L44 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

What are 3 diseases that could result if TB from the lung moves extra-pulm via bacteremia?

A

Meningitis
Tuberculoma = cavitary lesions
Pott’s disease of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are tell tale signs/symptoms of TB meningitis?

A

Sub-acute neuro signs: headache, fever, AMS
High WBC
Low glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is miliary TB?

A

TB bacteremia –> dissemination into various organs

  • Often liver
  • *MILLET SEEDS on CXR**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the difference between pulmonary vs extra-pulm TB cultures?

A

Take cultures from the tissues you’re concerned about

  • Pulm = chest
  • Extra = could be anywhere
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a major drawback of PPD/IGRA tests?

A

CANNOT distinguish between active and latent TB!!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the AFB sputum culture to diagnose pulmonary TB.

A

Rapid
Cheap
Determine drug susceptibility
CanNOT distinguish M.TB from non-tuberculine mycobacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe NAAT to diagnose pulmonary TB.

A

Rapid
$$
Higher sen & spec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do mycobacterium stain?

A

Acid fast!
Red b/c of carbol fuschin
Other body cells stain blue b/c methylene blue is the counter stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which culture techniques do you use for M.TB? (the 1 solid mediums vs 2 liquid mediums)

A
1. L-Jensen agar (slow)
OR
2. MGIT = liquid media
- Detects release CO2 by growing M.TB 
- FASTER!
3. Microscopic Observational Drug Susceptibility Assay
- Cheap & fast in liquid media
- Susceptibility testing too
- **Developing world**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In cultures, what shape characteristic tells you M.TB from other mycobacteria?

A

Cording!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which diagnostic test would you use to determine rifampin resistance for M.TB fast?

A

Molecular assays - GeneXpert
= PCR
Looking at rpoB gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What conditions must be met to take a possible TB patient out of airborne isolation?

A

3 negative AFB sputum cultures

Alternative diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If you think a patient has TB, what must you also test them for?

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Is pulm or extra-pulm TB more common in HIV patients?

A

W/ low CD4 counts - extra-pulm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 1st line TB drugs? Include mechanism of each.

A
RIPE
Rifampin - X protein synthesis 
Isoniazid - X mycolic acid synth
Pyrazinamide - impact plasma mem, disrupts E metabolism
Ethambutol - X arabnoglyctan synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are 2nd line TB drugs?

A

Fluoroquinolones (often substituted for ethambutol w/ TB meningitis)
Injectables - amkicain
Give if resistant to 1st line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the time course & combinations that TB drugs are given in.

A

2 mos = RIPE

4 mos –> on = RI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do you give with isoniazid to prevent neuropathy?

A

Vit B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the side effects of the RIPE drugs?

A

Rifampin - hepatitis, organ body fluids
Isoniazid - hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy (neurons & hepatocytes)
Pyrazinamide - hepatitis, GI upset
Ethambutol - optic neuritis, impaired color vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What animals carry M.leprae?

A

Amradillos!

And humans…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Can M. leprae be cultured?

A

No

Doesn’t take up stain - must use acid fast stain

22
Q

Where does M.leprae grow on the body?

A

Cooler areas - skin & extensor surfaces

23
Q

What cells does M.leprae infect?

A

Obligate INTRACELL

Prefers macrophages & Schwann cells

24
Q

How is M.leprae transmitted?

A

Nasal droplets

25
Which form of leprosy is more infectious: tuberculoid or lepromatous?
Lepromatous > tuberculoid | B/c multibacillary bacterial burden (aka many M.leprae) > paucibacillary
26
Why do you describe leprosy as a spectrum?
Tubercolid and lepromatous are the extremes - can present with some spectrum in between Borderline symptoms/skin lesions
27
Which type of leprosy is a Th2 response? What are the main cytokines?
Lepromatous IL 4, 5, 10 mediated Therefore no T cell response
28
Which type of leprosy is a Th1 response? What are the main cytokines?
Tuberculoid IL2, IFNg, TNF beta mediated Therefore T cell response specific to M.leprae antigens
29
Which form of leprosy is contained in granulomas with only localized inflammation and peripheral nerve damage?
Tuberculoid (Th1) | Single but progressive nerve involvement
30
Which form of leprosy results in a disseminated infection including diffuse bone, cartilage, and nerve damage?
Lepromatous (Th2) | Several nerves affected but slow progression
31
Which form of leprosy shows organisms growing in macrophages?
Lepromatous (Th2)
32
What are the common clinical symptoms for both types of leprosy?
Common = skin lesions + thickened peripheral nerves - Loss of eyebrows - Saddle nose deformity - Ear lobe nodules
33
Name the specific symptoms for tuberculoid vs lepromatous.
Tuberculoid = few, discrete lesions - 1 nerve, FAST Lepromatous = many symmetrical lesions, thickened skin, nodules - Many nerves, slow
34
How do diagnose leprosy?
Biopsy = gold standard | - Granulomas w/ mycobacteria
35
How do you treat leprosy?
Multidrug to prevent resistance Paucibacilliary (tuberculoid, Th1) - 6 mo rifampin/dapsone Multibacillary (lepromatous, Th2) - 12 mo rifampin/clofazamine/dapsone
36
How can you prevent disease in close contacts?
Single dose rifampin
37
How is non-TB mycobacterium spread?
``` Found everywhere in the environment Inhalation Ingestion Inoculation NOT person-person ```
38
What are the 2 categories of non-TB mycobacterium?
Rapid growers | Slow growers
39
What are 3 types of NTM slow growers?
Nonchromagen Photochromagen - yellow colonies in light Scotochromagen - yellow/orange colonies in dark or light
40
What temps do NTM prefer?
Colder (few strains)
41
Which clinical syndroms do NTM cause?
Pulmonary disease Skin/ST infections Lymphadenitis
42
What are the clinical finding of NTM pulmonary disease? Which strain of bacteria is the most likely culprit?
Mycobacterium avium complex Non-transmissible form of disease Chest CT: disseminated nodules
43
If you get 1 positive sputum culture for NTM - myco avium complex, what's your next step?
Confirm with serial sputum cultures | Need at least 2 + cultures for MAC
44
What are the big 4 drugs for NTM MAC pulmonary disease?
Rifampin Ethambutol Azithromycin Clarithromycin - need to susceptibility test this
45
What type of ulcer is caused by NTM?
``` Buruli ulcer - mycobacterium ulcercans Transmitted via skin trauma B/c cytotoxin Treat: - Rifampin + streptomycin or claruthromycin ```
46
Which strain of NTM causes "fish tank granuloma"? Treat severe vs mild?
``` M.marinum Treat SEVERE disease: - Rifampin - Clarithromycin + ethambutol Treat disease confined to skin: - Cipro, doxy, bactrim, or clathithro ```
47
Which skin lesions should you suspect for NTM?
Chronic, indolent skin lesions | Unresponsive to standard antimicrobials
48
Which NTM bug is going to cause disseminated disease? Which patient populations are at risk?
``` Myco avium complex Immunosuppressed pts (HIV) ```
49
Symptoms and organs involved in disseminated MAC disease.
``` Symptoms: - Fevers, night sweats - Weight loss - Abd pain, diarrhea Organs: - Biliary - Hepato-spleno-megaly - Bone marrow - Colitis ```
50
How do you treat disseminated MAC?
Macrolide + ethambutol + rifamycin