Hematology part 2 DIT - part 1 in endo Flashcards

1
Q

protein responsible for the flexibility of RBCs

A

Spectrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Anisocytosis

A

RBCs of varying size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Poikilocytosis

A

RBCs of varying shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

erythrocytosis

A

same thing as polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Life span of a RBC

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Incompatible blood transfusion is due to what type of process

symptoms?

A

Type II HTN

hemolysis
renal failure
shock
death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

erythroblastosis fettles is due to

prevented by? timeline of treatment (3)

A

mothers(Rho-) IgG antibodies crossing the placental and attacking the fetus’s Rho + RBCs
->anemia, jaundice-> kernicterus, hydrops fetalis, intrauterine death

Give RhoGram (IgGs that mask presence of Rho + RBCs)
Give at:
-28 wks
- any traumatic event 
- w/in 3 days of delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

acanthocytes are?

Seen when? (2)

A

irregularly spiked RBCs (vs regularly spiked RBCs in echinocytes)

liver disease
abetalipoproetinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Liver disease see what 2 changes to the RBCs

A

acanthocytes

target cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Basophilic stippling of the RBCs indicates what (3)

A

Lead poisoning*

Thalassemia
anemia of chronic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bite cells are seen in

A

G6PD deficiency - Macrophages removing oxydized hemoglobin (heinz bodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Elliptocytes are?

seen in

A

pencil shaped cells

hereditary elliptocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

schistocytes are?

seen in (3)

A

cut up RBCs

Due to DIC, TTP/HUS, trauma (metal heart valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

sideroblasts are?

differ from ringed siderblasts how?

A

nucleated RBC precursor w/ granules of iron surrounding the mitochondria in the bone marrow - NORMAL

ringed sideroblasts is due to a disorder in heme synthesis -> excess iron granules that circle the nucleus (can lead to anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Causes of ringed sideroblasts (4)

A

lead poisoning
drugs
genetic conditions
myelodysplastic syndromes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Sherocytes commonly seen in

A

hereditary spherocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

teardrop cells seen in

A

bone marrow infiltration; like myelofibrosis (squeezed out)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Target cells are seen in ((4)

A

THAL

Thalessemia
Hemaglobin C disease
Asplenia (sickle cell or post surgery)
Liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Heinz bodies are?

A

oxidation of heme in the RBCs in G6PD deficiency -> benatured hemoglobin precipitates

Can be “bite out”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Howell jolly bodies are seen?

A

nucleated RBCs that are normally removed by the spleen

Seen in apslenic patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Asplenic patients you may see(2)

A

howell jolly bodies

Target cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HbA composition

A

normal adult hemoglobin - 97%
2 alpha
2beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HbA2 composition

A

2 % of normal Hgb
2 alpha
2 delta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HbF composition

A

2 alpha
2 gamma chains

higher affinity for oxygen, less affinity for 2,3 DPG (allows placental transfer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
HbS composition
sickle cells 2 alpha 2 beta (glu -> valine)
26
HbC composition
hemoglobin C 2 alpha 2 beta (glu -> lys)
27
Hb barts composition
Severe thalassemia no alpha 4 gamma
28
HbH compostion
Severe thalassemia 4 beta no alpha
29
Fetal erythropeies occurs where (4) timeline
young liver synthesizes blood Yolk sac - 3-8 weeks Liver* 6-birth Spleen 15-30 wks Bone marrow 22 wks - adult
30
Late adolesent/ adult erythropeisis occurs where specifically (3)
axilla skeleton - vertebra - pelvis - ribs
31
Early childhood erthyropoeisis occurs where specifically?
flat and long bones | -sternum, pelvis, ribs, cranial bones, vertebra, long bones
32
Lead poisoning interferes w/ these 2 enzymes see what build up?
ferrochelatase -protoporphyrin in the urine ``` aminolevulinic dehydratase (ALA dehydratase) - aminolevulinic acid ```
33
can be given to inhibit porphyries and stop heme synthesis(2)
glucose and heme
34
induces heme synthesis rate limiting step
alchohol, barbituates, seizure drugs, rifampin, metoclopramide aminolevulinic acid synthase
35
acute intermittent porphyria is due to a defect in what enzyme presents as (5)
pophobilinogen deamninase Acute abdomen; acute neuropathy (heme substrates are neurotoxic) ``` Painful abdomen port wine -colored urine polyneuropathy psychological disturbances precipitated by drugs ```
36
patient's started on metclopramide for GERD and begins to have a painful abdomen, and dark urine, also polyneuropathy and agitation
acute intermittent porphyria due to issues w. porphobilinogen deaminase ``` build up of porphoblinogen Painful abdomen port wine -colored urine polyneuropathy psychological disturbances precipitated by drugs -alchohol, barbituates, seizure drugs, rifampin, metoclopramide ```
37
Porphyria cutanea tarda presents as ? Due to defect where?
Most common - think of a homeless man - blistering cutaneous photosensitivity - hypertrichosis - increase in ALT/AST - tea color during - facial hyperpigmentation Associated w/ Hep C and alcoholism defect in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
38
Presentation of lead poisoning?
``` global ecephalopathy memory loss delirium mental deterioration colicky pain lead lines in gingiva and bone foor/wrist drop microcytic anemia basophilic stippling sideroblastic anemia ```
39
Causes of polycythemia (3)
Polycythemia vera - monoclonal expansion due to abnormal stem cells Chronic hypoxia - Lung disease, congenital heart disease, high altitude Secondary to ectopic production - pheo - renal cell - hepatocellular carcinoma - hemangioblastoma 60% of trisomy 21 babies are polycythemic
40
4 tumors that can lead to ectopic EPO -> polycythemia
pheo renal cell hepatocellular carcinoma hemangioblastoma
41
what test can be used to diagnose beta thalassemia minor
hemoglobin electrophoresis
42
Lab values of thalassemia minor Ferritin TIBC Serum Fe
All are normal may see target cells in peripheral smear
43
microcytic anemia, swallowing difficulties and glossitis
Plummer Vinson Syndrome
44
Microcytic anemia and >3.5% HbA2 level
Thalassemia minor
45
Megaloblastic anemia not correctible with B12 or folate
orotic aciduria (w/o the hyper ammonia)
46
Microcytic anemia reversible by B6
sideroblastic anemia
47
HIV positive patient w/ macrocytic anemia
AZT; zidovudine
48
normocytic anemia and elevated creatine
chronic renal disease
49
Hypersegmented nuetraphils be suspicious of
Folate or B12 deficiency
50
Causes of hyposchromic, microcytic anemia(4)
Fe deficiency Thalassemia lead poisoning Sideroblastic anemia
51
Iron deficiency can be due to? (3)
chronic bleeding - CA- malnutrition/absorbtion increased demand -pregnant
52
Lab findings w/ Fe deficiency Serum Fe Ferritin Transferrin TIBC
low Fe in serum low Ferritin Increased transferrin ( trying to mobilize limited stock) Decreased TIBC (not saturated at all)
53
Alpha thalassemia presentation (4) due to?
4 copies of the gene inherited on chromosome 16 1 mutation - no anemia 2 mutations- alpha thalassemia trait, no anemia 3 mutations - anemia; HbH forms (4 globins beta) 4 mutations- hydrops fatilis w/ formation of Hb Barts (4 globins of gamma )
54
Populations at increased risk for alpha thalassemia
Africans - trans mutation | Asians - cyst mutation
55
beta thalasemia presentation (2)
2 genes at work Minor - one gene mutated (heterozygote) -> asymptomatic usually see increased HbA2 on Hb electrophoreses (with less beta, more delta glob ins produced) Major - genes mutated -> severe anemia - Needs blood transfusions -> hemochromatosis - Marrow expansion, chipmunk facies - increased HbF (2 alpha 2 gamma); can't make any beta globin - target cell
56
2 diseases w/ marrow expansion
crew cut appearance on X ray Sickle cell and Beta thalassemia
57
Population at risk for beta thalassemia
Mediterranean
58
Sideroblastic anemia due to ?
defect in heme synthesis -> ringed sideroblasts ( iron laden macrophages) - hereditary - X linked - reversible: alcohol, lead, INH, Rifampin Rx w/ pyridoxine
59
Anemia due to chronic disease lab values Serum Fe Ferritin Transferrin TIBC
Serum - low Ferritin - high (acute phase reactant) transferrin- decreased TIBC - normal
60
Hemachromatosis lab values Serum Fe Ferritin Transferrin TIBC
Serum - High Ferritin - High Transferrin - Low (body senses a lot and doesn't want to mob) TIBC - High ( a lot of saturation)
61
Pregnancy and OCP - Fe lab values Serum Fe Ferritin Transferrin TIBC
Serum - normal Ferritin - normal Transferrin - increased w/ estrogen TIBC - Lower w/ excess binding sites Transferrin production ramped up
62
Sideroblastic anemia Fe lab values Serum Fe Ferritin Transferrin TIBC
Serum - Increased (not using the Fe w/ defect in heme synth) Ferritin - normal or increased Trasnferrin -decreased, senses high serum TIBC - is thus increased
63
Meagloblastic macrocytic anemia causes ( 3)
Impaired DNa synth -> increasing cytoplasm w/ ineffective nucleus maturation B12 deficiency Folate deficiency Orotic aciduria
64
Folate deficiency due to (4) Presentation (4)
malnutrition -alcoholic malabsorbtion antifolates - methotexate - trimethoprin increased requirement -pregnanat Presents w/ - megaloblastic/macrocytic anemia - hyper seg PMNs - glossitis - homocystinuria w/o MMA increase
65
B12 deficiency due to (5) Presentation
``` inefficent uptake ( vegans) malabsorbtion - crohns pernicious anemia Diphyllobothrium datum PPIs ``` Hyperseg PMNs glossitis homocystinuria w/ increased MMA Neuro symptoms (B12 used in myelin synth)
66
Which vitamin Def presents w/ neuro symptoms and megaloblastic anemia
B12 deficiency - Neuro: Peripheral neuropathy, posterior columns, lateral corticospinal, dementia need to be aware and not just give folic acid w/ megaloblastic anemia
67
Orotic acid in the urine and fatigued Hyperammonia?
Megaloblastic macrocytic anemia due to deficiency in UMP syntase in the production of Pyrimidines No hyper ammonia ( Ornithine transcarbonylase in urea cycle) Cannot be cured w/ B12 or folate
68
Non megaloblastic - Macrocytic anemia causes ((3)
DNA synthesis is unimpaired ``` Liver disease Alcoholism - direct effect Drugs - 5 FU - AZT -hydroxyurea ```
69
Nonhemolytic normocytic anemia due to (3)
anemia of chronic disease Aplastic anemia Chronic kidney disease
70
Anemia due to chronic disease is due to what acute phase reactant pathology
an increase in hepcidin binds to ferroportin preventing the release of Fe out of macrophages
71
Aplastic anemia causes (4)
Radiation * Viral: B19, EBV, HIV, HCV - especially if sickle cell Fanconi's Anemia - DNA repair defect Idiopathic -> pancytopenia
72
Pancytopenia bone histology(2)
hypocellular | bone marrow w/ fatty infiltration
73
Symptoms of aplastic anemia (3)
anemia - fatigue - malaise - pallor Leukoplakia - Infection thrombocytopenia - purpura -mucosal bleeding petechiae Stop the offending agent, transfuse, give G-CSF or GM -CSF
74
Rx for anemia due to chronic kidney disease
EPO
75
Basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs
Howell Jolly body Post splenctomy
76
Increased LDH indicates
either extravascular or intravascular hemolysis Decreased haptoglobin also -> intravascular Increased uncongugated bilirubin -> extravascular
77
Haptoglobin is?
molecule that binds to free hemoglobin found in the vasculature decreased in intravascular hemolysis due to complex formation
78
Intravascular hemolysis examples and lab findings
See decreased haptoglobin and increased LDH Due to mechanical destruction, autoimmune, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
79
Extravascular hemolysis examples and lab findings
RBCs removed from circulation and lysed Examples: G6PD, hereditary spherocytosis, pyruvate kinase deficiency, sickle cell, Increased LDH and uncongugated billirubin
80
Hereditary Spherocytosis presentation (5) Rx?
Extravascular hemolytic disease _ Auto Dom mutation in spectrin, ankrin or band 3, protein 4.2 ``` Jaundice, Spherocytes, increased MCHC and RDW, + osmotic fragility, neg Coombs, Splenomegaly ``` Rx - splenectomy
81
aplastic crisis due to parvo B19 for example
Hereditary spherocytosis | Sickle cell
82
G6PD deficiency is?
intravascular/Extravascular** normocytic anemia X linked defect w/ less glutathione regeneration -> susceptibility to oxidative stress -> hemolytic anemia
83
Pyruvate kinase deficiency pathophys and presentation
normocytic hemolytic anemia Auto recessive defect leads to decreased ATP production and inability to maintain Na/K pump -> rigid cells that are lysed
84
Hemolytic anemia in a newborn think of
pyruvate kinase deficiency also could be IgG crossing over and attacking Rho +
85
HbC mutation vs HbS mutation
glutamic acid -> valine on chrom 6 = sickle cell glutamic acid -> lysine = HbC
86
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria pathophys Rx?
intravascular hemolytic anemia due to increased lysis by complement - lack CD 55/59 which is protective eculizumab
87
hemolytic anemia, pancytopenia and venous thrombosis hink red urine in the morning
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
88
HAMs test is useful for
test for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Low pH activates compliment
89
Lack of CD55/59 leads to
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria and red urine in the morning
90
Why are newborns asymptomatic w/ sickle cell?
they are primarily HbF at first and then become HbS as they start producing beta chains defect in glutamic acid -> valine 8% of AA carry the trait
91
splenic sequestration crisis in HbS is
sickle cells in the spleen slowly occlude and list the spleen -> edge shaped infarct eventual autosplenectomy by age 4,increased risk against encapsulated organisms low Hct and Hb
92
Presentation of sickle cell/ complications(6)
``` aplastic crisis - parvo B19 autosplenectomy - encapsulated organisms risk (SHiN) splenic sequestration crisis salmonella osteomyolitis painful crisis - dactylitis - acute chess syndrome Renal papillary necrosis -> hematurua ```
93
Rx for suckle cell (2)
bone marrow transplant | hydroxyureas=
94
Extrinsic causes of normocytic hemolytic anemia(4)
Cause is outside of the RBC (Intrinsic means somethings wrong w/ the RBC) Autoimmune Microangiopathic anemia Macroangiopathic anemia infections
95
Infections that may cause hemolytic anemia(2)
malaria | Babesia
96
Macroangiopathic anemia causes (2)
extrinsic anemia -> schistocytes prosthetic heart valves or aortic stenosis; big vessels cause
97
Microangiopathic anemia causes
extrinsic anemia Due to DIC, TTP-HUS, SLE and maligant HTN (shear stress) or fibrin leads to schistocyte formation w/ obstructed narrowed lumens
98
Cold agglutins vs Warm agglutins - autoimmune anemia
Cold - IgM Due to: mycoplasma or EBV or CLL Warm -IgG Due to SLE, malignancies (CLL, non Hodgkins), congenital immune compl, drugs
99
Cold agluttin anemia due to ? (3)
- IgM Due to: mycoplasma or EBV or CLL iGm bonds to RBCs -> complement fixation -> MAC lysis and opsinization
100
Warm agglutin anemia due to? (4)
Warm -IgG Due to SLE, malignancies (CLL, non Hodgkins), congenital immune compl, drugs
101
overlap in warm and cold anemia agglutinin causes?(2)
CLL | EBV
102
Direct coombs test is? Useful for(3)
Testing for the presence of antibodies already present on the RBC -give prepared antibodies to detect and agglutinate (Coombs) Hemolytic anemia of newborn drug induced autoimmune hemolytic transfusion reaction
103
Indirect Coombs test is? Useful for (2)
Testing the patient's serum which is incubated w/ normal RBCs to detect presence of Ab Antibodies present to foreign blood (prior to transfusion) and screening for maternal antibodies to fetus blood
104
platelets derived from ? last?
megalokaryocytes no nucleus come preformed w/ ganules containing: Ca, vWF, COX, TXA2, thrombin, fibrinogen, PDGF, lysosome enzymes Lasts 8-10 days
105
vWF receptor fibrinogen receptor
GpIb GpIIb/IIIa
106
Von willibrand factor is found where?(2) 2 jobs?
in endothelial cells and in platelets 1. stabilizes factor 8 ( deficiency leads to problems similar to factor 8 deficiency, increases PTT (hemophilia A) 2. Bridges exposed collagen and to platelets w/ GpIb
107
3 steps in platelet plug formation
injury -> exposure of sub endothelial collagen and release of vWF 1. Adhesion = platelet uses vWF to bridge collagen to platelet via GpIb 2. Activation - > release of ADP, stuff for complement cascade later (Ca, Thrombin, fibrinogen), TXA2 - > ADP recruits Gp IIb/IIIa receptors to the cell surface 3. Aggregation - Fibrinogen links the newly recruited GpIIb/IIIa receptors together of different platelets - TXA2 encourages vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation
108
Endothelial cells contain(4)
vWF* thromboplastin tPA PGI2
109
ASA roll on PT and PTT
none just irreversible blocks COX1 promotion of TXA2 formation decreasing platelet plug formation and increasing bleeding time
110
ADP receptor inhibitors (4)
Clopidogrel Ticlopidine prasugrel ticagrelor
111
Uses for ADP receptor inhibitors (4)
acute coronary syndrome post stent reduce incidence or recurrence of stroke ASA allergy?
112
GP IIb /IIIa inhibitors (3)
abcliximab eptiFIBate tiroFIBan think about use in non ST elevated MI
113
Uses of G IIb/IIIa use
Non ST elevated MI percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasy
114
Platelet disorders are characterized by what symptoms(4)
microhemorrage mucous membrane bleeding, epistaxis petechia - >purpura increased bleeding time
115
Immune Thrombocytopenic purpura pathophys? presentation?
defect in anti GbIIb/IIIa antibodies -> splenic macrophage consumption of platelets Megalokaryocytes are enlarged due to trying to keep up ``` Low Platelet count and increased bleeding time see microhemorrage (petechia/purpura, epistaxis, membrane bleeding) ``` NORMAL RBCs
116
Rx for ITP?
immune suppression splenectomy - more platelets in circulation IVIG steriods
117
Thrombotic thrombolytic purpura (TTP) 5 clinical manifestations
Nasty Fever Torched His Kidneys ``` Neuro changes Fever Thrombocytopenia* Hemolysis* -microangiopathic due to fibrin/Complement act Kidney failure* ``` * seen in hemolytic uremia syndrome
118
How is HUS related to TTP Occurs when?
Similar presentation of thrombocytopenia, Uremia/kidney failure, hemolysis NO neurological changes or fever as in TTP associated w/ post O127 H7 in kids
119
Pathogenesis of TTP
Deficiency in ADAMTS 13 -> decreased degradation of vWF multimers -> hyper activation and consumption of platelet factors and microvascular hemolytic anemia w/ partial activation of the complement system ``` Nasty Fever Torched His Kidneys Neuro changes Fever Thrombocytopenia* Hemolysis* -microangiopathic due to fibrin/Complement act Kidney failure* ```
120
Schistocytes, fever, petchial rash and increased bleeding time be concerned w/
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
121
Bernard Soulier syndrome pathogenesis labs?
defect in GpIb -> prevention of initial platelet adhesion decreased platelet count due to slightly enlarged platelets being removed and increased bleeding time
122
Glanzman thrombasthenia labs?
defect in GpIIb/IIIa -> prevention of aggregation of platelet cells (no clumping) no thrombocytopenia, just can't form platelet plug - PC - Increased bleeding time
123
von willebrand disease pathogenesis Labs? PC BT PT PTT
Autosomal dominant deficiency in vWF -> 1. decreased stabilization of factor 8 2. decreased platelet adhesion to sub endothelial collagen exposure PC- normal BT - increased PT - normal PTT - increased
124
Rx for vWF deficiency
Desmopressin - (ADH analog) increase the release vWF from the enthelium
125
Pathogenesis of DIC ``` Labs PC BT PT PTT ```
widespread activation of the clotting mechanism and complement system uses up platelets and complement factors; fibrin -> lysis of RBC and microvascular anemia ``` Sepsis Trauma Obstetrical problems - placenta abruptous/amniotic emboli Pancreatitis (acute) Malignancy Transfusions ``` low PC High BT High PT High PTT also increased D dimer and low fibrinogen
126
schistocytes and increased bleeding time disorders (2)
TTP DIC
127
causes of DIC (6)
STOP Making Thrombin ``` Sepsis Trauma Obstetrical problems - placenta abruptous/amniotic emboli Pancreatitis (acute) Malignancy Transfusions ```
128
most common lymphoma in the US?
Diffuse B cell lymphoma
129
lymphoma associated w/ EBV(2)
burkitts lymphoma (NHL) 50% w/ hodgkins
130
Lymphoma associated w/ long term celiac disease
intestinal T cell lymphoma
131
Lymphoma equivalent to CLL
Small lymphocytic lymphoma
132
Most common non hodgkins lymphoma in kids?
lymphoblastic lymphoma
133
lymphoma associated w/ sjogrens, hashimotos and H pylori
marginal cell maltoma
134
cervcal painless LAD of the neck w/ fever, weightless and Nightsweats
hodgkins lymphoma
135
Leukemia vs Lymphoma
Leukemia originates/involves the bone marrow and tumor cells found in the peripheral blood Lymphoma arises from lymph nodes
136
LAD presentation in hodkins lymphoma
painless non-tender LAD in a single group of nodes, can also be in the mediastinum; firm and rubbery contiguous spread
137
Age distribution of hodgkins lymphoma vs nonhodgkins lymphoma
Hodgkins - bimodal 20s and 60s Nonhodgkins is more variable 20-60
138
Constitutinal signs/ B symptoms are (3) associated w?
hodgkins lymphoma Fever, weight loss light sweats puritis also may be an issue
139
Spread and presentation of nonhodgkins lymphoma
multiple peripheral nodes w/ extranodal involvement being common (GI, thyroid, CNS) noncontiguous spread (jumps) Majority are B cell (some are T cell) less constitutional symptoms
140
Reed stern berg cells are seen in? Derived from?
Hodgkins disease binucleate cell of B cell origin w/ CD 30 and CD 15 less of them the better - lymphocyte predominant and nodular sclerosing subtypes
141
Subtypes of hodgkin's lymphoma (4)
Lymphocytic predominant - least common but best prognosis nodular slcerosing - most common and equal m vs f incidence mixed cellularity - 2nd most common - poor prognosis lymphocyte depleted - poor prognosis
142
nodular sclerosing subtype of hodgkins lymphoma histology
most common subtype of bodkins Bands of collagen, sclerosis and fibrosis
143
Non hodgkin lymphoma and mutation t8: 14 t11: 14 t14: 18
8: 14 - burkitts ( cmyc w/ Ig heavy chain) 11: 14 mantle cell (cyclin D w/ Ig heavy chain) 14: 18 follicular cell (bcl2 w/ Ig heavy chain)
144
Burkett lymphoma associated w? 3 types
EBV infections, found in younger kids; starry night; 8:14 Endemic - jaw in africa; nasopharyngeal carcinoma association sporadic form in pelvis or abdomen immune deficient - HIV
145
Diffuse large cell B lymphoma
most common in adults | most common overall in the US
146
Mantle cell Lymphoma translocation
t11:14; cyclin D poor prognosis, B cell
147
Follicular cell lymphoma translocation
t14:18; bcl 2 adults; indolent course, hard to Rx
148
T cell non- hodgkins lymphoma(3)
adult t cell lymphoma aw/ HTLV 1 Mycosis fungoides -> sezary Intestinal T cell lymphoma
149
Cutaneous lesion that is aggressive, patient is from Japan and has a history of HTLV1 infection
Adult T cell lymphoma can also be caribbean and west african in origin
150
cutaneous patch/nodule that resembles a fungal infection but does not heal w/ anti fungals/ Histology shows CD4 cells when gets into the blood called?
Mycosis fungoides sezary
151
Acute leukemia characterized by? smear? bone marrow?
rapid onset and rapidly progressive; pancytopenia (anemia, bleeding and infection) > 50% in the bone marrow - myeloblasts in AML - lymphoblasts in ALL in the periphery > 20% blasts
152
ALL presentation PAS? age?
Philadelphia chromosome (maybe) usually in children; more so down syndrome Bone pain is common most have terminal deoxynucleotice transferase (TdT) very good prognosis PAS +
153
TdT positive in what leukemia?
ALL PAS + also
154
AML presentation PAS? Age
Remember this line is granulocytes, RBCs, monocytes etc... characteristically has Auer Rods (M3) Most are CD 13/33 PAS - (usually nonspecific esterase + [peroxidase]) Age is usually 60 -65
155
Risk factors for AML
``` Radiation benzene alkylating agents myeloproliferative disease (like polycythemia vera) mlyelodysplastic syndrome aplastic aneima downs as well (ALL) ```
156
Chroic leukemia characterisics
``` insiderous onset mature cells (<5%blasts) ``` associated w. hepatospelnomegaly and LAD prominent infiltration of bone marrow and peripheral WBC counts may be high
157
CLL presentation characteristic feature? Age
most common adult leukemia Adults over the age of 50 (usually 70s-80s) 95% have B cell markers some progress to ALL smudge cells Autoimmune hemolytic aniema (cold/warm) indolent
158
Smudge cells are seen in
CLL
159
CML age and presentation Charcteristic feature
may progress to AML in a blast crisis see mature basophils and PMNs that are LAP (-) leukocyte alkaline phosphatase -hyperplasia of all 3 cell ones but granulocyte precursors predominate Age - 25-60 Always phildelphia chromosome 9;22 (bcr-abl) Rx imatinib fatigue, ab pain, spenomegaly
160
Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (-) cells; numerous w/ mature basophils and PMNS
CML
161
t15:17 translocation rx?
M3 AML See more Auer rods Rx al trans retinoic acid
162
Monoclonal antibody spike think of 3 things
Multiple myeinoma Waldenstroms macroglobinemia MGUS - monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
163
leukemia commonly presents w/ bone pain
ALL
164
myleodysplastic syndrome can see?
dysplasia of hematopoeitc cells in the myeloid tissue Not CA yet Pelger Huet anomaly - nuclei w/ 2 lobes asymptomatic and can be incidental finding, watched
165
Tartate resistant acid phosphatase
stain that is positive in hairy cell leukemia, a maute b cell tumor in the elderly
166
imatinib is used to treat?
CML
167
Myeloproliferative disorders(4)
neoplastic transformation of a single myeloid precursor into many Polycythemia vera - RBCs Essential thrombocytosis - megalokaryocytes myelofibrosis - fibrosis CML - granulocytes associated w/ Jak 2 mutation (especially polycythemia)
168
Jak 2 mutation is associated w?
myeloproliferative disorders especially polycythemia vera
169
Symptoms of polycythemia vera(5) EPO?
``` plethora - red face itching after a shower splenomegaly hypervisous blood erythromyalgia ``` LOW epo - not stimulated by outside
170
Essential thrombocytosis is? presentation
myeloproliferative disorder of megalokaryocytes have LOW thrombopoeitin bleeding w/ poor platelet function despite having so many or thrombosis
171
Myelofibrosis is
fibrotic obliteration of bone marrow due to myeloproliferative disorder see tear drop cells
172
Leukemoid reaction key lab dif from CML
Acute inflammatory response to infection or other stimuli increase WBC w/ PMNs and neutrophil precursors HIGH leukocyte alkaline phosphatase vs CML
173
Multiple myelinoma usually produces large amounts of what? 4 major findings
IgG usually, some IgA Hypercalcemia renal failure (casts of Ig block the tubule) Anemia (plasma cells interfere w/ production) bone lytic lesions
174
rbc's stacked like poker chips
rouleaux formation - in multiple myelinoma
175
patient presents w/ hypercalcemia, lower back pain and fatigue. What might you find in the urine
Bence jones proteins ( but only if you do a urine protein (UPEP) Multiple myelinoma
176
what is found on protein electrophoresis when patient has increased susceptibility to infection and primary amyloidsos (AL)
M spike
177
Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia
M spike and hyperviscosity w/ no lytic lesions
178
MGUS - monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
monoclonal expansion of plasma cells w/ M spike symptomatic precursor to multiple myelinoma watch
179
Plasmocytoma
solid tumor of plasma cells ``` 2 types -solitary plasmocytoma of bone extramedulary plasmocytoma (head neck and nose) ``` NO lytic lesion