MSK 2 Flashcards
1
Q
C sign is indicative of
A
femoroacetabular impingement
2
Q
labral tear tests
A
+FABER to EADIR
+Thomas test
+resisted SLR
+audible click
3
Q
ligamentum teres rupture tests
A
+O’donnell test
+log roll test possible
4
Q
what does…
+ SLS
+ resisted external derogation test … =?
A
GTPS
5
Q
secondary OA
A
result of prior damage… usually under 40
6
Q
CPR for hip OA
A
3/5 = 68% 4/5 = 91% squatting is painful active hip flex causes lateral pain scour with add causing lateral or groin pain passive IR less than 25 active hip ext. causing pain
7
Q
Adults >50 y.o. with hip OA meet ≥ 1 of the following criteria:
A
- Moderate anterior or lateral hip pain with WB activities
- AM stiffness < 1 hr duration after waking
- Hip IR < 24° OR IR and hip flexion 15° less than nonpainful side
- Increased pain with PROM hip IR
8
Q
what is FABER test for
A
FAI, SIJ
9
Q
what is FABER to EADIR test for
A
internal snapping hip, labrum
10
Q
what is FADIR test for
A
FAI
11
Q
what is Flex + IR + axial load test for
A
posterior labrum tear
12
Q
what is scour of the hip for
A
intra-articular pathology
13
Q
what is over test for
A
ITB tightness or GTPS irritant
14
Q
what is Thomas test for
A
hip flexor/rectus femoris tightness
15
Q
what is resisted external derogation test for
A
GTPS
16
Q
what is ely’s test for
A
rectus femoris length
17
Q
tests for meniscus injury
A
- mcmurray
- apley compression
- thessaly’s
- joint line tenderness
18
Q
most common avulsion fracture in pediatric knee
A
tibial eminence fractures
19
Q
osgood-schlatter
A
traction on tibial tubercle
20
Q
sinding Larson Johansson (SLJ)
A
irritation of growth plate at inferior pole of patella caused by repetitive traction
21
Q
osteochondritis dessicans (OCD)
A
focal lesion or injury of the subchondral bone region
22
Q
after how many weeks should pregnant patients avoid supine?
A
28 weeks, no more than 3 minutes
23
Q
common numbness in pregnancy
A
called neuralgia parasthetica (lateral femoral cutaneus compressed under inguinal ligament)
24
Q
pregnant women shouldn’t exercise with a BP over…
A
140/90
could be a sign of preeclampsia
25
gravida 3 means
pregnant 3 times
26
para 2 means
live birth 2 times
27
pelvic floor mm. anterior to posterior
puborectalis
pubococcygeus
iliococcygeus
coccygeus
28
oligohydramniosis
decreased amount of amniotic fluid
29
polyhydraminosis
increased amount of amniotic fluid
30
cervical incompetence
excessive dilation of the cervix
31
placenta previa
placenta implants low in the uterus
32
placenta abruptia
separation of he placenta from the uterine wall
33
scheuermann's disease/ juvenile kyphosis
avascular necrosis of the vertebral endplate of T6-T12
12-15 y.o.
mid thoracic pain
34
ankylosing spondylitis
17-45 y.o. men
| chronic inflammatory disease
35
reiter's syndrome
reactive arthritis to a bacterial infection
white males ages 20-40
usually resolves in 12 months
inflammation of eyes, ulcers on penis, rashes, heart problems
36
4 subgroups of back pain patients
traction
directional preference
stabilization
mobilization/manipulation
37
lumbar traction classification
radicular symptoms
don't centralize with movement tests or worsened
probably not effective treatment
38
SI mobilization syndrome tests
3 out of 4 tests
1. PSIS asymmetry
2. standing flexion test
3. supine to long-sitting tees
4. prone knee flexion test
39
lumbar manip CRP
-symptoms less than 16 days
- less than 35 deg IR for 1 hip
-hypomobility w./ spring test
-FABQ less than 19
-no symptoms distal to knee
4 or more 95%
3 or more 68%
40
lumbar CRP stabilization
- less than 40 y.o.
- average SLR more than 91
- aberrant motion with lumbar ARPM
- positive prone instability test
41
nutation
anterior sacral tilt and posterior iliac tilt
42
counternutation
posterior sacral tilt (flexion of sacrum cervix curves under) and anterior iliac tilt
43
abnormal findings of supine to sit
ALS: anterior goes long to short
| posterior is opposite
44
prone knee flexion test
leg length test, if shorter/longer in prone but same in knee flexion, its innominate not tibia length
45
SIJ clusters
1. compression
2. distraction
3. thigh thrust
4. gaenslen's test
5. sacral thrust/faber
46
Bristow maneuver
align the pelvis by bridging up and straighten legs one at a time
47
pelvis fractures
Type A: girdle intact
Type B: not intact
Type C: SI joint not connected
48
muscle energy technique of pelvis
anterior rotation: hamstrings and glutei max
posterior rotation: iliacus and rectus femoris
inflare: adductors
outflare: glutes
49
autogenic inhibition
isometric contraction followed by a period of relative hypotonicity
50
reciprocal inhibition
during and following an isometric contraction, antagonist will be reciprocally inhibited
51
how do you appreciate inflare/outflare
location of umbilicus in relation to ASIS
52
Canadian c-spine rules
any high risk factor (over 65, dangerous mechanism, paresthesia in extremities)? yes --> X-ray
any low-risk factor (simple rearend, sitting in ED, ambulatory at any time, delayed onset of neck pain, absence of midline tenderness)? no --> X-ray
able to rotate neck 45 degrees each way? no --> x-ray
53
what to screen for cervical/shoulder pain?
cardiopulmonary, gastrointestinal
54
5 Ds and 3 Ns
```
Dizziness
Diplopia
Dysarthria
Dysphagia
Drop attacks
Nausea
Nystagmus
Numbness
```
55
cervical special tests for instability
alar ligament test
sharp-purser test
transverse ligament stress test
56
cervical special tests for neurologic issues
spurlings
distraction
shoulder and test
Lhermitte's sign
57
all rotation in c-spine comes from where?
C1-C2
58
lateral flexion comes from ___ c-spine
lower
59
what's compressed in TOS
subclavian a. and v. and brachial plexus
60
what is schmorls node?
degeneration of the endplate, disc material can get in
61
discs are anistorophic what does that mean?
physical property that has a different value when measured in different directions
62
types of herniated discs
bulging/protruding: annulus intact
prolapsed/ruptured: annulus failed, but piece attached
extrusions: segment prolapsed AND separated from core
sequestered: like extrusion but farther out
63
most frequent levels of C-spine disc herniations
C6-C7 and then C5-C6
64
cervical radiculopathy predictors (4)
1. ULTT A
2. spurling
3. distraction
4. cervical rotation less than 60
65
vacuum phenomena
a collection of gas within the disc space, vertebral body, apophyseal joint or spinal canal
66
is it more likely to have a fusion in the lumbar or cervical region?
cervical spine
67
osteoporosis bone density level
2.5 SD below the young adult mean
68
why does smoking delay healing?
hemoglobin likes CO more then O2... less oxygen delivery
69
cervical classification categories
```
centralization
mobility
exercise/conditioning
pain control
headache
```
70
thoracic manip CPR
Clinical Prediction Rule:
Symptom duration <38 days
Positive expectation that manipulation would help
Side-to-side differences in cervical ROM > 10°
Pain with P/A spring testing of middle c-spine
71
what is a mulligan PILL respone
pain free, instant, long lasting
72
what does TNM mean in oncology
```
T= tumor size
N= nodal involvement
M= number of met sites
```
73
chemo drugs that cause pulmonary toxicity
bleomycin: antitumor antibiotic
74
chemo drugs that cause neurotoxicity
platinum agents
75
chemo drugs that cause rheumatic toxicity
almost any chemotherapeutic drug
76
restorative rehab in onco
minimal or no residual deficit
77
supportive rehab in onco
pt. will have persistent disability but can minimize this
78
when does fatigue peak for radiation and chemo
radiation: highest at end of treatment, builds up during
chemo: peaks just after
79
metabolic oncologic emergency
hypercalcemia (normal 9-11) caused by malignancy, immobilization, poor nutrition, vomiting
80
chvostek test for jaw
tests CN VII, tap parotid gland, + is twitch
81
cholecystitis
gallbladder, pain in scapula and T-spine after high fat meal
82
c sign when opening to R means
R hypomobility
83
S sign when opening means
hyper mobility
