Immunology Flashcards by Mind Med

Which property uniquely defines hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) from committed progenitors?
A. Ability to phagocytose
B. Continuous division without differentiation
C. Self-renewal with preserved differentiation potential
D. Ability to produce antibodies

C. Self-renewal with preserved differentiation potential

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All of the following arise from the myeloid lineage EXCEPT:
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Natural killer cells
D. Monocytes

C. Natural killer cells

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Dendritic cells are difficult to classify into a single lineage because they:
A. Are terminally differentiated
B. Arise exclusively from fetal liver
C. Can originate from both CLPs and CMPs
D. Lack antigen-presenting capability

C. Can originate from both CLPs and CMPs

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Colony-forming units (CFUs) are clinically relevant because they:
A. Function as PRRs
B. Are synthetic antibodies
C. Are used therapeutically in leukemia
D. Encode immunoglobulin genes

C. Are used therapeutically in leukemia

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Which feature is characteristic of adaptive but NOT innate immunity?
A. Pattern recognition receptors
B. Immediate response
C. Somatic recombination
D. Recognition of PAMPs

C. Somatic recombination

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Innate immune receptors are encoded by:
A. Rearranged gene segments
B. Germline DNA
C. Immunoglobulin superfamily genes
D. MHC loci

B. Germline DNA

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The inability of innate immunity to improve response upon repeated exposure is due to absence of:
A. Cytokines
B. Phagocytes
C. Antigen specificity
D. Immunologic memory

D. Immunologic memory

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Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is classified as a:
A. DAMP
B. Viral nucleic acid
C. Cell wall lipid PAMP
D. Carbohydrate antigen

C. Cell wall lipid PAMP

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Which PAMP is most associated with Gram-positive bacteria?
A. LPS
B. Mannan
C. Lipoteichoic acid
D. Unmethylated CpG DNA

C. Lipoteichoic acid

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Heat shock proteins become immunologically significant when they:
A. Are intracellular
B. Act as enzymes
C. Are released extracellularly
D. Bind antibodies

C. Are released extracellularly

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Which molecule is classified as a DAMP in gout?
A. Glucans
B. ATP
C. Monosodium urate
D. Flagellin

C. Monosodium urate

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Which PRR is cytosolic and recognizes viral RNA?
A. TLR4
B. CLR
C. RIG-I
D. CD14

C. RIG-I

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Toll-like receptors activate inflammation primarily through:
A. Caspase-1
B. NF-κB and IRFs
C. JAK-STAT
D. SYK only

B. NF-κB and IRFs

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TLR4 specifically recognizes:
A. Peptidoglycan
B. β-glucans
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Viral dsRNA

C. Lipopolysaccharide

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Inflammasome activation results in:
A. IL-2 secretion
B. Caspase-8 activation
C. Conversion of pro-IL-1β to IL-1β
D. Antibody class switching

C. Conversion of pro-IL-1β to IL-1β

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Which receptor family forms inflammasomes?
A. TLRs
B. CLRs
C. RLRs
D. NLRs

D. NLRs

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NOD1 and NOD2 recognize:
A. Viral RNA
B. Bacterial peptidoglycan
C. Fungal glycans
D. DNA in endosomes

B. Bacterial peptidoglycan

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The earliest and most abundant responders to bacterial infection are:
A. Macrophages
B. Dendritic cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Eosinophils

C. Neutrophils

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Which function distinguishes macrophages from neutrophils biochemically?
A. Respiratory burst
B. NET formation
C. Cytokine gene transcription
D. Phagocytosis

C. Cytokine gene transcription

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Pyroptosis is most characteristic of:
A. Neutrophils
B. Macrophages
C. NK cells
D. Mast cells

B. Macrophages

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NK cells are activated when target cells:
A. Express Class I MHC
B. Lack inhibitory receptor ligands
C. Present antigen via MHC II
D. Secrete antibodies

B. Lack inhibitory receptor ligands

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Recognition of “missing self” refers to absence of:
A. CD8
B. Immunoglobulin
C. MHC class I
D. Cytokines

C. MHC class I

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Clonal selection is essential for:
A. Inflammation
B. Antigen presentation
C. Immunologic memory
D. Complement fixation

C. Immunologic memory

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Which cell differentiates into plasma cells?
A. CD8 T cell
B. NK cell
C. B cell
D. Dendritic cell

C. B cell

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B cells mature primarily in the: A. Thymus B. Spleen C. Bone marrow D. Lymph nodes

C. Bone marrow

The stage producing antibodies is the: A. Naïve lymphocyte B. Activated lymphocyte C. Effector lymphocyte D. Memory lymphocyte

C. Effector lymphocyte

Antigen recognition occurs during the: A. Effector phase B. Cognitive phase C. Activation phase D. Memory phase

B. Cognitive phase

The antigen-binding site of an antibody is formed by: A. Fc region B. Constant regions C. Complementarity-determining regions D. Hinge region

C. Complementarity-determining regions

Which domain of IgG binds complement? A. CH1 B. CH2 C. CH3 D. VL

B. CH2

Papain digestion of IgG yields: A. One F(ab’)₂ B. Two Fab and one Fc C. One Fab only D. Complete degradation

B. Two Fab and one Fc

The immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta is: A. IgM B. IgA C. IgE D. IgG

D. IgG

The most efficient activator of complement is: A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

C. IgM

Secretory IgA differs from serum IgA by presence of: A. Fc region B. Secretory component C. Complement site D. Heavy chain

B. Secretory component

MHC class I molecules present peptides to: A. CD4 T cells B. CD8 T cells C. B cells D. NK cells

B. CD8 T cells

β₂-microglobulin is associated with: A. MHC II only B. Antibodies C. MHC I only D. TCR

C. MHC I only

The peptide-binding groove of MHC II is formed by: A. α chain only B. β chain only C. α and β chains D. β₂-microglobulin

C. α and β chains

T cells recognize which type of epitope? A. Conformational only B. Linear only C. Both types D. Carbohydrate epitopes

B. Linear only

Hybridomas are selected using: A. RPMI medium B. DMEM C. HAT medium D. Agarose

C. HAT medium

A fully human monoclonal antibody ends with: A. –o B. –zu C. –xi D. –u

D. –u

IgM anti-HBc indicates: A. Past infection B. Vaccination C. Early acute infection D. Chronic immunity

C. Early acute infection

NS-1 antigen testing is most useful in dengue during: A. Recovery B. Late infection C. First 3–5 days D. Secondary infection

C. First 3–5 days

Immune-privileged sites include all EXCEPT: A. Brain B. Eye C. Placenta D. Liver

D. Liver

Fetal tolerance is partly due to trophoblast cells lacking: A. Class I MHC B. Class II MHC C. IgG D. CD4

B. Class II MHC

CD3 is a marker for: A. B cells B. NK cells C. T cells D. Monocytes

C. T cells

CD16⁺ CD56⁺ CD3⁻ identifies: A. Cytotoxic T cells B. Helper T cells C. NK cells D. Plasma cells

C. NK cells

Which feature BEST distinguishes adaptive immunity at the molecular level? A. Use of germline-encoded receptors B. Recognition of conserved microbial motifs C. Somatic recombination of receptor genes D. Immediate effector function

C. Somatic recombination of receptor genes

The delayed onset of adaptive immunity is primarily due to: A. Requirement for complement activation B. Antigen-dependent clonal expansion C. Absence of cytokines D. Lack of phagocytic cells

B. Antigen-dependent clonal expansion

Which immune component bridges innate and adaptive immunity most directly? A. Neutrophils B. Dendritic cells C. NK cells D. Eosinophils

B. Dendritic cells

Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) differ from antigen receptors because PRRs: A. Require MHC for ligand binding B. Undergo gene rearrangement C. Recognize shared microbial structures D. Exhibit high molecular diversity

C. Recognize shared microbial structures

Which receptor–ligand pairing is CORRECT? A. RIG-I — bacterial peptidoglycan B. TLR4 — lipopolysaccharide C. CLR — viral RNA D. NOD2 — β-glucans

B. TLR4 — lipopolysaccharide

Activation of NF-κB by innate immune receptors primarily leads to: A. Antibody class switching B. Production of inflammatory cytokines C. Apoptosis of infected cells D. T-cell receptor rearrangement

B. Production of inflammatory cytokines

Which PRR is located in endosomes and detects microbial nucleic acids? A. NLR B. RLR C. TLR D. CLR

C. TLR

Which cell type kills infected cells WITHOUT prior antigen priming? A. CD8⁺ T lymphocytes B. NK cells C. B lymphocytes D. Regulatory T cells

B. NK cells

The primary role of dendritic cells in adaptive immunity is: A. Cytokine secretion only B. Direct killing of pathogens C. Antigen presentation to naïve T cells D. Antibody production

C. Antigen presentation to naïve T cells

Which cell is most associated with prolonged cytokine production following gene transcription? A. Neutrophils B. Macrophages C. Eosinophils D. Basophils

B. Macrophages

Clonal selection ensures that: A. All lymphocytes respond equally B. Only antigen-specific lymphocytes expand C. Innate immunity develops memory D. Self-reactive cells are activated

B. Only antigen-specific lymphocytes expand

The effector phase of the immune response is characterized by: A. Antigen recognition B. Cell proliferation C. Antigen elimination D. Tolerance induction

C. Antigen elimination

Which event occurs FIRST during an adaptive immune response? A. Antibody secretion B. Effector cell migration C. Antigen recognition D. Memory cell formation

C. Antigen recognition

The antigen-binding specificity of antibodies is determined by: A. Fc region B. Constant regions C. Complement-binding site D. Variable regions

D. Variable regions

Which immunoglobulin is the FIRST produced during a primary immune response? A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgE

C. IgM

A hapten differs from an immunogen because a hapten: A. Cannot bind antibodies B. Cannot elicit an immune response alone C. Is always a self antigen D. Is a tolerogen

B. Cannot elicit an immune response alone

Which immunoglobulin mediates immediate hypersensitivity reactions? A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgE

D. IgE

The primary function of regulatory T lymphocytes (Tregs) is to: A. Kill virus-infected cells B. Produce antibodies C. Suppress excessive immune responses D. Activate complement

C. Suppress excessive immune responses

Failure of regulatory lymphocyte function is MOST likely to result in: A. Immunodeficiency B. Autoimmune disease C. Increased vaccine efficacy D. Enhanced innate immunity

B. Autoimmune disease

Peripheral tolerance is maintained primarily by: A. Bone marrow deletion B. Thymic negative selection C. Regulatory T cells D. MHC polymorphism

C. Regulatory T cells

The main goal of vaccination is to induce: A. Immediate innate immunity B. Passive antibody transfer C. Immunologic memory D. Complement activation

C. Immunologic memory

Live attenuated vaccines are particularly effective because they: A. Do not replicate in host cells B. Elicit only IgM responses C. Mimic natural infection D. Bypass antigen presentation

C. Mimic natural infection

Which vaccine type poses the greatest risk in immunocompromised patients? A. Toxoid B. Subunit C. mRNA D. Live attenuated

D. Live attenuated

mRNA vaccines function by: A. Introducing inactivated virus B. Delivering antibodies directly C. Encoding viral proteins in host cells D. Stimulating PRRs only

C. Encoding viral proteins in host cells

Booster vaccinations are required primarily because: A. Antigens mutate immediately B. Memory cells are lost rapidly C. Antibody levels decline over time D. Innate immunity lacks receptors

C. Antibody levels decline over time

Which immune response relies MOST on antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)? A. Innate immunity only B. Cell-mediated immunity only C. Humoral immunity D. Central tolerance

C. Humoral immunity

Regulatory lymphocytes are MOST important during which phase of the immune response? A. Cognitive phase B. Activation phase C. Effector phase D. Resolution phase

D. Resolution phase

Which immune component exhibits the GREATEST receptor diversity? A. TLRs B. CLRs C. Immunoglobulins D. NLRs

C. Immunoglobulins

Which statement BEST describes adaptive immunity? A. Rapid but nonspecific B. Pattern-based recognition C. Antigen-specific with memory D. Identical response on re-exposure

C. Antigen-specific with memory

The biochemical basis of immunologic memory is the persistence of: A. Activated neutrophils B. Plasma proteins C. Memory lymphocytes D. Pattern recognition receptors

C. Memory lymphocytes

Immunology Flashcards

(90 cards)