(MD 1) Biochemistry > Oncogene > Flashcards

Oncogene Flashcards

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1
Q

Which phase of the cell cycle is characterized by DNA replication?
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M

A

B. S

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2
Q

Which event occurs during M phase?
A. DNA replication
B. Protein synthesis
C. Mitosis and cytokinesis
D. DNA repair

A

C. Mitosis and cytokinesis

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3
Q

Which checkpoint ensures DNA is fully replicated before mitosis?
A. G1/S
B. G2/M
C. M checkpoint
D. S checkpoint

A

B. G2/M

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4
Q

Oncogenes are derived from:
A. Tumor suppressor genes
B. Proto-oncogenes
C. DNA repair genes
D. Apoptotic genes

A

B. Proto-oncogenes

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5
Q

Tumor suppressor genes primarily function to:
A. Promote proliferation
B. Encode growth factors
C. Inhibit cell cycle or induce apoptosis
D. Increase metabolism

A

C. Inhibit cell cycle or induce apoptosis

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6
Q

Which component activates Cdk?
A. ATP
B. Cyclin
C. DNA
D. p53

A

B. Cyclin

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6
Q

Without cyclin, Cdks are:
A. Hyperactive
B. Inactive
C. Degraded
D. Mutated

A

B. Inactive

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7
Q

Which cyclin-Cdk complex controls G1 phase?
A. Cyclin B–Cdk1
B. Cyclin D–Cdk4/6
C. Cyclin A–Cdk2
D. Cyclin E–Cdk2

A

B. Cyclin D–Cdk4/6

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8
Q

Which complex initiates DNA synthesis?
A. Cyclin A–Cdk1
B. Cyclin B–Cdk1
C. Cyclin E–Cdk2
D. Cyclin D–Cdk4

A

C. Cyclin E–Cdk2

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9
Q

Which cyclin is associated with mitosis?
A. Cyclin A
B. Cyclin B
C. Cyclin D
D. Cyclin E

A

B. Cyclin B

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10
Q

Which cyclin is paired with Cdk4 and Cdk6?
A. Cyclin A
B. Cyclin B
C. Cyclin D
D. Cyclin E

A

C. Cyclin D

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11
Q

G1/S transition is controlled by:
A. Cyclin D–Cdk4
B. Cyclin E–Cdk2
C. Cyclin A–Cdk1
D. Cyclin B–Cdk1

A

B. Cyclin E–Cdk2

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12
Q

Which complex appears in S and G2 phases?
A. Cyclin D–Cdk4
B. Cyclin E–Cdk2
C. Cyclin A–Cdk2
D. Cyclin B–Cdk1

A

C. Cyclin A–Cdk2

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13
Q

M phase progression depends on:
A. Cyclin A–Cdk2
B. Cyclin B–Cdk1
C. Cyclin D–Cdk6
D. Cyclin E–Cdk2

A

B. Cyclin B–Cdk1

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14
Q

CAK kinase adds what type of phosphate?
A. Inhibitory
B. Activating
C. Neutral
D. Degrading

A

B. Activating

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15
Q

Wee1 kinase adds:
A. Activating phosphate
B. Inhibitory phosphate
C. No phosphate
D. Ubiquitin

A

B. Inhibitory phosphate

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16
Q

Cdc25 phosphatase functions to:
A. Add inhibitory phosphate
B. Remove inhibitory phosphate
C. Degrade cyclin
D. Inhibit CDK

A

B. Remove inhibitory phosphate

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17
Q

Full activation of CDK requires:
A. Cyclin binding only
B. Dephosphorylation only
C. Cyclin binding + proper phosphorylation
D. ATP hydrolysis

A

C. Cyclin binding + proper phosphorylation

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18
Q

The Rb protein binds which transcription factor?
A. p53
B. E2F
C. MYC
D. Ras

A

B. E2F

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19
Q

Dephosphorylated Rb results in:
A. Active transcription
B. E2F activation
C. Repression of transcription
D. Apoptosis

A

C. Repression of transcription

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20
Q

Phosphorylation of Rb leads to:
A. DNA damage
B. Binding to E2F
C. Release of E2F
D. Degradation

A

C. Release of E2F

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21
Q

Cyclin D–Cdk4/6 causes:
A. DNA replication
B. Rb phosphorylation
C. Apoptosis
D. Mutation

A

B. Rb phosphorylation

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22
Q

Which protein inhibits Cyclin E–Cdk2?
A. p21
B. p27
C. p53
D. Rb

A

B. p27

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23
Q

Cyclin E synthesis is stimulated by:
A. p53
B. E2F
C. ATM
D. ATR

A

B. E2F

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24
Cyclin E–Cdk2 promotes degradation of: A. p21 B. p27 C. Rb D. MYC
B. p27
25
Cyclin E–Cdk2 activates which enzyme for DNA replication? A. DNA polymerase B. MCM helicase C. Ligase D. Topoisomerase
B. MCM helicase
26
ATR is activated by: A. Double-strand breaks B. Single-strand DNA C. Protein misfolding D. RNA damage
B. Single-strand DNA
27
ATM is activated by: A. Single-strand DNA B. Double-strand breaks C. ATP depletion D. Hypoxia
B. Double-strand breaks
28
ATR activates: A. Chk2 B. Chk1 C. p21 D. Rb
B. Chk1
29
ATM activates: A. Chk1 B. Chk2 C. Cyclin E D. Ras
B. Chk2
30
Chk1/Chk2 cause cell cycle arrest by: A. Activating cyclins B. Degrading Cdc25 C. Activating Cdc25 D. Inhibiting p53
B. Degrading Cdc25
31
p53 is known as: A. Cell cycle driver B. Guardian of the genome C. Growth factor D. Oncogene
B. Guardian of the genome
32
p53 induces expression of: A. Cyclin D B. p21 C. MYC D. Ras
B. p21
33
p21 inhibits: A. DNA replication B. Cyclin-Cdk complexes C. Apoptosis D. Mutation
B. Cyclin-Cdk complexes
34
p53-induced apoptosis involves: A. Cyclin B B. PUMA and Noxa C. Ras D. MYC
B. PUMA and Noxa
35
Ink4 family inhibits: A. Cdk1 B. Cdk2 C. Cdk4/6 D. Cdk5
C. Cdk4/6
36
Cip/Kip family inhibits: A. Cyclin B B. Cdk2 complexes C. DNA polymerase D. Rb
B. Cdk2 complexes
37
Which is a Cip/Kip protein? A. p16 B. p15 C. p21 D. p18
C. p21
38
A benign tumor is: A. Invasive B. Metastatic C. Localized D. Malignant
C. Localized
39
Malignant tumors are characterized by: A. Localization B. Invasion and metastasis C. Slow growth D. Differentiation
B. Invasion and metastasis
40
Most cancers are: A. Sarcomas B. Carcinomas C. Leukemias D. Lymphomas
B. Carcinomas
41
Sarcomas arise from: A. Epithelium B. Connective tissue C. Blood D. Nerve
B. Connective tissue
42
Hepatitis B virus is linked to: A. Lung cancer B. Liver cancer C. Brain cancer D. Skin cancer
B. Liver cancer
43
Epstein-Barr virus causes: A. Leukemia B. Burkitt lymphoma C. Sarcoma D. Melanoma
B. Burkitt lymphoma
44
HTLV-1 causes: A. Liver cancer B. Adult T-cell leukemia C. Cervical cancer D. Skin cancer
B. Adult T-cell leukemia
45
Loss of contact inhibition results in: A. Growth arrest B. Layered cell growth C. Apoptosis D. Senescence
B. Layered cell growth
46
Replicative senescence is due to: A. DNA repair B. Telomere shortening C. Protein degradation D. Mutation
B. Telomere shortening
47
Cancer cells bypass senescence by: A. DNA repair B. Telomerase activation C. Apoptosis D. Necrosis
B. Telomerase activation
48
Tumor cells produce lactate even in presence of: A. CO₂ B. Oxygen C. Nitrogen D. ATP
B. Oxygen
49
Warburg effect involves: A. Decreased glycolysis B. Increased oxidative phosphorylation C. Increased glycolysis D. Decreased glucose uptake
C. Increased glycolysis
50
Metastasis refers to: A. Cell death B. Tumor growth C. Spread to distant sites D. Mutation
C. Spread to distant sites
51
Tumor cells commonly spread via: A. Nerves B. Lymphatics C. Skin D. Bone
B. Lymphatics
52
Oncogenes act in a: A. Recessive manner B. Dominant manner C. Neutral manner D. Inhibitory manner
B. Dominant manner
53
Gain-of-function mutation leads to: A. Tumor suppression B. Oncogene activation C. DNA repair D. Apoptosis
B. Oncogene activation
54
Silent mutation results in: A. Protein truncation B. No amino acid change C. Frame shift D. Stop codon
B. No amino acid change
55
Nonsense mutation produces: A. Hyperactive protein B. Stop codon C. Silent effect D. Amplification
B. Stop codon
56
Missense mutation results in: A. No protein B. Different amino acid C. No change D. Deletion
B. Different amino acid
57
MYCN amplification is seen in: A. Breast cancer B. Neuroblastoma C. Lung cancer D. Sarcoma
B. Neuroblastoma
58
ERBB2 amplification is seen in: A. Brain cancer B. Breast cancer C. Leukemia D. Liver cancer
B. Breast cancer
59
K-RAS amplification is seen in: A. Gastric cancer B. Brain cancer C. Skin cancer D. Bone cancer
A. Gastric cancer
60
Philadelphia chromosome involves: A. MYC B. BCR-ABL C. Rb D. p53
B. BCR-ABL
61
Burkitt lymphoma involves: A. Rb deletion B. MYC translocation C. p53 mutation D. Ras mutation
B. MYC translocation
62
Tumor suppressor genes require: A. One mutation B. Two mutations C. No mutation D. Amplification
B. Two mutations
63
Loss-of-function mutation leads to: A. Oncogene activation B. Tumor suppression C. Cancer progression D. DNA repair
C. Cancer progression
64
Hereditary retinoblastoma affects: A. One eye B. Both eyes C. Brain D. Lung
B. Both eyes
65
Non-hereditary retinoblastoma requires: A. One mutation B. Two mutations C. No mutation D. Amplification
B. Two mutations
66
p53 levels are normally: A. High B. Moderate C. Low D. Absent
C. Low
67
MDM2 functions to: A. Activate p53 B. Degrade p53 C. Mutate p53 D. Inhibit DNA
B. Degrade p53
(MD 1) Biochemistry
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