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Flashcards in Lab Tech Exam 1 Deck (185):
0

Structures on the surface of erythrocytes
Genetically determined and referred to as blood group ...

Antigens

1

Blood group antigens may react with what in the plasma of another animal

Antibodies

2

This reaction can occur with blood transfusions as a result of variation in blood group antigens between the recipient and donor

Antigen-antibody reaction

3

Feline blood types (3, letters)

A, B, AB

4

Greater than 90% of cats in US are blood type....

A

5

This blood type is more common in certain purebred cats

Type B

6

This blood type is rare in cats

AB

7

Naturally occurring antibodies against other blood types are found in all cats by the time they are how old?

A few weeks old

8

Cats with blood type B have strong antibodies against what type?
Type B cats can suffer fatal reactions if given this type of blood.

Type A

9

Cats with type A blood have weak antibodies against what type?
Type A cats generally have a mild reaction if given this type of blood.

Type B

10

This cat blood type lacks naturally occurring antibodies and can safely receive blood from the other 2 types.

Type AB

11

This cat blood type is a universal recipient

Type AB

12

Condition that occurs if mom has antibodies against kitten's blood type.
Ex: type A or AB kittens born to type B dams
Kitten ingests the maternal anti-A antibodies in colostrum which causes hemolysis in kitten
CX: acute death, fading kittens, tail-tip necrosis

Neonatal isoerythrolysis

13

Canine blood types

DEA 1.1, 1.2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

14

DEA stands for what

Dog erythrocyte antigen

15

Dogs can be ..... for either (not both) DEA 1.1 or 1.2 or they are .... for both.

Positive
Negative

16

Most dogs do or do not have naturally occurring alloantibodies against erythrocyte antigens like humans.

Do not

17

These are antibodies against an antigen that exists in alternative forms.

Alloantibodies

18

In canines, antibodies can develop and result in a ........ transfusion reaction in as little as a week after the original transfusion.

Delayed

19

The majors antigens for dogs are which 3 blood types?

DEA 1.1, 1.2, & 7

20

Transfusion reactions are more or less likely to occur if blood positive for DEA 1.1, 1.2, or 7 is transfused to negative dogs.

More likely

21

Approximately 50% of dogs are positive for ....

DEA 1.1

22

First time canine transfusion of non-cross matched or typed blood produces a reaction rate of approx...

15%

23

Subsequent transfusion reaction rates for dogs show what trend?

Increase significantly

24

What should be done before transfusing any dog with a history of a blood transfusion?

Cross-match

25

Breeds more commonly DEA 1.1 positive are (2)

Golden retrievers and Labradors

26

Blood from dogs that are DEA ..... negative is not likely to cause a problem in most dogs, but donors should be typed for all antigens.

DEA 1.1 negative

27

What canine blood type is the true universal donor?

DEA 4

28

This species has no apparent blood type

Ferrets

29

8 major blood groups in horses

QUACKD PT

30

Are there any universal blood types for horses?

None

31

These can be present as a result of vaccinations containing equine tissue or transplacental immunization.
They are also naturally occurring.

Antibodies

32

Should cross matching be done before the first transfusion in horses?

Yes!

33

Transfusion reactions in horses are commonly

Fatal

34

This condition seen in nursing offspring can also occur in horses.

Isoerythrolysis

35

11 bovine blood groups

A B C F J L M R S T Z

36

This bovine blood group is polymorphic, with more than 60 different antigens

Group B

37

These antibodies are the only common natural antibodies in cattle

Anti-J antibodies

38

These donors minimize transfusion reactions

J-negative

39

Bovine erythrocytes have little tendency to ......., therefore lyric cross match screening is required

Agglutinate

40

7 ovine blood groups

A B C D M R X

41

These ovine naturally occurring antibodies may be present

R

42

Ovine RBCs have little tendency to ......, similar to cattle

Agglutinate

43

Bovines have antibodies against what other species RBCs?

Ovine - don't bottle feed a sheep with cow colostrum

44

5 major blood systems in goats

A B C J M

45

This society regulates:
Standardization of nomenclature of blood typing universally
Standardization of testing reagents for blood typing
Insure consistency in typing, testing, blood groups and other blood group research

International Society of Animal Genetics

46

This reaction may occur even when animals are administered blood of a compatible type.
This is why cross matching must be done.

Transfusion reaction

47

This type of testing is used is further document compatibility between blood donor and recipient

Cross matching

48

Blood typing focuses on the .... on the surface of the RBCS.

Antigens

49

Cross matching focuses on ..... in the plasma.

Antibodies

50

Blood typing: if the patient sample shows agglutination in the well marked Type A, the cat tested has blood group ...

A

51

Blood typing: if the patient sample shows agglutination in both patient wells, the cat tested has blood group....

AB

52

Dogs can be checked for DEA .... In house using commercially available card

DEA 1.1

53

To fully blood type dogs, bloods needs to be....

Sent to outside lab

54

Blood typing for large animals is ........for routine analysis before transfusion.

Impractical

55

Large animal blood can be typed by

Sending to outside lab

56

Blood typing does not eliminate the need for this test

Cross matching

57

There are other undetectable factors that can cause incompatibility (3)

Immune-mediated diseases
RBCS diseases
Previous transfusions from 4 days prior

58

A blood cross match (BCM) is performed to detect ......... Imcompatibility. (Remember: use red top tube for cross matching)

Serological

59

This type of cross match tests the recipient's serum for antibodies to the donor's RBCs.
Since the main aim of the transfusion is to provide the recipient with RBCs, it is most important that the recipient's serum antibodies do not destroy these cells and in doing so evoke a reaction.

Major cross match

60

This type of cross match assesses the risk of recipient cell destruction by the donor serum.
Much smaller risk because volume of transfused serum will comprise only a small volume of the recipient's total serum.

Minor cross match

61

How much blood is needed for a cross match?
What type of tube should it be placed in?

1 ml from both donor and recipient
Both in EDTA tubes (purple top)

62

After obtaining blood from the donor and recipient, what is the next step in a cross match?

Separate the plasma from the red cells via centrifugation of both tubes, at blood speed (very slow) for 10 min

63

For cross match: after blood has been centrifuged, what is the next step?

Separate plasma and packed red cells into 4 separate plastic tubes, labeled donor plasma, recipient plasma, donor RBCs, recipient RBCs.

64

Cross match: after the serum and RBCs are in separate tubes, what is the next step?

Suspend 0.2 mls of donor and recipient RBCs into 4.8 mls of 0.9% saline in separate syringes and gently mix.

65

Cross match: what is the next step after rinsing the RBCs of the donor and recipient?

Prepare 4 slides: donor and recipient controls, minor and major cross matches.

66

What do the control slides contain for the cross match?

Donor control: 1 drop of donor plasma, 1 drop of donor rinsed RBCs
Recipient control: 1 drop of recipient plasma, 1 drop of recipient rinsed RBCs

67

What is on the minor cross match slide?

1 drop recipient rinsed RBCs
1 drop donor plasma

68

What is on the major cross match slide?

1 drop recipient plasma
1 drop donor rinsed RBCs

69

After slides have been made for cross matching, what should be done?

Mix gently and examine both grossly and microscopically (high dry) for hemolysis and agglutination. Rouleaux formation is normal.

70

If the recipient control is auto-agglutinating, should a cross match be performed?

No

71

Which control slide will allow you to look for auto-agglutination?

Recipient

72

The cross match is what type of agglutination reaction?

Type 1 hypersensitivity

73

Which control will allow you to observe the unit for RBC viability, bacteria, hemolysis, etc?

Donor control

74

What is involved in the rapid method for cross matching?

1 drop donor blood (EDTA), 1 drop of recipient SERUM, 2 drops saline
Place on glass slide and swirl
Equal volumes needed for accuracy

75

Agglutination must be differentiated from what by microscopic analysis?

Rouleaux formation

76

When RBCs look like cluster of grapes, what is this?

Agglutination

77

When RBCs are stacked like coins, this is

Rouleaux formation

78

These are characteristics are true of what?
Thorough PE, CBC, comprehensive chemistry, serology, nutritionally sound, parasite free, fully vaccinated, on monthly hep and flea/tick prevention

Blood donors

79

What is the ideal weight for a dog blood donor?

At least 60lbs

80

What blood type is best to have for a dog blood donor?

DEA 4, or DEA 1.1 and DEA 1.2 negative

81

These tests are used as additional screening for what?
Thyroid profile, distemper, parvovirus, rv titer, brucellosis, trypanosomiasis, vWD, babesia canis and babesia gibsoni, leishmania

Additional screening for a blood donor

82

What is the ideal weight for a cat blood donor?

Over 10 lb

83

Should the cat be an indoor or outdoor cat or does it matter?

Strictly indoors

84

These additional screening tests are used for what?
Thyroid profile, FIP, toxoplasmosis, cytauxzoon, hemotrophic feline mycoplasma, bartonella spp.

Cat blood donor

85

For blood collection, does the donor need to be sedated?

Donor sedated if necessary, not necessary in most dogs once used to routine

86

Does the site of collection for blood need surgically prepped?

Yes

87

What vein is used as the collection site in dogs and cats?

Jugular

88

Blood collection should be performed rapidly and without interruption. True or false?

True

89

Using a single vein puncture of vein during blood collection avoids what?

Excessive activation of clotting cascade and damage to RBCs.

90

This blood collection set has an evacuated blood collection bottle. Separate collection set is needed.

Acid citrate dextrose, ACD

91

This blood collection set has plastic blood pack units, and attached needle should be used.

Citrate phosphate dextrose, CPD

92

Vacuum bottles: care is taken not to lose ......... at time of venipuncture.

Vacuum

93

A 19 ga butterfly needle and large syringe containing desired anticoagulant is used for blood collection in what species?

Cat

94

If using one of these two anticoagulants, blood must be used within 24-48 hours.
They lack RBC preservative resulting in marked increase in pH, decrease in RBC adenosine triphosphate.

Heparin or sodium citrate

95

Heparin and sodium citrate lack RBC preservative. What does this do to the blood? (2 things)

Marked increase in pH
Decrease in RBC adenosine triphosphate.

96

Which 2 blood collection kits would you use for blood being stored over 48 hours?

Acid citrate dextrose, ACD
Citrate phosphate dextrose, CPD

97

When using acid citrate dextrose, ACD, or citrate phosphate dextrose, CPD, what temp should the blood be stored at?

1-6 degrees C

98

Storage temperature for blood cannot vary by more than

2 degrees C

99

During storage of blood, what should be done?

Gently mixed periodically

100

What anticoagulant effectively stores whole blood for 21 days?

ACD

101

What anticoagulant stores whole blood for 21 days?

CPD

102

CPDA-1 with added RBC preservative adenosine effectively stores whole blood for how long?

35-45 days

103

What are the components of blood?

Erythrocytes
Leukocytes
Platelets
Plasma

104

Anemia, need antibodies, thrombocytopenia, clotting disorder, hypoproteinemia (hypoalbuminemia) are all indications for what?

Blood transfusion

105

Severe anemia, severe bleeding, thrombocytopenia, coagulopathies (DIC, warfin), factor deficiencies, severe hypoproteinemia are all indications that the patient needs what component of blood for a transfusion?

Fresh whole blood

106

This can be collected in house inexpensively

Fresh whole blood

107

Finding a donor is time restrictive if needed for an emergency situation
Not ideal for conditions where volume overload is a concern
These are cons for which what type of transfusion?

Fresh whole blood

108

These are indications for what type of transfusion?
Need RBCs, increase O2 delivery
Need plasma proteins (oncotic volume expansion)
Need stable coagulation factors (fibrinogen)

Stored whole blood

109

These type of component for transfusions:
Can be kept on hand for emergencies
Shelf life approx 35 days
Roughly 45 min to properly bring to room temp

Stored whole blood

110

These are indications to use what component for a transfusion?
Anemia with normal plasma volume
Major indication is decreased O2-carrying capability
It is administered rapidly with less risk of creating volume overload

Stored packed RBCs

111

This component for transfusions:
Reduces the frequency of transfusion reactions
Supplies RBCs only
Has a shelf life of roughly 35 days

Stored packed RBCs

112

These are characteristics of what type of transfusion component?
Frozen within 6 hrs of collection
Supplies plasma proteins (oncotic volume expansion)
Supplies all coagulation factors
Does not supply via platelets
Lass chance of causing a transfusion reaction than whole blood
Shelf life 1 yr
Roughly 1 hr to thaw

Fresh frozen plasma

113

Is cross matching or blood typing required for plasma products?

No, not since RBCs are not present in plasma

114

These are indications to use what type of transfusion component?
Deficit of coag factors ( warfarin toxicity, DIC, inherited coag factors deficiencies - vWD)
Deficit of plasma proteins
Need to expand fluid volume
Need antibodies

Fresh frozen plasma

115

Characteristics of what type of transfusion component?
Frozen after 6 hours of collection
Supplies plasma proteins
Does not contain some of the unstable clotting factors
Roughly 1 hr to thaw
Can be stored up to 5 yrs

Frozen plasma

116

These are indications to use what transfusion component?
Hypoproteinemia
Colostrum replacement
Volume expansion

Frozen plasma

117

These are characteristics of what transfusion component?
Supplies high concentration of Factor VIII, vWD, and fibrinogen per ml than Fresh frozen plasma
Does not supply viable platelets
Roughly 2 hrs to thaw

Cryoprecipitate

118

Indications to use what transfusion component?
Severe coagulopathy
VWD
Hemophilia
DIC

Cryoprecipitate

119

Characteristics of what transfusion component:
Collected through plateletpheresis
Contains 1.0 x 10^11 platelets
Contains fresh frozen plasma as holding solution
Contains DMSO as a preservative
Shelf life 6 months

Frozen platelet concentrate

120

This is used for the treatment of bleeding due to thrombocytopenia

Frozen platelet concentrate

121

When warming blood for transfusion, it should be placed in a

Ziplock bag

122

Start with a water bath at what temp when warming blood

Room temp

123

Is it ok to microwave blood?

No

124

Can blood be immediately placed in hot water?

No

125

The temperature of the blood should not exceed what temp? Going above this can cause hemolysis?

50 degrees C

126

What routes are acceptable for blood administration?

IV, IP, IO

127

What routes are acceptable for neonatal blood administration?

IP, IO

128

What should be used during administration for all blood components?

Blood filter

129

Where should the blood filter be placed along the line?

As close to IV as possible.

130

Why should IV fluid pumps that close the line in the door not be used?

They can crush or lyse RBCs.

131

Strict asepsis is not essential during collection, storage, and administration of blood and blood products.
True or false?

False, strict asepsis is essential during all

132

Blood transfusions should be administered in ..... hours or less to reduce chances of contaminant bacterial growth.

4 hours or less

133

Administer ... ml/lb of whole blood to raise the patient hematocrit by 1%.

1 ml/lb

134

These factors increase or reduce transfusion complications?
Choosing the right blood product
Recognize the signs of a reaction
Use proper administration rates
Blood typing and cross matching

Reduce transfusion complications

135

Any transfusion reaction means that the transfusion is ..... doing its intended job and has burdened an already compromised patient.

Not done its job

136

While receiving a transfusion, vital signs should be monitored how often?

Every 15 min

137

Should the desired rate of blood component being transfused be started that way?

No, slowly increase rate of delivery until desired rate - over 1 hr period

138

Pruritis, urticaria, restlessness, anxiety, tachypnea, tachycardia are signs of what?

Early transfusion reactions

139

Nausea, vomiting, fever, shock, coma, death are signs of what?

Late transfusion reactions

140

Cutaneous erythema is also a sign of a

Transfusion reaction

141

Can be seen after as little as 1 ml of administered blood
Vocalization, salivation, urination, defecation
Depression to recumbency
Brachycardia or arrhythmias
Seizures or apnea
Death
Clinical signs of what?
In cat

Transfusion reaction
Type a blood to type b cat

142

What is the very first thing you should do if you suspect your patient is having a reaction?

Stop the transfusion

143

Patient is having a transfusion reaction and dyspnea is present, what should you do?

Administer O2

144

Patient is having a transfusion reaction, what injection can you give them?

Diphenhydramine IM

145

Tx with what approximately 30 min prior transfusion may reduce reaction

Antihistamines

146

Immunologic reactions result from transfusion of

Incompatible blood

147

Incompatible RBCs in previously unsensitized recipient will be destroyed how many days after the transfusion?

7-10 days

148

Clinical consequences of ......... transfusion reaction include rapid development of tachycardia, hypotension, vomiting, salivation, and muscle tremors.

Hemolytic

149

Delayed ........ reactions suspected if PCV drops unexpectedly 2-21 days after transfusion.

Hemolytic

150

This can also be caused by immunologic reactions to leukocyte, platelet, or plasma protein incompatibilities
Reactions between antigens and antibodies activate complement system
Release vasoactive substances responsible for trembling, vomiting, urticaria
Prior transfusion not required for these reactions to occur

Transfusion reactions

151

This type of transfusion reaction is principally due to vascular overload

Non-immunologic

152

Coughing, increased respiratory rate, respiratory distress, vomiting are signs of what?

Vascular overload

153

For non-immunologic transfusion reactions, the transfusion rate is reduced to approximately

1 ml/kg/hr

154

Should food, water, and medications be withheld during transfusion?

Yes

155

Transfusion induced fever is due to

Foreign proteins

156

Initial step of controlling transfusion induced fever is ...... rate of transfusion.

Slow

157

This hemostatic disorder is a result of low platelet numbers caused by bone marrow injury or dysfunction.

Thrombocytopenia

158

Causes for what hemostatic disorder: estrogen toxicity, immune mediated, late stages of chronic viral, bacterial, or rickettsial diseases, myeloproliferative disorders, infectious, neoplasia, toxins

Thrombocytopenia, affects bone marrow

159

Adherence between platelets and collagen is mediated by what factor?

Von Willebrand's factor

160

vWF disease is a hereditary deficiency or abnormality of vWF causing what to fail?

Platelet function

161

What breed is vWF disease most common in?

Dobermans

162

What human disease is similar to vWF disease?

Hemophilia

163

Clinical signs of vWF disease usually appear before what age?

6 months

164

Theses are clinical signs of what disorder?
Petechia, ecchymoses, hemorrhage in the retina, blood in urine or feces, epistaxis

Mechanical hemostasis disorder

165

What organ is the primary site for synthesis of most coag factors?

Liver

166

Production of coag factors is maintained at close to normal until >..... Of the normal liver mass is nonfunctional

80%

167

This vitamin is required for synthesis of factors II, VIII, IX, X

Vit K

168

Inadequate consumption or malabsorption of Bit K causes what?

Bleeding disorders

169

These toxins inhibit what?
Rodenticides that contain warfarin, indanediones or brodifacoum
Sulfaquinoxaline (a coccidiostat)
Dicumarol (fungal metabolite in sweet clover)

Vit K absorption

170

This hemostatic disorder can be due to therapeutic heparin administration, making it iatrogenic

Heparinization

171

This hemostatic disorder could be secondary to massive release of endogenous heparin from mast cell tumor degranulation.

Heparinization

172

DIC stands for what?

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

173

The formation of numerous tiny clots throughout the body which deplete platelet availability causes this hemostatic disorder

DIC

174

In this hemostatic disorder, fibrin degradation products coat the platelets and interfere with adherence to collagen

DIC - disseminated intravascular coagulation

175

What adult parasite would be described as having a slender anterior end with its mouth at the tip and a thickened posterior extremity?

Trichuris vulpis

176

In puppies, transplacental transmission is the primary route of infection for

Toxocara canis

177

The tapeworm that releases its eggs in packets is

Dipylidium caninum

178

Which of the following parasite ova is collected using a scotch tape technique?

Oxyuris equi

179

Which factors are part of the intrinsic pathway of the coag cascade?

XII, XI, IX, VIII

180

Coag factors are primarily synthesized in which organ?

Liver

181

Which test of the coag system requires a blood tube containing diatomaceous earth?

ACT

182

In an emergency situation, thrombocytopenia can quickly be detected by estimating the platelet count on a blood smear. Approximately how many platelets should be seen per oil immersion field in a normal animal for most species?

8-10

183

What are the coag factors involved in the common pathway of the coag cascade?

X, V, II, I

184

What is the universal donor blood group of dogs?

DEA 4 positive only