integ exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

dermis has two layers, which is superior with loosely packed collagen?

A

papillary (reticular is deeper)

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2
Q

during the maturation phase of burn wound healing ____ increases

A

-tensile strength

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3
Q

vascularity and fibroplasia increase early/late in healing?

A

early, decrease during maturation

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4
Q

epidermal appendages (nails, hair cells) do not regenerate after destruction (T/F)

A

true

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5
Q

____ burns are the first burn depth to not have pain

A

full thickness

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6
Q

zones of burns from inside to outside, which is most critical?

A

coagulation > stasis > hyperemia

stasis is most critical

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7
Q

is tPA appropriate for frostbite?

A

yes

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8
Q

stevens-johnson syndrome

A

flu-like symptoms followed by painful red/purplish rash after medication or infection

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9
Q

are epidermal burns included in TBSA?

A

yes

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10
Q

are donor sites included in TBSA?

A

yes

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11
Q

is TBSA calculated different in kids?

A

yes

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12
Q

are amputation areas subtracted from TBSA?

A

yes

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13
Q

burn shock peaks when?

A

1 day post burn

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14
Q

which product is used for pseudomonas?

A

sulfamylon

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15
Q

allograft

A

thicker, temporary solution for full thickness burns

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16
Q

autograft

A

harvested from same person, standard for full thickness burns

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17
Q

zenograft

A

harvested from another species

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18
Q

which has a HIGHER risk of contracture, split thickness skin grafting or full thickness skin grafting?

A

split thickness skin grafting

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19
Q

what positioning is important for healing of a free-flap reconstruction?

A

dangling the leg off the bed multiple times per day

dangled in dependent position (more blood flow)

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20
Q

what is a cutaneous functional unit?

A

field of skin that functionally contributes to ROM at an associated joint

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21
Q

if patient has burns over three joints, which one is most likely to contract?

A

middle joint

22
Q

chronic wounds are stalled in the ____ phase

A

inflammation stage

23
Q

this pressure ulcer stage may present as a painful blister/ulcer involving the epidermis and dermis

24
Q

this pressure ulcer stage does NOT involve tendon, bone or joint capsule, but may have undermining/tunneling

25
stage 1 vs. deep tissue injury
stage 1: redness | deep tissue: purple/maroon
26
presence of slough/eschar indicates that the ulcer is at least stage ____
stage 3
27
arterial ulcer is what color?
usually paler in the wound bed, punched-out appearance
28
what ABI indicted peripheral arterial disease?
less than 0.9 greater than 1.3 means calcification
29
precaution/consideration for chemical debridemtent
repetitive use will make the wound larger and delay healing
30
can you use wet to dry for infection?
no
31
more than 70% NT
wet to dry or maggot I think this is wrong it said less than 70% for wet to dry, over 70% for maggot over 90% for whirlpool
32
alginates and foams are both good for _____ debridement
autolytic, better for moist wounds
33
can collagen be used with infected wound?
yes
34
can collagen be used with full thickness burns?
no
35
what is a dirty wound?
an infected wound
36
what is a contaminated wound?
a wound with bacteria??
37
which type of compression bandage is designed ONLY for ambulatory pts?
unna's boot
38
how much pressure does a tubigrip provide?
8 mmHg
39
how much pressure does an unna's boot provide?
30 mmHg
40
hyperbaric oxygen therapy has been found to be helpful in _____ ulcers
diabetic ulcers and arterial
41
indications for amputation
uncontrolled infection unconrolled pain local tissue regrowth unfeasible
42
risks for diabetic ulcers
male smoking history diabetes long time
43
an ulcer on the ____ of the food is most likely to lead to amputation
heel
44
is silver dressings appropriate for infected wounds?
yes
45
occlusive and semi-occlusive dressings are indicated for wounds that...
are clean and uninfected
46
topical agents can be used for both clean and infected wounds (T/F)
false... | not for clean because you dont want to disrupt the wound bed
47
health belief model
perceived susceptibility, perceived seriousness, percieved barriers, perceived benefits, cues to action, self-efficacy
48
theory of planned behavior
intention to behave is a function of their attitude toward the behavior, their belief of what others think they should do, perceived level of difficulty or ease
49
trans theoretical model
aka stages of change... precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
50
social cognitive theory
learning is reciprocal among a person's environment, cognitive processes, and behavior
51
community readiness model
9 stages... no awareness, denial, vague awareness, preplanning, preparation, initiation, stabilization, confirmation/expansion, professionalisms,
52
diffusion theory
bell shaped curve of adopting a new thing in a population | innovators, early adopters, early majority, late majority, laggards