Assistant Chiefs, Battalion Chiefs.
38
What are the inclinations for low angle and high angle rope rescue?
Low angle is <40 degrees, high angle is >40 - <90 degrees.
39
When is technical rope rescue dispatched?
As a high angle rescue.
40
What does the recon group in a technical rescue consist of?
Two or more rescuers performing a preliminary survey together.
41
What are the tactical objectives for a high angle rescue?
First arriving officer assumes command, secure a responsible party, locate the victim, assess hazards, designate a safety officer, and conduct rescue or recovery.
42
What is the order of rescue from low risk to high risk?
Talk the victim into self-rescue, Stokes extrication, TRT assistance for terrain >40 degrees, and anchor system for nonambulatory victims.
43
What is required for evacuations of greater than 60 degrees?
TRT; these are considered high angle operations.
44
What is the safety factor for rescue rope?
15:1 safety factor, double rope technique.
45
What safety equipment is required for the TRT?
Class III harness and rescue helmets.
46
What constitutes confined spaces?
Caverns, tunnels, pipes, tanks, basements, attics, or locations with restricted ventilation and access.
47
What does the secondary assessment in a confined space rescue include?
Evaluating atmosphere hazards, energy hazards, and physical hazards.
48
What positions should the IC consider in a confined space rescue?
Safety officer, rehab group, hazmat team, atmospheric monitoring, ventilation group, rescue group.
49
Where are the hot and warm zones established in a water rescue?
The hot zone is 10 feet from the waterline; the warm zone is 50 feet outside of the hot zone.
50
What training should the safety officer at a water rescue have?
At least Swift water operations level.
51
What is the order of actions for water rescue from low risk to high risk?
Talk the victim into self-rescue, reach with a hand or object, throw a rope or flotation device, row - boat based rescue, and go - placing a rescuer in the water.