Haz Mat Flashcards by pete b

DOT requires placards to be posted only on trucks transporting over _

1000 lbs of a particular material

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Does asbestos in its natural state intact present health hazards

No- hazards created when it becomes friable & allowed into atmosphere and inhaled or ingested. This is caused by fire ops

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CO Meter Low alarm vs High alarm

Low visual & audible w/slow vibration (every 1 second) >35 PPM- 100 PPM;
High audible w/fast vibration > 100 ppm every 1/2 second

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5 ways chemicals can gain entrance into body “I-PIES”

Inhalation, 
Puncture, 
Ingestion, 
Eyes, 
Skin contact/absorption (Radiation NO eyes)

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Tank failure under fire conditions usually occur in the _ area of tank when sufficient water cannot be applied

Vapor Area (sometimes frost line shows liquid level)

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At what PPM must Evacuation occur for CO

100 PPM/Greater. Less than 100 PPM recommend evacuation until levels fall to 9/less PPM

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CO meter calibrated every _

If CO meter malfunctions for any reason what is done

6 months by Fire Tools & Equipment (Ultra Rad calibrated Annually)

Notify Battalion & arrange for exchange (RT-2)

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What must be done when it’s determined operations involve asbestos contamination

10-80 specifying asbestos, minimize contact, use SCBA, & wet asbestos w/fog nozzle or spray stream to prevent fibers from becoming airborne, limit overhauling, & prevent cross contamination

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T/F The 1st Lad performed thorough & complete overhauling of suspected asbestos covering in order to limit exposure to other units. Is this a good action?

False Limit overhaul to minimum and use Haz-Mat Unit to complete overhaul.

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Incorrect
A. Propane can BLEVE. A satisfactory performance of a relief valve cannot prevent a BLEVE
B. Impact failure of a cylinder in a transportation accident can also cause a BLEVE
C. Dual fueled fire in vehicle involving either gasoline or propane should not be ext except by shutting off the flow of escaping propane
D. Rank relief valves on passenger cars are positioned within 45 degrees of vertical

C PROPANE fire should not be ext except by shutting off flow of escaping propane.
GASOLINE fire use foam, dry chem or water spray & at same time cool the propane cylinder with hose streams to prevent a BLEVE.

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Natural gas is (heavier/lighter) than air

Methanol is destructive to ordinary foam. Instead use _

Lighter (2/3 as heavy)

Purple K is most effective. Alcohol foam works. Small fires Type B Dry Chem adequate.

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LPG: Keep everyone, not engaged in operations at least _’ from front & rear & _’ from sides

1000; 500’

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Initial readings with CO meter taken at _

IC shall request Utility company to respond for CO if _

Front door of premise

> 9 PPM, Appliance shut, Individuals exhibiting CO poisoning, IC feels Utility response required

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What kind of stream should be used for suspected asbestos

Fog or spray stream to minimize amount of fibers that become airborne. Limit overhaul

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CO incorrect
A. Members shall use their SCBA and recommend evacuation at 10 ppm.
B. Inform residents that at 100 ppm they are at a potentially lethal level of CO.
C. Spares CO meters are received from the Battalion, who has 1 spare CO meter at quarters.
D. CO detector (gasalert extreme) low alarms at 35 ppm and high alarms at 100 ppm

D HM 4 Add 1 Exceeds 35, exceeds 100 (Remember it as 36, 101)

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What is the only button that shall be pushed on CO meter

Is CO meter waterproof

Left Circular button to turn On & Off

No: it’s water resistant

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The low battery alarm of the Gasalert Extreme CO Monitor will display and/or sound all of the following except?
A. 1 beep (every 5 seconds)
B. 1 flash (every 5 seconds)
C. 1 quick vibration (every 5 seconds)
D. A low battery icon will appear on the display

C 1 quick vibration (every 1 minute)

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CO Meter Low battery alarm 1 beep and flash every

5 seconds with 1 vibration every 1 minute

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OSHA states max safe working level of CO _ ppm over 8 hours at work place vs _ ppm over 8 hours at residential levels

Work: 35 ppm
Residential: Not to exceed 9 PPM

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SCBA for CO Incident vs Emergency

Incident 9: PPM/less with No occupant symptomatic (Wear SCBA);
Emergencies: Occupants symptomatic or >9 PPM (Use SCBA)

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ID number on placards for Compressed Natural Gas

Can CNG cylinder BLEVE

1971

Subject to failure, but NOT BLEVE because they do NOT contain liquid

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Choose the correct
A. IC didn’t call Haz Mat 1 to a RR car derailment due to no damage being suffered to the car
B. Muriatic acid used to clean the facade of the wall- Off ordered spraying stopped & ensured response of Haz Mat although there was no spill
C. Water was used on a fuming product prior to hazard assessment being completed to reduce exp problem
D. Off relayed name of material to Dispatch letter by letter for notification to Chemtrec & Haz Mat Response Team (HMRT)

Answer D

A= Haz Mat response for all RR car derailments even if no damage suffered to car
B. Haz Mat response for spill of Muriatic Acid

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If no info available from placards/chemical names on vehicles, obtain _ & _

Transporter’s name on vehicle & license plate number and state for PD to check.
RR: name & number on car

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CO explosive range

CO lighter/heavier than air

Is CO toxic

LEL 12.5% UEL 74%

Slightly lighter

Yes: Highly toxic. Displaces O2 in blood

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In all cases involving derailment of RR tank, what must be done

Mat must be called, even if it appears there's NO damage

Tanks should be moved in _ position

Upright, Never drag in a manner that might further damage valves/piping

At what reading on the meter should we notify occupants that we have detected a potentially lethal level of CO? A) Readings of 9 PPM or less B) Readings greater than 9 PPM but less than 100 PPM C) Readings greater than 99 PPM D) Readings greater than 35 PPM

Liquefied Petroleum Gases (LPG) are _ (toxic/non-toxic) that cause _ due to O2 displacement LPG are _ (heavier/lighter) than air

Non-Toxic; Asphyxiation Heavier 1.5 - 2 times

Shipping papers for: Trucks, Railroads, Aircraft, Ships

Trucks: Bill of lading in cab w/in reach of driver RR: Waybill carried by conductor in caboose or engine Airplane: Air Bill kept by pilot Ship: Cargo manifest- Master or 1st Mate

Can Propane Tanks BLEVE ID numbers on placards for propane

Yes- a relief valve cannot prevent BLEVE 1075

Propane is a Liquified Petroleum Gas that will expand _ times per cubic foot when heat is applied

270 times

What is the major health issue with asbestos

Inhalation of fibers. Respiratory protection is of paramount importance. Remove & bag affected bunker gear. Boots & hard surface items are to be deconned at scene

``` NOT a sign of Medium Level CO poisoning? A) Vomiting B) Drowsiness C) Dizziness D) Loss of consciousness ```

C Dizziness is low level

Incorrect A. LP gases are heavier than air 1.5-2X's B. LP gas fire & emergencies- keep everyone at least 1000' from front & rear of tank & 500' from sides C. At LP Gas leak w/a fire, do not extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped, except under extremely unusual conditions D. If only valve that can be used to stop the flow of gas is involved in fire or exposed to heat/flame, consider possibility of using a heavy fog stream to protect member while he shuts off valve

B Keep everyone, not actually engaged in ops, at least 1000 feet from the front and rear of the tank and 500 feet from the sides.

CO is _ more attracted to hemoglobin than O2 Medium Level CO Poisoning

210 times Loss of consciousness, Vomiting, Drowsiness

Incorrect A. All vehicles powered by CNG which require FD permit to operate such fuel are req'd to have a warning placard on their front & rear bumper w/ID 1971 in the diamond B. CNG powered vehicles registered in NY that do not require FD permit are likely to be placarded only on rear bumper. Some states do not require any warning placard C. Natural gas is lighter than air (2/3 as heavy). CNG are subject to failure but not to BLEVEs D. Fire in a CNG vehicle, if the flow of gas cannot be stopped, ext fire only under extremely unusual conditions

D Extinguish a fire by stopping the flow of gas. If the flow of Gas cannot he stopped do not extinguish the fire - let it burn. Use a hose stream to cool cylinders and protect exposures.

``` You see the placard 1075 on a vehicle. You know this vehicle is powered by _____. A. Methanol B. Compressed Natural Gas C. Propane D. Gasoline ```

Incorrect for CO: A. At CO Emergencies with detector activations, do not attempt to reset the detector. B. For meter readings of 100 PPM and greater, begin evacuation of the affected area and ventilate. C. For meter readings of greater than 9 PPM but less than 100 PPM, recommend that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation. D. If any individual is exhibiting symptoms of CO poisoning, immediately evacuate the affected area, ventilate, and request E.M.S. to respond.

A Attempt to reset the detector

DOT Classes of Hazardous Materials "Every Good Lt SOP Requires Competent Members"

Explosive, Gases (compressed), Liquids (flammable), Solids (flammable), Oxidizers, Poisons, Radioactive material, Corrosive, Misc dangerous goods

CPC Unit correct to inform the IC at an incident that your members are trained and equipped to perform which one of the following tasks? A. The mitigation of a medium sized spill of an sulfuric acid B. The identification of any unknown substances with use of CPC units various meters C. Perform the required decontamination D. Operate in place of Haz Mat 1

Do initial alarm units enter the BDS facility during the initial stages of operation

Initial Units shall NOT enter, unless there is a life hazard needing immediate action

A HL with a fog nozzle shall be stretched at Chemical suicides used primarily for _

Decon. May also be used for vapor dispersal and fire suppression in case of ignition.

If an entry team member goes down for an unknown reason, the Back Up team is put to work and will only perform one task. What is it? A) Remove victims completing the Entry teams assignment B) Stand fast after notifying the FAST unit to remove the downed member C) Removal of the downed member themselves D) Search the area around the downed member for the material that caused him to go down

Choose incorrect for person with visible powder on clothes or skin A. Ask pt to remove outer clothing B. Provide pt with disposable garment or sheet C. Bag pt's clothing in a clear plastic bag to have EMS transport with patient D. Critical or Unstable pt's should receive Emergency Decon & be treated & transported immediately

C Leave clothes in clear plastic bag with a competent authority on scene

USPS installed Bio Detection Systems (BDS) to detect BDS analysis process may take as long as _ minutes to complete

Anthrax: CIDS mandatory 90 minutes

Which Eng companies shall provide emergency Gross Decon

All FD Engine companies have the ability to Gross Decon

Do all teams of CPC have to be from the same CPC Unit

No: but necessary # of trained individuals must be assembled & decon station established and staffed before entry made

CPC Units can operate in what Level of CPC Can CPC Units perform mitigation

Level A & B No

Phosphine has a _ odor

Fish or Garlic like odor

Stairway, ladder, ramp, or other safe means of egress shall be located in trench excavations that are _' or more in depth so as to require no more than _' of lateral travel for employees

4' or more in depth | no more than 25' lateral travel

If Life Safety entry deemed necessary what 2 things must be in place first

Emergency Decon established & a FAST team designated

If you respond to an incident involving a suspicious package, envelope, or powder transmit _

10-80 specifying anthrax. If PD is not already on scene immediately request their response.

``` CPC companies are trained to operate in what Level CPC? A) Only Level A B) Only Level B C) Level A and Level B D) None of the above ```

How many Decon Task forces shall be called for to perform ambulatory patient decon, responder decon, & non-ambulatory decon

4: 1 for ambulatory & 1 for responders, along w/2 for non-ambulatory

Gross decon: If using a TL: use the _ fog nozzle. If using AL w/ladder pipe: use _ fog noz positioned parallel to and inline with one of first two pumpers. Water spray shower approximately _'

TL= Turbostream nozzle AL= Aquastream nozzle Approximately 20' wide X 30' long for victims to be directed to pass through

Gross Decontamination Incorrect: A. IC designated a BC as the Decon Control Off as this is preferred. B. When stretching and operating 2 HLs, 2½" HL were equipped with Aquastream fog nozzles and operated approximately 25' – 30' apart. C. Using 2 pumpers, they were positioned parallel to each other approx 25' apart and equipped with Aquastream fog nozzles on a selected outside discharge gate. D. The recommended operating pressure for use of the Aquastream Nozzle at this operation was 50 to 80 psi. The Turbomaster nozzle should be operated at 100 psi

C. sect 2.4.4 - When using two pumpers, they should be positioned parallel to each other approximately 25 feet apart equipped with Aquastream fog nozzles on a selected INSIDE discharge gate. D. sect 2.4.3 & 2.4.4. Also.T. B. TOOLS 7-DATA SHEET 15

Last piece of equipment removed on FF for decon

Face-piece

One option for setting up a Mass Decon is to stretch a _ HL equipped w/_ fog noz w/recommended operating pressure _; If 2 HL used- operate opposite each other _'

2 1/2" HL w/Aquastream fog noz with range between 50-80 PSI; | HL Opposite each other 25-30' apart to form a large shower

Shall units vent 1st or immediately remove the victim if chemical suicide suspected?

Vent 1st prior to entering. If victim is unresponsive and assumed dead, treat as a crime scene. If treating patient, remove clothing and flush with copious amounts of water as a part of emergency decon prior to transporting

``` Add'l entry teams will be needed at incidents where there are numerous ambulatory and/or non ambulatory victims. With how many victims will additional entry teams need to be called? A) 5 or more B) 2 or more C) 3 or more D) 10 or more ```

At large incidents w/multiple victims _ victims should be addressed first

Ambulatory 1st, then non-ambulatory victims who respond to NST shall be removed second. Last: move Black tagged victims (No response to NST)

Employees in an excavation shall be protected from cave-ins (shoring) except when: Excavations are made entirely in _ Excavations are less than _' in depth and exam of ground by competent person provides no indication of cave in

Entirely of stable rock; | Less than 5 feet

Who performs primary & secondary searches at BDS emergencies

USPS responsible for accounting for all employees, visitors, & customers (Primary & Secondary)

Primary hazard and threat to 1st Responders at Chemical suicides

Inhalation

ICP & SA locations for BDS Postal workers proceed to _

Both will be established as per Individual Facility Plan To safe refuge area within facility & await est of Decon areas by FD units

Victim of chemical suicide may appear what colors

Cyanotic (blue), or Red in color (similar to CO poisoning)

Purpose of CPC Units

Augment Haz Mat groups by assisting in search, rescue, & removal of victims for both civilians and emergency responders

Members who initially set up a mass decon procedure: do they need to wear full PPE

Yes- including mask & gloves w/hood. These members will have to be deconned when they are relieved. May set up showers in Work Duty, but once Decon occurs, PPE needed

Explain Group 1, 2, & 3 employees for BDS

Group 1: No special decon needed (not exposed)- evacuate to separate SRA from Group 2 & 3 Group 2: Exposed- evacuate to SRA & remove contaminated clothes & wash skin. Need Decon Group 3: ID in advance as risk of exp to a higher concentration. Evac to SRA & full decon

Incorrect for Decon Showers: A. Decon Shower Apparatus will be positioned at the end of the “contamination reduction corridor.” B. Unless otherwise directed by the IC, FFs shall staff the clean side of the trailer (the rear portion before the shower stalls) in work duty uniforms. C. After the containment pools begin to fill they will be impossible to move. The gray water containment pools will ultimately be located in the warm zone & are to be considered an additional exclusion zone. D. Recommended position for Decon Shower Rig is in the middle of the street or intersection

Answer B 4.14 Unless otherwise directed by the IC, FFs shall staff the clean side of the trailer (front portion after the shower stalls) in work duty uniform A. sect 4.3 - Decon Shower Apparatus will be positioned at the end of the “contamination reduction corridor.” C 4.7 - After the containment pools begin to fill they will be impossible to move. Gray water containment pools will ultimately be located in the warm zone & are to be considered an add'l exclusion zone. D. 4.4 - It's recommended that the DSA be positioned in the middle of the street or intersection.

Single most important action associated w/effective decon

Rapid removal of physical material - outer clothing & skin

Does CPC Off don a chemical protection suit

Off shall NOT don CPC suit unless the suit is req'd to properly supervise Unit's operations

Mass decon using 2 pumpers: position them _ to each other approximately _' apart w/control panels facing _. Place fog noz on each pumper in fog position w/operating pressure _

Parallel approximately 25' w/panels facing outside. | Aquastream fog noz w/50-80 psi

Can CPC FFs perform NST How many victims can 1 Entry Team handle

Yes: CPC trained & higher 1-2 victims. If multiple victims 3/more in Hot zone, additional Entry teams needed

CPC Units entry into contaminated areas require a coordinated team effort of at least _

5 CPC trained members. 2 Entry, 2 BU, & 1 Decon under proper supervision

FD units will be responsible for decon of Group _ BDS

2 & 3 patients (only FD personnel to enter bldg will be Haz Mat Techs)

1st arriving Units shall report to _ for BDS

Initial Emergency Response Meeting Point est as per Individual Facility Plan & make contact w/USPS Liaison

Code given for Chemical suicide:

10-80 Code 1 Ensure PD response

Removing clothing removes up to _% of contaminants

90% of contamination (keeping clothes on increases exposure time & total dose received even if water is applied); Full PPE removes more than 90% of contamination when removed

You verify activation of BDS alarm, what code do you transmit Additional Units above the initial alarm assignment shall proceed to _

10-80 for Confirmed BDS activation Pre-determined FD Staging Area as per USPS Individual Facility plan

Can Ambulatory patient decon & CPC decon exist in close proximity

Yes, but must be well defined as to separate the two types of decon procedures from each other. No responders in civilian decon & vice versa

T/F When responding to USPS bulk facilities, FD units shall always verify the type of incident (Fire, Medical, BDS)

True: prevents members from being exposed if BDS

``` IC shall special call a CPC unit or HMTU, as a FAST unit, to the scene if how many entry teams are expected to be put to work? A) 2 entry teams B) 1 entry team C) More than 2 entry teams D) More than 5 entry teams ```

Who will take over as lead for BDS emergencies

FBI: facility will be treated as a crime scene

Strong chemical smell at chemical suicide may be hydrogen sulfide. This gives an odor of _

Rotten egg smell

After reporting to IC, CPC Unit Off shall recommend _ to IC

Entry Point into Hot Zone and est CPC Unit Assembly Point adjacent to entry point

Correct for BDS in USPS Mail Facility A. Initial Units meet USPS at designated ICP B. Transmit 10-80 Code 3 fro confirmed BDS Activation C. Prior to entry for a life safety issue, an Emergency Decon area shall be est & a BU team designated D. Add'l Units above initial alarm assignment shall respond to pre-designated FD Emergency Response Meeting Point

C A. 1st arriving Units report to Initial Emergency Response Meeting Point & make contact w/USPS Liaison B. Transmit 10-80 for confirmed BDS activation D. Add'l Units above initial alarm proceed to Pre-Designated FD Staging Area

``` What odor do poly sulfides emit? A: rotten eggs B: bitter almond C: fish/garlic like odor D: odorless ```

BDS activation: Units above the initial alarm shall respond A. Initial Emergency Response Meeting Point B. Incident Command Post C. Unified Operations Post D. Fire Dept Staging Area

D Pre-Designated FD Staging Area

Sheltering in place is the preferred method in which situation? A: Release cannot be rapidly controlled at the source. B: Low to moderate toxicity. C: Small quantity solid, liquid or gas leak. D: A migrating vapor of high toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside.

B. 10.5.5.C A. Release CAN be rapidly controlled at the source C. Small quantity solid or liquid leak NOT GAS. D. A migrating vapor of LOW toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside.

``` Which one of the following would give off a pungent odor? A: Acetaldehyde B: Hydrogen Cyanide C: Hydrogen Chloride D: Phosgene ```

C Training Bulletin SCBA Addendum 3 (4) A. Fruit odor. Training Bulletin SCBA Addendum 3 (8) B. Almond odor. Training Bulletin SCBA Addendum 3 (2) D. Musty hay odor at 6ppm. Training Bulletin SCBA Addendum 3

You notice that your RAD 50 is detecting radiation levels of 0.07 mR/hr. It would be most correct if you? A: Request the response of the Haz Mat battalion B: Forward a report to Haz Mat operations C: Take no action, these are normal background levels D: Give a 10-80 code and confirm with another available meter

B. Any unusual or elevated background readings (>.05mR/Hr but

Chemical protective clothing unit (CPC), you would be correct to inform the IC at an incident that your members are trained & equipped to perform _ A: The mitigation of a medium sized spill of an sulfuric acid B: The identification of any unknown substances with use of CPC units various meters C: Perform the required decontamination D: Operate in place of Haz Mat 1

C. Haz Mat Ch 5 Sec 1.1

``` Application of large amounts of water will dilute Methanol rendering it non-flammable. The concentration of methanol must be reduced below _ to be effective. A: 10% B: 20% C: 50% D: 80% ```

B HM 1 4.4.2 B

CNG contains correct information? A: All vehicles powered by CNG, which require FD permit to operate using such fuel, are required to have a warning placard on their front and rear bumper. B: Number "1075" in a diamond placard indicates CNG is being used for propulsion. C: CNG powered vehicles that do not have a Fire Department permit but are registered in the state of New York are likely to be placarded only on the front bumper. D: All states require CNG powered vehicles to have at least one placard on a vehicle's bumper.

A. Haz Mat Ch 1 sec 3.2.1 B. Identification number 1971 C. rear bumper. D. There may be some states that do not require CNG powered vehicles to have any warning placard.

``` Decon Shower Apparatus are equipped with enough towels and disposable garments to provide for the decontamination of how many patients? A: 20 B: 500 C: 50 D: 100 ```

D HM 15 1.7

Shelter-in-place have been considered? A: There was immediate danger of fire or explosion B: The potential for discharge was great but had not taken place and people would have been sufficiently protected if they evacuated C: Discharge had not taken place and the material displayed moderate toxicity D: People not yet in the path of release were threatened by changing conditions

C) Sheltering-in-place is the PREFERRED alternative when the hazardous material displays low to moderate activity Acronym for Evacuation: TECS Time to relocate (if potential for discharge is great and had not taken place) Explosion/fire immediate danger Changing conditions will threaten people not yet in the path of a release Sufficiently protected to permit time for evacuation, even if discharge has taken place ERP 10.5.2, 10.5.5

GASALERT (CO) MONITOR immediately activates, displaying readings of 45 ppm incorrect A: A 10-38 Code 3 was transmitted. B: All persons in the affected area were immediately evacuated and the area was ventilated. C: You ensured the SCBA was used on this run. D: As the IC, you requested the utility company to respond.

B. 4.4.3 - CO Emergency: Meter readings of greater than 9 PPM but less than 100 PPM: Recommend that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation. HM 4

Haz Mat Flashcards

(98 cards)