Lab Tech Exam 3 Flashcards
1
Q
Cytology samples from ____ sites are characterized by the presence of WBC’s, particularly neutrophils and macrophages.
A
inflammatory
2
Q
Introduction of a needle into a body cavity or organ for the purpose of removing fluid.
A
Centesis
3
Q
Taking a variety of shapes & forms; multiple morphologies
A
pleomorphism
4
Q
Unless the samples are from a moist lesion, swabs must be moistened with ___ before samples are collected.
A
sterile saline
5
Q
Multiple imprints from different layers of an external lesion is referred to as a ____ preparation.
A
Tzanch
6
Q
To ensure adequate fixation of histology samples, slabs of tissue no more than ____ wide should be placed in fluid-tight jars containing formalin at approximately ___ times the specimen’s volume.
A
1 cm
10X
7
Q
The ___ ___, also called the needle spread technique, is ideal for the preparation of viscous samples.
A
starfish technique
8
Q
Samples with low cellularity and small volume should be prepared with the ___ ____ technique.
A
line smear
9
Q
Prepared cytology slides should remain in fixative for __-__ minutes before staining.
A
2-5
10
Q
In fluid samples, total nucleated cell counts of greater than _____ is a common finding with inflammation.
A
5,000
11
Q
Suppurative inflammation is characterized by the presence of greater than ___% of the total nucleated cell count.
A
85
12
Q
____ appears as a nucleus that appears swollen, ragged nucleus without an intact nuclear membrane and with reduced staining intensity.
A
Karyolysis
13
Q
____ represents slow cell death (aging) and refers to a small, condensed, dark nucleus.
A
Pyknosis
14
Q
Hyperplasia with no criteria of malignancy present in the nucleus of the cells is described as
A
benign neoplasia
15
Q
Cells that display at least 3 abnormal nuclear configurations are identified as
A
malignant
16
Q
Epithelial cell tumors are also referred to as
A
carcinoma
17
Q
When more than 15% of a cytology sample is composed of macrophages, the sample is classified as ____ or ____.
A
granulomatous or pyogranulomatous
18
Q
A sample characterized by the presence of large numbers of cells with an eccentrically located nucleus and prominent perinuclear clear zone most likely indicates a
A
plasma cell tumor
19
Q
Yeasts, squamous epithelial cells, and ____ organisms are commonly isolated from ear swabs and may not indicate pathology.
A
bacteria/microorganisms
20
Q
In a normal lymph node, the predominant cell type is the
A
lymphocyte
21
Q
Epithelial cells that are angular in appearance and have no nuclei or that contain a pyknotic nuclei are described as
A
superficial
22
Q
Reactive lymph nodes contain predominantly small, mature lymphocytes as well as ____ __, lymphoblasts, and intermediate lymphocytes.
A
plasma cells
23
Q
Plasma cells containing secretory vesicles of immunoglobulin are described as
A
occasional Mott cells
24
Q
___ cells line the body cavities.
A
Endothelial
25
A fluid sample with a high fat content and large number of mature lymphocytes is described as
chylothorax
26
Normal peritoneal and pleural fluids have less than ___ nucleated cells/uL
10,000
27
The following are nuclear criteria of _____: macrokaryosis; increased nucleus:cytoplasm ratio; anisokaryosis; multinucleation; increased mitotic figures; abnormal mitosis - coarse chromatin pattern; nuclear molding; macronucleoli; angular nucleoli; anisonucleoliosis
malignancy
28
Sample with large cell size, round to caudate cell shape, usually high cellularity, clumps or clusters are common.
Epithelial
29
Sample with small to medium cell size; spindle to stellate cell shape; usually low cellularity; clumps or clusters uncommon.
mesenchymal
30
Sample with small-medium cell size; round cell shape; usually high cellularity except histiocytoma; clumps or clusters umcommon.
Discrete round cell
31
These are cell types that may be found in ____ cytology samples: parabasal epithelial, intermediate cells - small & large, superficial cells, anuclear superficial cells, RBCs, WBCs, bacteria, sperm, and squamous cells.
vaginal
32
These are evaluations that may be performed on ___ samples: volume of ejaculate; gross appearance; sperm motility; sperm concentration; live/dead sperm ratio; sperm morphology; other misc cells.
semen
33
fragmentation of a cell nucleus
karyorrhexis
34
describes tumors of epithelial cell origin
carcinoma
35
tumor arising from melanocytes of the skin or other organs
melanoma
36
used to describe a tumor or growth that is not malignant
benign
37
paracentesis of the abdomen
abdominocentesis
38
removal of fluid from the thoracic cavity
thoracocentesis
39
generic term to describe any growth; often used to describe a tumor, which may be malignant or benign
neoplasia
40
any cancer arising from the cells of connective tissue
sarcoma
41
an effusion characterized by low protein concentration and low total nucleated cell counts
transudate
42
act of puncturing a body cavity or organ with a hollow needle to draw out fluid
centesis
43
What type of effusion does this describe: large amt of fluid; clear, colorless, or red tinged; <1,500/uL of TNCC; mixture of monocytes, macrophages, lymphocytes, & mesothelial cells
transudate
44
What cell types are seen in exudate?
inflammatory: neutrophils, macrophages, lymphocytes, & eosinophils
45
What color is exudate effusion?
turbid, white, slightly yellow
46
How much protein is in exudate? Less than or more than 3.0 g/dL?
More than
47
What cell types are found in modified transudate?
lymphocytes, nondegenerative neutrophils, mesothelial cells, macrophages, neoplastic cells
48
microscopic study of diseased tissues; compare cells to their neighbors
histopathology
49
The primary purpose of the cytology evaluation is to differentiate ____ and ____.
inflammation and neoplasia
50
What type of collection method should be used when imprints, scrapings, and aspirates cannot be made such as fistulous tracts and vaginal cytology.
Swab
51
What type of collection method should be used on external lesions on living animals, or tissues removed during sx or necropsy?
impression smears
52
What are 2 advantages of impression smears?
easy to collect
| minimal restraint
53
What are 2 disadvantages of impression smears?
fewer cells than scrapings
| greater amount of contamination
54
If a Dermatophilus congolensis infection is suspected, the ___ must also be imprinted.
underside of the scab
55
If the tissue is not blotted dry before impressions are made, the slides will usually contain only
blood/tissue fluid
56
Discrete cells, such as ___ cells and cells of __ __ __, exfoliate well with imprints.
inflammatory
| round cell tumors
57
____ lesions generally do not exfoliate many cells; however, highly malignant ____ tumors may yield very cellular specimens.
Mesenchymal
58
This technique can be used to collect from masses in: lymph nodes, nodular lesions, and internal organs.
fine needle biopsy
59
What gauge of needle should be used for a fine needle biopsy?
21-25 ga.
60
What volume of syringe should be used for a fine needle biopsy?
3-20 ml
61
____ ___ may be preformed by passage of a catheter through an endotracheal tube in an anesthetized animal, through nasal passages, or through the skin & trachea.
Tracheal washes
62
This refers to the measures that must be included during each assay run to verify that the test is working properly.
Quality control
63
This is defined as the overall program that ensures that the final results reported by the lab are correct.
Quality Assurance
64
Means to determine the quality of the results generated by the lab. This is a challenge to the effectiveness of the QA & QC programs.
Quality Assessment
65
Can quality assessment be external or internal?
both
66
The known, accepted value of a quantifiable property
true value
67
the result of an individual's measurement of a quantifiable property
measured value
68
A sample batch is __-___ samples or less.
10-20
69
How well a measurement agrees with an accepted value.
accuracy
70
How well a series of measurements agree with each other.
precision
71
This is an ideal concept which cannot be achieved.
True value
72
The value approximating the true value, the difference between the two values is negligible.
Accepted true value
73
The discrepancy between the result of the measurement and the true (or accepted true value)
error
74
Avoidable error due to controllable variables in the measurement.
Systematic error
75
Unavoidable errors that are always present in any measurement. Impossible to eliminate.
Random errors
76
Standards used, calibration values, and values of physical constants. Source of error
input data required
77
An error which varies in an unpredictable manner, in magnitude and sign, when a large number of measurements of the same quantity are made under effectively identical conditions.
Random error
78
An error which, in the course of a number of measurements of the same value of a given quantity, remains constant when measurements are made under the same conditions, or varies according to a definite law when conditions change.
Systemic error
79
Purposes of necropsy
Establish cause of death
Verify a pre-mortem diagnosis
Establish the efficacy or lack of efficacy of TX prior to animal's death
Determine whether other animals may be at risk for infection or injury environmental hazards
80
Before beginning a necropsy, you should
Be sure client consent is in writing!
Verify patient ID (microchip/tattoo)
Include full identifying info regarding the client on the report form.
Provide complete history of events leading to the necropsy, including cause & time of death.
81
Prior to euthanasia, collect blood in a red top, purple top, and green top, approx ___ ml each if possible.
10
82
Euthanasia: use a method that will cause the least amount of ____ change, and not damage tissues of interest.
artifactual
83
Methods of euthanasia
```
gas chamber/induction mask
Parenteral injections: IV, IP, IC
Gunshot or captive bolt
Cervical dislocation
Electrocution
Exsanguinations
Pithing (slaughtering technique)
```
84
While necropsy is performed, describe and record all _____. Be specific in descriptions, without drawing conclusions.
abnormalities
85
This should be done at what point during the necropsy: report in writing, all the findings of necropsy; tentative conclusions may be made at end of report.
After necropsy is completed
86
Never ____ an animal destined for necropsy because it destroys some tissues.
freeze
87
These are descriptions of what: well-lit, easy to disinfect, have adequate drainage for fluids & water, large enough to be well-ventilated, apart from surgical & patient areas.
necropsy area
88
PPE should include
waterproof scrubs or aprons
rubber boots
gloves
goggles & surgical masks
89
Most of the instruments you use will not
surgical-grade
90
The large shears are for
cutting ribs
91
What instruments should be used for a small animal necropsy?
```
array of scissors
scalpel w/blade
forceps
hemostats
syringes
```
92
String is used for what in necropsy?
closing off sections of intestine (prevent mixing soft tissue specimens with GI contents)
93
Formalin fixation is usually conplete within ___ hours. Large brains may take ___ hours.
24
| 48
94
A buffered formalin. Most widely used fixative for preserving tissues.
10% formalin
95
A mixture of buffered formalin and formaldehyde. Best for larger tissues, or those that are thicker.
50% formalin
96
Tissues can be collected for analysis of
potential bacteria
viral infection
mycotic infection
mycoplasma infection
97
Before samples are collected for examination what should be done?
Diagnostic lab should be contacted for specific advice.
98
Always send several prepared slides to the lab, as well as the
remains of the sample
99
Where are we going to collect samples from?
primary site of disease
| lymph nodes in area of primary site
100
Tissues for ___ ___ should be: collected aseptically, refrigerated in sterile container, or immersed in sterile 50% buffered glycol in sterile container, preserved by freezing.
virus isolation
101
Prime specimens for virus isolation include:
lung, liver, spleen, kidney & brain
102
Fresh, refrigerated tissue immersed in ____ ___ media is preferred method of tissue submission.
virus transport
103
These are samples to collect for what? Blood, urine, stomach contents, liver, kidney, fatty tissue, brain tissue (if not rabies suspect)
toxicology samples
104
Any animal suspected of rabies should be handled only with
full PPE.
105
Keep the head of the animals suspected of rabies
refrigerated.
106
There should always be complete ___ on the specimen containers.
labeling
107
Always handle tissues gently. Do not squeeze, stretch or ___ tissues.
rinse
108
Containers with formalin should be kept closed except when tissues are placed in them because formalin is a contact irritant and a
carcinogen
109
Tissues become rigid with fixation, so if there is a need to retain flatness of tissue, it can be placed on a piece of
cardboard before immersion
110
Sections from paired organs may be ___ ___ to distinguish them from each other
trimmed differently
111
In case of tumors, there is a way of ____ marking to allow the pathologist to determine cranial, caudal, right & left sides of the lesion.
color-coded
112
Critical tissues should be collected from
lung, myocardium, liver, spleen, pancreas, stomach, sm intestine, colon, lymph nodes, kidney, urinary bladder, endocrine organs, skeletal muscle, spinal cord
113
Before you begin the necropsy,
evaluate gross appearance of animal
114
The dissection should begin with examination of the
eye.
115
___ undergoes rapid decomposition after death.
Retina
116
Sampling ___ fluid can be particularly useful with some viral diseases, as well as with some neoplasias.
ocular
117
Attempt to aspirate fluid from where for cytology?
all major joints
| thoracic & abdominal cavities
118
If there is ____, place in a sterile container.
effusion
119
If the fluid shows any hemolysis or blood products, put some in a tube with
anticoagulant - EDTA
120
Necropsy begins with animal in ___ ___ recumbency.
left lateral
121
Review necropsy instructions in McCurnin's and powerpoint p311
x
