Hemeonc p. 382-386 Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

Life span of RBC?

A

120 days

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2
Q

Life span of platelet?

A

8–10 days

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3
Q

Normally leukocyte count range?

A

4000–10,000 cells/mm3.

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4
Q

Membrane of RBC contains — antiporter,

A

Cl−/HCO3

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5
Q

Name the vWF receptor?

A

GpIb

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6
Q

Erythrocytosis = — = —- hematocrit

A

polycythemia

incr

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7
Q

Dense granules in Platelets contain —- and α granules contain —.

A

ADP, Ca2+

vWF, fibrinogen

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8
Q

Normal Basophils %?

A

(0–0.75%)

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9
Q

Poikilocytosis =

A

varying shapes

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10
Q

Name Fibrinogen receptor?

A

GpIIb/IIIa.

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11
Q

Neutrophyls specific granules contain 4 components: “CALL”

A

ALP
collagenase
lysozyme
lactoferrin (traps iron)

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12
Q

What are Azurophilic granules?

A

lysosomes

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13
Q

Anisocytosis =

A

varying sizes (seen in thalasemia, spherocytosis)

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14
Q

Azurophilic granules contain what 4 components?

A

proteinases
phosphatase
myeloperoxidase
β-glucuronidase (in liver)

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15
Q

Important neutrophil chemotactic agents:

A
C5a,
IL-8, 
LTB4, 
kallikrein, 
platelet-activating factor
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16
Q

How does gram neg bacteria initiate septic shock?

A

Lipid A from bacterial LPS binds CD14 on macrophages

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17
Q

Incr in myeloid proliferation is observed by the incr of what cells during infection or CML?

A

band cells (immature neutrophils)

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18
Q

Macrophages are activated by

A

γ-interferon.

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19
Q

Which 2 cells are packed with basophylic granules?

A

Basophyls

Mast cell

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20
Q

Monocytes differentiates into —- in tissues.

A

macrophage

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21
Q

Macrophages are antigen-presenting cell via —.

A

MHC II.

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22
Q

Extensive “frosted glass” cytoplasm referrers to what type of cells?

A

Monocyte

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23
Q

Basophilia is uncommon, but can be a sign of what path?

A

myeloproliferative disease, particularly CML.

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24
Q

Which cells expresses MHC class II and Fc receptors on surface?

A

Dendritic cell, macrophage

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25
Which kind of Leukocyte | produces histaminase and major basic protein?
Eosinophil
26
Round, densely staining nucleus with small amount of pale cytoplasm describes what type of cells?
Lymphocyte
27
Name the 5 causes of eosinophilia "A PAC A DNA"
``` Drug: macrolides, NSAID Neoplasia Asthma Aspergillus inf Acute interstitual nephritis Allergic processes Chronic adrenal insufficiency, Collagen vascular dz Parasites (invasive) ```
28
--- is a costimulatory signal necessary for T-cell activation.
CD28
29
Which type of cells have abundant RER, and well developed Golgi apparatus?
Plasma cells
30
Which Leukocyte contains Heparin?
Basophil, Mast cells
31
Which type of blood is a Universal recipient of plasma?
O type
32
“Clock-face” chromatin distribution refers to what type of cells?
Plasma cells
33
If ---- type pt receives type A or AB it will cause hemolytic reaction.
B type
34
mothers exposed to fetal Rh+ blood (often during delivery) may make what type of Ab?
anti-D IgG.
35
Which plasma type is a Universal donor of plasma?
AB type
36
If ---- type pt receives any non-O type it will cause hemolytic reaction.
O type
37
---- administration to Rh− pregnant women during -----, which prevents maternal anti-Rh IgG production.
RhoGAM | third trimester
38
Hemophilia C has a deficiency of what factor? And what is the genetic inheritance?
XI (AR)
39
Name to LMWH?
dalteparin, enoxaparin, Fondaparinux
40
---- activates bradykinin; --- inactivates bradykinin
Kallikrein (HMWK) | ACE
41
The LMWH have the greatest e€efficacy on which factor?
factor Xa
42
Which 3 tissue factors require Ca2+ and phospholipid?
Thromboplastin (III) (produced from fetus during abortion) Va VIIIa
43
Which 4 tissue factors are inhibited by vitamin K antagonist warfarin?
II VII IX X
44
Heparin has the greatest e€efficacy on which factor?
IIa (thrombin)
45
Which 2 coagulation factors are cofactors?
Va | VIIIa
46
T or F? Plasmin activates but is not part of coagulation cascade.
T
47
Name 3 direct thrombin inhibitors? (DOC for HIT)
argatroban bivalirudin dabigatran
48
Name 2 direct Xa inhibitors?
apixaban, rivaroxaban
49
Fondaparinux inhibits which factor? (it causes HIT)
factor Xa
50
Thrombin converts what to what?
Fibrinogen to Fibrin monomers
51
phytomenadione or phylloquinone or phytonadione help mature which factors?
Vit K helps the maturation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, X, and proteins C and S.
52
Prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can cause what?
hemorrhagic disease due to vit K def
53
Which complex activates protein C?
Thrombin-thrombomodulin complex
54
---- stabilizes platelet plug.
Fibrin mesh
55
Name the enzyme that produces reduced vit K?
Epoxide reductase
56
----- cleaves and inactivates Va, VIIIa
Protein S
57
Warfarin inhibits the enzyme vitamin K ----.
epoxide reductase.
58
Describe the Factor V Leiden mutation?
it produces a factor V resistant to inhibition by activated protein C.
59
Plasminogen ---> plasmin
tPA
60
Drug used for asthma prophylaxis? And MOA?
Cromolyn sodium prevents mast cell degranulation
61
Basophils is incr in what path?
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) | polycythemia
62
Eosonophis are incr in what infections?
Aspergillus infecetion | parasites
63
Which T cells recruit eosonophils?
Th2 cell
64
Eosinophylic infiltrate is see in what cardiac path?
Löffler syndrome (endomyocardial fibrosis with a prominent eosinophilic infiltrate), Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg- Strauss)
65
Eosinophila in what 2 drugs?
Macrolides, NSAIDS
66
What vit def. enhances vit k def. in bleeding?
vit E
67
what blocks tPA?
Trunexemic, Aminocaproic acid