SOP 900s Flashcards

(59 cards)

1
Q

What is the only exception to the two in/two out rule?

A

Imminent life-threatening situation where immediate action could prevent a loss of life or serious injury

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2
Q

What are the tactical priorities for interior structural firefighting?

A

Rescue - primary search/Secondary search
Fire control – fire under control
Property conservation – loss stopped

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3
Q

Where should primary search be conducted?

A

All involved and exposed occupancies that can be entered

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4
Q

In what order are rescue efforts extended?

A

The most severely threatened
The largest number victims in groups
Remainder of the fire area
The exposed areas

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5
Q

What are the structure fire command strategies?

A

Offensive strategy - interior attack directed to bringing the fire under control
Defensive strategy - exterior attack directed to reduce fire extension then fire under control

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6
Q

What is the basic offensive plan?

A

Take command
Perform rescue operations/Quick fire attack
First line to support primary search
Support activities
Second line is a back up/block line
Evaluate and react

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7
Q

What determines whether to use offensive or defensive mode?

A

Fire extent, structural conditions, entry capability, ventilation capabilities, rescue ability of occupants, resources available

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8
Q

What are the five tactical objectives for a 1 alarm structure fire?

900

A

Primary search and attack line
Water supply - 2nd Engine
Ventilation
Back up and block lines unless a fire attack group or division has been established
Staging assignment. One block from the incident

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9
Q

What does the risk of evaluation include?

900

A

An assessment of the presence, survivability, and potential to rescue occupants.
With no potential to save lives, personnel shall not be committed to operations that present an elevated risk.

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10
Q

What does the risk assessment include?

900

A

An initial risk assessment to determine a strategy and tactics, and a continuous risk assessment for the duration of the incident.

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11
Q

What does risk analysis include?

A

Building characteristics and construction type
Structural conditions
Occupancy and contents
Fire factors (including estimated time of involvement and smoke conditions)
Risk to building occupants (survival assessment)
Firefighting capabilities (including resources)

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12
Q

What are the responsibilities of the blocking apparatus on an incident?

A

Officer is assigned safety officer and the crew is RIC and safety watch in the protected zone

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13
Q

What are the distances for blocking during a traffic incident?

A

Initial Block is 50 to 75 feet from the accident, Second blocking apparatus is a minimum of 100 feet from the first

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14
Q

According to Texas transportation code 545.3051, what authority does the FD have?

A

Remove vehicles or personal property from a roadway or a right of way
Consult with law enforcement before doing so, and in a manner consistent with scene safety

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15
Q

What incidents does the RIC team respond to?

A

All working interior fires beyond the incipient stage
All special hazards incidents (hazmat and spec-ops)
High-rise fires on the staging floor or lobby
The 4th arriving engine or others as assigned by the IC assume RIC responsibilities

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16
Q

When should a PAR be called?

A

Change of strategy
Code red
Lost or injured firefighter
Building collapse
20 minute intervals
Fire under control or fire out

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17
Q

What are the two categories of firefighter rescue?

A

Firefighter is trapped by collapse
Firefighter is lost in a smoke field or burning building

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18
Q

What should be done with radio channels during a Mayday?

A

Operation should be moved to a new channel, the current channel will be the Mayday channel. RIC is now rescue group on the Mayday channel

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19
Q

What should a firefighter do if lost or trapped?

A

Immediately use mayday on the radio and describe their location if they can, activate their pass, turn on flashlight, make noise, control breathing

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20
Q

Why can a lost firefighter search differ from a rescue?

A

The search area can be substantially larger than a collapse area

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21
Q

What does the firefighter withdrawal notification process include?

905

A

Code red announced twice by IC

The IC will have dispatch sound withdrawal tones for 10 seconds

IC - “All companies from command we have a code red structural collapse, withdraw” repeated twice

Withdrawal tones for 10 seconds again

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22
Q

What should company officers do after a code red?

A

Confirm the exit of all company members and give a PAR to their supervising commander.

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23
Q

Who is the designated safety officer of the fire department?

A

The assistant chief of operations, responsible for the management of the wellness program

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24
Q

What is the responsibility of the incident safety officer?

A

The health and safety of all personnel on the scene of an incident
The immediate correction or halting of unsafe situations that create an eminent hazard to personnel

25
What authority does the incident safety officer have?
Alter, suspend, or terminate unsafe activities, and inform the IC of any action taken to correct hazards
26
When should hearing protection be worn?
At noise levels of 90 dB or higher
27
What should engine discharge pressure be during standpipe and sprinkler operations?
150 psi at the FDC +5 psi per floor beginning with the second. Never exceed the test pressure of the LDH (300 for HP, 200 for non)
28
What should be considered when high pressure at the FDC exceeds 200 psi?
A supply Engine at the hydrant with a discharge pressure of 150 psi to the attack engine
29
What is a safe refuge area in a high-rise?
Three floors below the fire floor
30
Where is staging located in a high-rise?
Two floors below the fire floor
31
What is the responsibility of logistics in a high-rise?
Providing facilities, services, and materials for the incident
32
What is the role of access control in a high-rise incident?
Coordinating access to the incident in a residential high-rise, routing arriving crews to the correct stairwell or standpipe
33
How is a high-rise defined?
Any structure that is four or more stories above the ground level
34
What is the base in a high-rise incident?
A specific location for the parking of apparatus and stocking of resources
35
How does the relief cycle maintain a constant application of water?
Using three companies for each hand line in operation. An attack line crew, a relief company in the stairwell, a third company in staging
36
When may elevators be used in a high-rise incident?
For incidents above the 5th floor, elevators must be stopped 2 floors below the fire floor
37
What does the IAP for a commercial high-rise begin with? 909
1st engine company, officer is command and the driver is lobby control 2nd engine company the officer is division leader on the fire floor 3rd engine company established water supply for sprinkler/standpipe
38
What does the IAP for a residential high-rise begin with? 909
1st Engine company, officer is command and the driver is access control. The officer and crew will perform an interior size up for the best entry point and standpipe connection and begin evacuation 2nd engine company establish water supply for standpipe/sprinklers 3rd engine company will affect a quick fire attack, officer is division leader
39
What is the IAP for high-rise parking garage response?
1st Engine company officer assumes command, remaining crew locate and connect to the standpipe 2nd Engine company establish water supply
40
What should the IC establish for a 2nd alarm response to a high-rise fire?
Establish staging and/or a base manager and incoming units will report to those locations
41
When should members undergo rehab according to the policy of the RFD?
Following a 2nd SCBA cylinder or 40 minutes of intense work without an SCBA
42
What should the 2nd arriving MICU establish unless the IC determines otherwise?
REHAB
43
How long should members remain in rehab?
For 10 minutes unless the medical evaluation requires a longer duration
44
What are the procedures for IN Line Foam Eductors?
200 psi, up to 150 feet of 1 3/4" hose, TFT nozzle at 125 gpm, educator set to correct 1-6
45
When should PPV not be used on attic fires?
Unless a ventilation hole has been established close to the area of the fire
46
What is required for the use of PPV?l.
A charged hose line at the seat of the fire, only one entrance and one exhaust opening
47
What are the PPV guidelines for correct usage?
Tilt the fan to 20-30° The exhaust opening should be 75 to 110% of the entrance opening Single fan placed about 6 feet from the door Multiple fans for single doors placed 2 feet and 6 feet in line Double doors require fans side-by-side
48
Automatic alarms may be canceled by the alarm co while enroute, and the responding unit may clear, unless any of the following are present: 913
waterflow alarm, activated pull station recurring alarm at the same address within 24 hours The alarm is at a multifamily complex, assisted-living, nursing facility, or school during normal school hours Respond code 3, unless information dictates to reduce to code 1
49
What can an officer do during an automatic alarm investigation if no responsible party is on the scene?
Attempt to silence and reset the fire alarm after investigation
50
What happens if the officer successfully resets the alarm and a subsequent alarm occurs?
Each additional alarm must be investigated and documented completely on its own merit
51
What is required if resetting an automatic alarm two more times during a 24 hour period or if a fire watch is implemented?
Notification via email to the FMO
52
What certification must an instructor have for live fire training?
At least certified TCFP instructor 1 or higher
53
What certifications must an RFD training officer have?
TCFP instructor III and safety officer
54
Who has the authority to intervene and control any aspect of operations during a live fire event?
The safety officer and the training officer
55
What are the restrictions of using the class A burn room?
Flammable or combustible liquids are prohibited. Only Class A materials shall be used
56
What are the live fire training clearance distances?
Observers must stay 60 feet away Apparatus must be parked 50 feet away Debris from class A must be removed 10 feet away
57
What guidelines must be used with a CO response?
Determine detections of >9ppm SCBA must be used with detections of >35ppm <10ppm, advise occupants that we did not detect elevated level of CO >10ppm and <100ppm inform this is potentially dangerous, recommend all persons leave, begin ventilation, shut down suspected appliances >100ppm potentially lethal level, advise to leave immediately, begin ventilation, shut down suspected appliances
58
What distance should be maintained when aerial devices are used in proximity to electrical lines?
No less than 12 feet from the electrical source
59
What is the proper placement of an aerial ladder for rescue?
Tip inside of a windowsill, first rung even with the windowsill The tip at > 3 feet <6 feet from the edge of a roof