Gros SOPs 700-900s Flashcards
(209 cards)
1
Q
A
2
Q
What is the purpose of the National Incident Management System (NIMS)?
A
To provide a systematic, proactive approach to guide departments and agencies at all levels to work seamlessly to prevent, protect against, respond to, recover from, and mitigate incidents.
3
Q
What is the policy of the Richardson Fire Department regarding NIMS?
A
To implement NIMS at all emergency incidents, drills, exercises, and situations involving hazards similar to actual emergencies.
4
Q
Which incidents require the use of NIMS according to the Richardson Fire Department?
A
All emergency incidents, including transmitted alarms, rescues, hazardous material incidents, and EMS/mass casualty incidents.
5
Q
How is command handled in small-scale incidents like still alarms?
A
The assumption of command is informal, but one individual is always in overall command.
6
Q
What authority does the Incident Commander (IC) have?
A
The IC can modify standard assignments to meet incident needs and must clearly identify the parameters of any deviation.
7
Q
What is required of all Richardson Fire Department personnel regarding NIMS?
A
All personnel must be familiar with NIMS, and officers ensure their assigned personnel understand and use the system effectively.
8
Q
What should personnel do if they receive a conflicting order?
A
Inform the officer who issued the conflicting order and follow their instructions; the new order issuer must inform the original order issuer.
9
Q
What training is required for Richardson Fire Department personnel in NIMS?
A
Initial and annual continuing education training in NIMS.
10
Q
What are the five major NIMS functional areas?
A
Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance.
11
Q
What is the role of the Command functional area?
A
Responsible for all incident activities, including strategic decisions and approving resource ordering and release.
12
Q
What does the Operations functional area do?
A
Reports to Command and handles tactical activities to reduce hazards, save lives and property, establish control, and restore normal operations.
13
Q
What is the responsibility of the Planning functional area?
A
Collects, evaluates, and disseminates incident information and tracks resource status.
14
Q
What does the Logistics functional area provide?
A
Facilities, services, materials, and other resources to support the incident.
15
Q
What is the role of the Finance functional area?
A
Handles financial and cost analysis for the incident.
16
Q
What are the three Command Staff functions in NIMS?
A
Information, Safety, and Liaison.
17
Q
What does the Information Command Staff function do?
A
Formulates and releases information about the incident to media and other agencies.
18
Q
What is the Safety Command Staff function responsible for?
A
Monitoring and assessing hazardous situations and developing measures for personnel safety.
19
Q
What does the Liaison Command Staff function do?
A
Serves as the point of contact for assisting and cooperating agency representatives.
20
Q
Who is responsible for the Command function at all times?
A
The Incident Commander (IC), with responsibility shifting as the IC changes.
21
Q
What are the objectives of Command procedures?
A
Fix command responsibility, ensure strong command, establish an effective framework, provide orderly transfer, and utilize resources effectively.
22
Q
What are the initial responsibilities of the Incident Commander?
A
Assume an effective command position, evaluate the situation, transmit an initial radio report, develop and communicate strategy, and conduct safe operations.
23
Q
What are the continuing responsibilities of the Incident Commander?
A
Provide ongoing command, review and revise plans, request additional units, and terminate command when appropriate.
24
Q
What are the specific outcomes assigned to Command?
A
Ensure personnel safety, remove endangered occupants, treat the injured, confine the fire, and conserve property.
25
Who establishes Command at a major emergency incident?
The first arriving officer.
26
What are the three basic modes of operations for Command?
Nothing Showing Mode,
Fast Attack Mode,
Command Mode.
27
What happens in Nothing Showing Mode?
Requires investigation by the first arriving company, with other units standing by until assigned.
28
What is Fast Attack Mode?
Requires immediate action to stabilize, involving the officer directly, typically lasting a few minutes.
29
What is Command Mode?
Requires strong, direct command from the outset due to the incident’s size or complexity.
30
What remains the officer’s responsibility in all command modes?
The officer is fully responsible for all Command function responsibilities.
31
Why is an ongoing plan of action important?
To achieve professional results with minimum confusion, maximum efficiency, and safety.
32
How should a transfer of Command be executed?
Ideally through a face-to-face meeting between the relieving and relieved officers.
33
What information is shared during a Command transfer?
Incident conditions, control progress, safety considerations, unit deployments, and resource needs.
34
How is a Command transfer communicated if a face-to-face meeting isn’t possible?
Via the incident radio channel, directed to the current IC.
35
Where are all Command transfers reported?
To the Communications Center.
36
Who must Command be transferred to upon arrival?
A higher-ranking officer, up to and including the Battalion Chief.
37
Can Chief officers higher than Battalion Chief assume Command?
They have the option to assume Command.
38
When can Command be transferred down the chain?
If the Command officer needs to clear for another incident.
39
When is Command terminated?
When the Command function is no longer required to manage the incident.
40
What is an example of terminating Command?
Sherwood Command announces 'Fire is Out' and terminates command, with dispatch repeating and time-checking.
41
What are the exterior sides of a structure called in NIMS?
Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, and Delta, designated clockwise from Side Alpha.
42
How is a Division Officer designated for an external geographic location?
By their geographic location, e.g., Division Charlie for Side Charlie.
43
How are interior floors designated in NIMS?
As Divisions, numbered by floor number, e.g., Division 3 for the third floor.
44
How are floor sections divided?
Into four quadrants: Alpha (front left), Bravo, Charlie, and Delta, proceeding clockwise.
45
What is the designation for the roof of a structure?
Roof Division, which may be divided into Roof Division Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, and Delta.
46
How is the basement designated?
Basement Division, which may be divided into Basement Division Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, and Delta.
47
How are exposures numbered?
By the side of the fire building, e.g., Exposure Delta for the closest exposure on Side Delta.
48
What does the first arriving fire officer include in the initial size-up report?
Unit number, address and side, occupancy type, smoke/fire conditions, actions taken, command name, and assignments.
49
How often does Command transmit an update report?
Every 15 minutes.
50
What information is included in an update report?
Life safety (injuries, disposition), tactical operations (hose lines, water flow, etc.), and progress (fire status, anticipated extinguishment).
51
What is Level I Staging?
Units position uncommitted one block from the scene until assigned, reporting their location.
52
What is Level II Staging?
Formal staging for third or greater alarms, in a designated area away from the Command Post.
53
Who becomes the Staging Officer if not designated?
The first arriving officer in Level II Staging.
54
What are the responsibilities of the Staging Officer?
Check-in resources, dispatch resources as requested, and inform Operations of available resources.
55
What is the radio designation for the Staging Officer?
STAGING.
56
Who manages hot and warm zones in hazardous material incidents?
The officer in charge of the Hazardous Material Response Team, referred to as HAZ-MAT OPERATIONS.
57
What are the responsibilities of HAZ-MAT OPERATIONS?
Safety and control in zones, hazard assessment, coordinating operations, and providing reports to Command.
58
What are the four categories of Emergency Medical Services incidents?
Routine, Multiple Casualty, Mass Casualty, and Disasters.
59
Who is assigned to manage the Medical Branch in mass casualty incidents?
A qualified person assigned by the IC, referred to as MEDICAL.
60
What does the MEDICAL officer do?
Advises the IC, assigns triage, treatment, and transportation functions, alerts hospitals, and coordinates resources.
61
What is the role of TRIAGE in EMS?
Controls and coordinates evaluating and sorting victims, determining treatment priority.
62
What does TREATMENT do in EMS?
Manages treatment activities before transport, organizes supplies, and keeps records.
63
What is the role of TRANSPORTATION in EMS?
Manages transportation needs, selects victims and hospitals, and keeps the medical officer informed.
64
What is the purpose of the Richardson Fire Department’s communication procedure?
To provide a consistent method of communicating information over the radio.
65
How should radio transmissions to dispatch begin?
By requesting dispatch to acknowledge, e.g., 'Dispatch from Engine 1.'
66
What does 'in-service' mean for apparatus?
Apparatus is considered in-service unless the Officer informs the PST it is out of service.
67
How should radio messages be communicated?
Clearly, calmly, short, and to the point; long messages use a separate talk group or telephone.
68
What does 'Affirmative' mean in communications?
The communication message is correct (Yes).
69
What is a Code 1 response?
No audible or visible warning devices, obeying all traffic codes.
70
What is a Code 3 response?
Uses audible and visible warning devices, may disregard traffic codes with safety.
71
What is the NIMS Order Model of Communications?
A standardized process: Sender calls Receiver, Receiver acknowledges, Sender transmits, Receiver repeats, Sender confirms.
72
How is an alarm notification handled at the station?
PST provides response order, call type, address, cross streets, and time; station acknowledges with 'Received.'
73
What does the first responding apparatus transmit for a single company response?
Radio designation, address enroute, call type, and address upon arrival.
74
What information is transmitted for EMS patient information via cellular phone?
Apparatus designation, hospital destination, code and priority, and ETA.
75
When is patient information transmitted over the radio?
When cellular phone use is impractical, including age, gender, chief complaint, and ETA.
76
How is a helicopter transport requested?
The officer requests a helicopter via the PST, who provides company and ETA details.
77
What is included in a fire ground size-up?
Apparatus designation, address and side, occupancy, smoke/fire conditions, actions, command name, and assignments.
78
What happens when 'Nothing Showing' is reported?
IC reports response code for incoming apparatus and may designate units to disregard.
79
What are fire ground benchmarks communicated to the PST?
Primary/Secondary Search, Water on Fire, Fire Under Control, Fire Out, Personnel Accountability, and significant events.
80
How is a police request communicated?
Provide address, reason for police, and requested response code.
81
What is a Code BLUE request?
An immediate Code 3 police response without explanation due to the situation, e.g., violent individual.
82
What radio talk group is used for standard fire department communications?
RFD1.
83
What is OPS 2 used for?
Primary talk group for multiple company incidents like structure fires or rescues.
84
When are OPS 6 and 7 talk groups used?
For encrypted communications, e.g., bomb threats or secure incidents.
85
What is the radio designation for the Shift Battalion Chief?
Battalion 1.
86
What is the radio designation for the EMS Division Vehicle at Station 1?
EMS 1.
87
What is the response code for a Cardiac/Resp Arrest (Call #409)?
Code 3, with 1 MICU and 1 engine.
88
What is the response code for a Fall/Back injury (Call #417)?
Code 3, with 1 MICU.
89
Who has discretion to upgrade or downgrade response codes?
The officer of the fire apparatus or paramedic on the ambulance.
90
What happens if an employee’s driving record becomes unacceptable?
Transfer/demotion to a non-driving position or termination after review.
91
Who is responsible for paying traffic fines for department vehicles?
The employee operating the vehicle.
92
Who can ride in RFD emergency response vehicles?
Authorized observers after completing the Observation Liability Waiver.
93
What is the attire rule for ride-out participants?
No 'Richardson Fire' clothing or RFD uniforms without approval.
94
Who approves media ride-outs?
The Chief of the Department.
95
What is the purpose of the Air Pollution Watches and Warnings policy?
To comply with TCEQ guidelines and protect employees from unsafe environments.
96
What is an Air Pollution Watch?
Conditions favorable for dangerous Air Quality Index levels, usually posted the previous day.
97
What actions are taken during an Air Pollution Warning?
Limit driving, postpone yard mowing, and limit outdoor exertion.
98
What is a Line of Duty Death (LODD)?
Death of an active member in the line of duty or classified as LODD.
99
Who decides the level of funeral services for other departments?
The Chief of the Department, on a case-by-case basis.
100
When is the Class 'A' uniform worn?
For Fire Service funerals and funerals of RFD personnel family members.
101
What is an Unmanned Aerial System (UAS)?
A powered aerial vehicle (drone) that records or transmits data, flown autonomously or remotely.
102
Who is the Pilot in Command (PIC) for UAS operations?
The UAV operator with final authority over the UAS operation.
103
What are the conditions for nighttime UAS operations?
Urgent, life-threatening circumstances, with a Visual Observer and specific equipment.
104
What is the altitude limit for UAS flights?
Below 400 feet above ground level.
105
What happens in a UAS lost link emergency?
The UAV returns to a predetermined location and lands.
106
What is the Turnout Time objective for EMS responses?
60 seconds, achieved 90% of the time.
107
What is the Travel Time objective for a first arriving engine at a fire?
240 seconds or less.
108
Why is safety emphasized in response times?
Safety is prioritized over speed; all safety procedures and laws must be followed.
109
What is an Information Bulletin used for?
Informational communications, e.g., exam announcements or promotions.
110
What is a General Directive?
Mandatory policy communications, e.g., operational changes or equipment guidance.
111
Where are Information Bulletins and General Directives saved?
In the Memo folder at H:memos, named by number and topic.
112
What is the purpose of SOP 900.0 Emergency Operations?
To provide standards for responding to emergency calls by the Richardson Fire Department.
113
What is the policy for emergency responses by the Richardson Fire Department?
To respond to emergency and nonemergency calls safely and effectively, per department policies.
114
How is incident command established at Fire Department incidents?
Through formal declaration or informally on small-scale incidents, with one individual always in overall command.
115
What must the Incident Commander (IC) ensure regarding personnel?
An adequate number of personnel are on scene to safely conduct tactical assignments.
116
Who can be assigned Incident Management roles?
Qualified sworn fire department members, unless the role requires specific non-fire training.
117
When must the IC assign an Incident Safety Officer?
When the incident’s size or scope exceeds their ability to manage safety or when deemed appropriate.
118
What authority does the Incident Safety Officer have?
To alter, suspend, or terminate unsafe activities and inform the IC of actions taken.
119
What should the IC do regarding resources?
Proactively request additional resources and release unneeded companies as complexity decreases.
120
What is the 'Two In / Two Out' directive for interior structural firefighting?
At least four fire suppression personnel must be on scene before entering an IDLH atmosphere, except in imminent life-threatening situations.
121
How many personnel make the initial entry into an IDLH atmosphere?
A minimum of two, maintaining visual or voice contact.
122
What is required of personnel outside the IDLH atmosphere?
Two personnel equipped with PPE and respiratory equipment to perform rescue, one monitoring the interior crew.
123
What are the basic tactical priorities for structural firefighting?
Rescue, Fire Control, and Property Conservation, addressed in order.
124
What is the benchmark for completing the Rescue priority?
Primary and secondary search completion.
125
What is the benchmark for Fire Control?
Fire under control.
126
What is the benchmark for Property Conservation?
Loss stopped.
127
How should search and rescue be performed?
Efficiently, in a well-planned manner, with crew safety in mind.
128
How many members conduct search activities?
Teams of two or more.
129
What protects search crews exposed to fire conditions?
A charged hose line to ensure a safe escape route.
130
What does a primary search involve?
Searching all involved and exposed occupancies that can be entered.
131
Who coordinates primary search assignments?
The Incident Commander, who reports 'primary search complete' to Communications.
132
What is a secondary search?
A thorough search of the fire area after initial fire control and ventilation.
133
In what order should rescue efforts be extended?
Most severely threatened, largest groups, remainder of fire area, exposed areas.
134
How should hose lines be placed to support rescue?
To control interior access, protect escape routes, and confine the fire.
135
What is the goal of firefighting efforts?
To stabilize fire conditions with an aggressive, well-placed interior attack.
136
What are the two modes of fire attack strategy?
Offensive (interior attack) and Defensive (exterior attack).
137
What factors determine the offensive/defensive mode?
Fire extent, structural conditions, entry capability, ventilation, rescue ability, and resources.
138
What is the basic offensive plan for fire control?
Take command, perform rescue, aggressive interior attack, support activities, backup line, and evaluate success.
139
What is the basic defensive plan for fire control?
Take command, evaluate fire spread, identify tactical problems, prioritize streams, provide master streams, and request resources.
140
How do salvage operations reduce damage?
Quick and efficient operations reduce smoke and water damage.
141
What are the five tactical objectives in structural firefighting?
Rescue, Exposures, Confinement, Extinguishment, and Overhaul.
142
When is a higher level of risk acceptable?
Only when there is a realistic potential to save known, endangered lives.
143
What is the rule regarding firefighter safety and property?
No property is worth the life of a firefighter.
144
When is no risk to firefighters acceptable?
When there is no possibility to save lives or property.
145
When should firefighters avoid interior operations in abandoned buildings?
Unless in the earliest fire stages, if known or believed to be unoccupied.
146
What must the IC evaluate in every situation?
The level of risk, including presence, survivability, and potential to rescue occupants.
147
What does a risk analysis for a structure fire consider?
Building characteristics, construction type, structural condition, occupancy, fire factors, occupant risk, and firefighting capabilities.
148
What is the purpose of SOP 901.0 Apparatus Blocking & Roadway Incidents?
To ensure safe parking and operational practices at vehicle-related incidents.
149
What is the policy for apparatus positioning at roadway incidents?
To protect the incident scene, personnel, and the public from moving traffic hazards.
150
What vehicles are dispatched for a major freeway accident?
Two engines and the blocker, if available.
151
What is a Blocker?
A fire department vehicle staffed to provide roadway blocking protection.
152
What is a Protected Zone?
An area shielded by safely positioned apparatus.
153
What is the role of the first arriving apparatus at a roadway incident?
To protect the scene, patients, and personnel by establishing a Protected Zone.
154
How should apparatus be angled on the roadway?
Block to the left or right to create a barrier and guide traffic.
155
Where should MICUs be positioned?
Within the Protected Zone, with the rear door angled away from moving traffic.
156
What is the role of the second arriving apparatus?
Positioned upstream to create a taper, remaining until released by the IC.
157
What does the blocker do if it arrives first?
Creates a Protected Zone, blocking at least one additional traffic lane.
158
How is traffic channeled at a roadway incident?
Using traffic cones and flares to direct traffic away from the Protected Zone.
159
What is the purpose of SOP 902.0 Rapid Intervention Company (RIC)?
To provide a fully equipped rescue team for immediate firefighter rescue in IDLH environments.
160
When is a RIC team required?
At working interior structural fires beyond the incipient stage and other IDLH or high-risk incidents.
161
Which apparatus assumes RIC responsibilities at a structure fire?
The 4th arriving engine or as assigned by the IC.
162
What should RIC teams monitor while enroute?
The tactical radio channel, using a tactical work board to note company locations.
163
What equipment do RIC team members carry?
Full PPE, SCBA, RIC/SCBA rescue kit, and thermal imaging camera.
164
What happens when a RIC team is deployed?
Another RIC team should be assigned as soon as possible.
165
What does the IC do when a firefighter is reported lost or trapped?
Deploys RIC teams to the last known location and adjusts the incident action plan.
166
What is the purpose of SOP 903.0 Personnel Accountability System?
To recognize lost or trapped firefighters and provide rapid search and rescue response.
167
What are the performance standards for personnel accountability?
Awareness, access control, personnel identification, rapid safety confirmation, and rapid search/rescue response.
168
When are Personnel Accountability Reports (PARs) called?
At strategy changes, Code Red, lost/injured firefighter reports, building collapse, 20-minute intervals, and fire under control/out.
169
What is required for company integrity?
Observing the buddy system and retaining the company passport with the Company Officer.
170
What is the purpose of SOP 904.0 Firefighter Rescue?
To outline the process for rapid search and rescue of lost or trapped firefighters.
171
What are the two categories of firefighter rescue needs?
Trapped by a collapse or lost in a smoke-filled/burning building.
172
What should the IC consider after a Mayday is declared?
Establish Operations, assign command officers, convert RIC to Rescue Group, call additional resources, and establish a new RIC.
173
What aids search efforts for a trapped firefighter?
Last known location, radio requests, visible sightings, shouts, tapping, PASS device tones, and thermal imaging.
174
What should a trapped firefighter do?
Declare 'Mayday,' activate PASS device, control breathing, describe location, and use tools to aid rescue.
175
What happens after a building collapse?
The IC announces the collapse, initiates evacuation, conducts a Roll Call, and deploys Rescue Group.
176
What is the purpose of SOP 905.0 Firefighter Withdrawal?
To ensure rapid and complete withdrawal from unsafe structures or hazard zones.
177
What is the audible warning for emergency withdrawal?
The 'Emergency Withdrawal' tone from Dispatch, sounded for ten seconds.
178
What is the alert phrase for withdrawal?
'Code Red,' announced twice over the incident radio talk group.
179
How do company members exit during withdrawal?
Together, using the same exit path, unless safety dictates otherwise.
180
What is the purpose of SOP 906.0 Safety Officer?
To identify the obligations of the Fire Department and Incident Safety Officers.
181
Who is the Fire Department Safety Officer?
The Assistant Chief of Operations.
182
What qualifications are required for the Fire Department Safety Officer?
Meets NFPA 1021 and 1521 standards, with knowledge of safety laws and hazards.
183
What is the purpose of SOP 907.0 Hearing Protection?
To describe the proper use and maintenance of personal hearing protectors.
184
When must personal hearing protectors be used?
When noise levels may reach 90 decibels or higher, except when they pose a safety hazard.
185
What is the purpose of SOP 908.0 Standpipe / Sprinkler Operations?
To identify proper hydraulics and connection procedures for standpipe and sprinkler systems.
186
What is the engine discharge pressure formula for standpipe/sprinkler systems?
150 PSI at the FDC + 5 PSI per floor of elevation, starting from the second floor.
187
What is the purpose of SOP 909.0 High-Rise Operations?
To outline the initial and sustained action plan for high-rise fire operations.
188
What is a High Rise?
Any structure four or more stories above ground level.
189
What is the Initial Action Plan (IAP) for high-rise fires?
A framework for pre-assigned tasks to mitigate the incident quickly and safely.
190
What is the role of the first engine in a commercial high-rise response?
Officer assumes Command, Driver/Engineer assumes Lobby Control.
191
What is the purpose of SOP 910.0 Rehabilitation?
To ensure personnel’s physical and mental condition does not deteriorate during operations.
192
When is Rehab established?
At emergencies, training, or events with strenuous activity or extreme conditions.
193
What does Rehab include?
Medical evaluation, hydration, nourishment, rest, and relief from extreme conditions.
194
What is the purpose of SOP 911.0 Foam Operations In-Line Eductor?
To describe techniques for using an In-Line Foam Eductor for foam operations.
195
What is the flow rate of RFD in-line foam eductors?
125 GPM, matched by the nozzle setting.
196
What is the purpose of SOP 912.0 Positive Pressure Ventilation?
To provide guidelines for using PPV when fire conditions are favorable.
197
When should PPV not be used?
In potential backdraft situations, attic fires without roof ventilation, or after attack teams have entered.
198
What is the purpose of SOP 913.0 Response to Automatic Alarms?
To outline procedures for responding to and investigating automatic alarm calls.
199
What is a False Alarm?
An intentional or malicious act to activate an alarm knowing no emergency exists.
200
When can a responding unit clear an automatic alarm?
If the alarm company cancels and it’s not a water flow, pull station, recurring, or specific facility alarm.
201
What is the purpose of SOP 914.0 Live Fire Training?
To establish guidelines for safe live fire training per TCFP and NFPA standards.
202
Who is the Instructor-In-Charge?
A certified TCFP Instructor I or higher, responsible for the fire training evolution.
203
What is the purpose of SOP 915.0 Bomb Threats and Explosions?
To assist with scene safety during bomb threat and explosion responses.
204
How does the Fire Department respond to bomb threats?
An Engine Company responds Code 1, stages safely, and does not search for devices.
205
What is the purpose of SOP 916.0 Carbon Monoxide (CO) Response?
To establish guidelines for responding to CO incidents.
206
What is the maximum safe CO level per OSHA?
35 PPM over an 8-hour period in the workplace.
207
What is the purpose of SOP 917.0 Aerial Device Safety?
To ensure safety during aerial device operations.
208
What is the general safety rule for aerial device motion?
No personnel should be on the aerial device while it is in motion.
209
When should the aerial device be used for rescue?
As a last resort for removing victims.
