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LATG > LATG 14: Common Health Problems of Laboratory Animals > Flashcards

LATG 14: Common Health Problems of Laboratory Animals Flashcards

1
Q

An early sign of infestation with mites, fleas, and ticks is:

A

excessive scratching

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2
Q

How is rabies most often transmitted?

A

bite from an infected animal

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3
Q

Wild-caught animals are likely to carry which ectoparasites?

A

fleas, ticks, mites

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4
Q

Wild-caught animals are likely to carry which ectoparasites?

A

fleas, ticks, mites

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5
Q

True or False: Fleas do not infest reptiles.

A

False

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6
Q

True or False: Treatment for diarrhea often includes anticholinergic and antisecretory drugs.

A

True

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7
Q

True or False: The use of antibiotics that are mainly effective against gram positive organisms should be avoided in guinea pigs.

A

True

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8
Q

Among all animals used in research, which are at the greatest risk for contracting rabies?

A

Wild caught animals

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9
Q

True or False: Once clinical signs are observed, rabies is almost always fatal.

A

True

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10
Q

What is the common name for a gastric trichobezoar?

A

hairball

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11
Q

Which agent has been identified as the cause of scaly skin disease in athymic nude mice?

A

Corynebacterium bovis

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12
Q

True or False: The female Syphacia pinworm lays its eggs on the perineum; the Aspiculuris tetraptera lays its eggs in the animal’s colon.

A

True

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13
Q

Helicobacter spp. are most commonly diagnosed with which technique?

A

PCR test

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14
Q

True or False: Adult mice infected with epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM) have watery, yellow stools.

A

False

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15
Q

What clinical sign would suggest that young mice may have epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM)?

A

yellow stains around base of tail

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16
Q

True or False: Although rarely seen anymore, Mycoplasma pulmonis can be exacerbated by stress due to overcrowding.

A

True

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17
Q

Sialodacryoadenitis is which type of virus?

A

corona virus

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18
Q

True or False: Syphacia spp. can be detected by finding eggs on the perineum of the affected animal.

A

True

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19
Q

What system is primarily affected by Mycoplasma pulmonis?

A

respiratory

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20
Q

True or False: Pinworm eggs are easy to destroy by chemicals or dessication.

A

False- highly resistant

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21
Q

What is the most common detection method of Mouse Hepatitis Virus in a colony?

A

serology of sentinel animals

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22
Q

True or False: C57BL/6 and C57BL/10 mice are the strains most likely to be affected by idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis.

A

True

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23
Q

True or False: Idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis is caused by protozoan infestation.

A

False

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24
Q

True or False: Mouse parvovirus causes severe diarrhea.

A

False

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25
Q

True or False: Infection with Mycoplasma pulmonis can result in a severe head tilt.

A

True

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26
Q

True or False: An immunodeficient mouse that has contracted mouse norovirus may have pneumonia, hepatitis, and meningitis.

A

True

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27
Q

True or False: Mycoplasma pulmonis is rarely seen among laboratory rats.

A

True

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28
Q

True or False: All pinworm infections in rodents can be detected by the anal tape test.

A

False

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29
Q

Which is the best method of preventing bumblefoot?

A

using clean, dry, substrate and proper flooring

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30
Q

Sore nose in gerbils is caused by what kind of pathogen?

A

Bacteria

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31
Q

Pododermatitis is also known by what name?

A

Bumble foot

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32
Q

Increased porphyrin secretion from the Harderian glands or high humidity causes what problems in gerbils?

A

nasal dermatitis

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33
Q

Pasteurellosis is spread by what routes of transmission?

A

direct contact and aerosolized

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34
Q

What causes coccidiosis?

A

protozoan

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35
Q

True or False: Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV) is a zoonotic organism found in mice and hamsters.

A

True

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36
Q

What is the best method of controlling pasturellosis in rabbits?

A

purchase from a Pasteurella-free vendor

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37
Q

True or False: Tyzzer’s disease is effectively treated with sulfa drugs.

A

False- there is no effective treatment

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38
Q

In what organ of the body are insulinomas found in ferrets?

A

pancreas

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39
Q

What is the BEST way to prevent canine distemper in ferrets?

A

vaccination

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40
Q

What is the BEST way to prevent canine distemper in ferrets?

A

vaccination

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41
Q

What is a correct summary of how aplastic anemia develops in female ferrets?

A

If intact females are not allowed to breed, estrogen levels remain high and the imbalance affects the bone marrow.

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42
Q

True or False: Dogs suffering with parvovirus typically have a temperature of at least 40 degrees Celsius.

A

False- puppies usually have a high temperature whereas older dogs are lower

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43
Q

Canine parvovirus is an acute infection affecting what part of the gastrointestinal system?

A

small intestine

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44
Q

True or False: An ELISA test can be used to diagnose heartworm infection in dogs.

A

True

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45
Q

True or False: Cleaning and drying the ear canal should always be done for dogs with externa otitis.

A

True

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46
Q

How is heartworm infection spread?

A

Mosquitos

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47
Q

True or False: Otitis externa in dogs is always caused by a bacterial infection.

A

False

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48
Q

True or False: Canine parvovirus is found only in very young animals.

A

False

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49
Q

Where are Dirofilaria immitis (heartworms) found in a dog’s body?

A

right atrium and pulmonary artery

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50
Q

True or False: Canine distemper virus often causes fatal respiratory infections in ferrets as well as dogs.

A

True

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51
Q

Otitis externa in cats may be associated with infestation by what arthropod?

A

Notoedres cati

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52
Q

What is the condition in cats characterized by frequent, painful, or difficult urination; hematuria; and straining?

A

Feline lower urinary tract disease

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53
Q

Excessive grooming in cats can lead to what?

A

Gastric trichobezoars

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54
Q

True or False: Medication that raises the pH of the urine is used to treat feline lower urinary tract disease.

A

False- medication that lowers pH is used to treat FLUTD

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55
Q

What human virus is a retrovirus that is said to have its origin in nonhuman primates?

A

HIV

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56
Q

In most cases, nonhuman primates contract tuberculosis through contact with what?

A

infected humans

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57
Q

True or False: Intradermal tuberculin testing is used to test nonhuman primates for tuberculosis.

A

True

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58
Q

To test nonhuman primates for tuberculosis, the tuberculin is injected intradermally in what part of the body?

A

upper eyelid

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59
Q

True or False: Radiographs are generally not useful in diagnosing tuberculosis in nonhuman primates.

A

True

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60
Q

True or False: An employee who works with nonhuman primates and has been exposed to measles outside of the facility should notify the animal facility supervisor as soon as possible.

A

True

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61
Q

What zoonotic viral disease often remains asymptomatic in infected macaques and can be fatal in humans?

A

B Virus

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62
Q

Nonhuman primates are highly susceptible to what zoonotic respiratory disease?

A

Tuberculosis

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63
Q

All personnel having contact with nonhuman primates should be vaccinated against what zoonotic contagious disease?

A

measles

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64
Q

What should a bite kit in a facility housing NHP should contain:

A

viral culture swabs, disinfectant, wound cleaning instructions, sample collection tubes

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65
Q

What is a common cause of rumen stasis?

A

sudden diet change, grain-heavy diet with insufficient roughage

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66
Q

True or False: Humans with Q fever usually have conjunctivitis and blisters around their nose and mouth.

A

False- humans are asymptomatic to symptoms of influenza

67
Q

To reduce the chance of contracting orf, what precaution should always be taken by personnel handling sheep?

A

wear gloves

68
Q

True or False: Pasteurellosis may cause septicemia, an infection of the bloodstream.

A

True

69
Q

Coxiella burnetii is the causative agent for which disease?

A

Q fever

70
Q

What type ruminants present the greatest risk for transmitting Q-fever to humans?

A

Pregnant or postpartum females

71
Q

What symptoms may be due to infection with Pasteurella multocida?

A

septicemia, respiratory disease, mastitis

72
Q

True or False: Orf is also known as contagious erythremia.

A

False- cutaneous erythremia

73
Q

True or False: In rumen stasis, a change in the pH of the rumen results in putrefaction of feed.

A

True

74
Q

Orf usually affects humans on their:

A

hands

75
Q

How is rumen stasis generally treated?

A

administration of warm saline and electrolytes

76
Q

True or False: Q fever is found only in sheep.

A

False

77
Q

Laminitis is a condition affecting the:

A

hooves

78
Q

True or False: Q fever spreads mainly by inhalation of aerosol.

A

True

79
Q

True or False: Coxiella burnetii can easily be eliminated from an animal facility by regular disinfection of the area where ruminants are kept.

A

False

80
Q

True or False: Contagious ecthyma is a zoonotic disease that can be life threatening to humans.

A

False

81
Q

True or False: Porcine circovirus may be transmitted by the aerosol, fecal-oral, and contact routes.

A

True

82
Q

What is the cause of malignant hypothermia in swine?

A

gene mutation

83
Q

What health problem would cause a pig to appear oblivious to its surroundings and to have seizures?

A

salt toxicity

84
Q

An infection with Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is called:

A

cutaneous capillariasis.

85
Q

What disease causes lethargy and excessive mucus and white spots on the skin of fish?

A

Ich

86
Q

What is a diseases of aquatic species is caused by a fungus?

A

Chytridiomycosis

87
Q

Ich is caused by what pathogen?

A

Ichthyopthirius multifilis

88
Q

What fish disease is also known as fin rot?

A

bacterial gill disease

89
Q

What agent is associated with red leg in amphibians?

A

Aeromonas hydrophila

90
Q

True or False: Xenopus with hard bloat can be successfully treated with Epsom salt baths.

A

False- soft bloat can be treated with Epsom salts

91
Q

True or False: Cutaneous capillariasis can be treated successfully with bactericidal antibiotics.

A

False- anthelmintics

92
Q

True or False: Chytridiomycosis can lead to a loss of the righting reflex in affected amphibians.

A

True

93
Q

A bacterial septicemia that occurs frequently in frogs and that can cause erosion of the toes, feet, and jaws is called:

A

Red Leg

94
Q

True or False: Many wild frogs and salamanders have died due to chytridiomycosis.

A

True

95
Q

True of False: Atabrine and sea salt baths are used in the treatment of velvet disease in fish.

A

True

96
Q

What pathogen causes velvet disease?

A

Piscinoodinium pillulare

97
Q

What pathogen causes velvet disease?

A

Piscinoodinium pillulare

98
Q

True or False: The difference between hard and soft bloat in amphibians is where the excess fluid is held in the body.

A

True- in hard bloat the fluid is in the body cavity, in soft bloat the fluid is within the body tissues

99
Q

What term is used for the stones that can be found in the bladders of some cats?

A

uroliths

100
Q

Pododermatitis in guinea pigs is frequently seen in what situation?

A

housed on wire flooring

101
Q

What clinical sign would suggest that young mice may have epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM)?

A

yellow stains around tail base

102
Q

What step should be taken by an employee who works with nonhuman primates and has been exposed to measles outside of the facility?

A

notify your supervisor

103
Q

Which swine disease can be prevented by vaccination?

A

Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus

104
Q

What disease may result in the sudden death of large numbers of fish in the aquaria?

A

gas bubble disease

105
Q

An infection with Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is called:

A

cutaneous capillariasis

106
Q

A goat that is staggering and kicking their belly most likely has what condition?

A

grain overload

107
Q

In most cases, nonhuman primates contract tuberculosis through contact with what?

A

contact with an infected human

108
Q

What is another name for infectious tracheobronchitis in dogs?

A

kennel cough

109
Q

What disease in fish is caused by a protozoan species?

A

Ich

110
Q

If swine are unable to access water, they may develop:

A

salt toxicity

111
Q

What mouse viral infection is considered the most widespread in facilities in the United States and Canada?

A

Mouse norovirus

112
Q

If fighting occurs among an aquatic species, what is usually the cause?

A

overcrowding

113
Q

Insufficient dietary fiber in rabbits can cause what?

A

Trichobezoars

114
Q

What disease causes lethargy and excessive mucus and white spots on the skin of fish?

A

Ich

115
Q

What disease of rodents affects the salivary glands and the Harderian glands?

A

Sialodacryoadenitis

116
Q

What tissue type is used to test for mouse parvovirus?

A

lymph nodes

117
Q

Microsporidiosis in fish is caused by what type of pathogen?

A

fungus

118
Q

The mouse norovirus is spread by what route of transmission?

A

fecal-oral

119
Q

What is described as the cessation or reduction in the motility of a ruminant’s stomach due to indigestion caused by a change within the animal?

A

rumen stasis

120
Q

Aplastic anemia can be caused by what in ferrets?

A

bone marrow suppression from high estrogen levels

121
Q

What method is BEST for preventing infectious tracheobronchitis in dogs?

A

vaccination

122
Q

At necropsy, whar finding is most likely in an animal infected by Mycoplasma pulmonis?

A

scarred lungs

123
Q

What type of medication may help eliminate signs of coccidiosis?

A

sulfa drugs

124
Q

What agent is associated with red leg in amphibians?

A

Aeromonas hydrophila

125
Q

What treatment is recommended for dogs diagnosed with canine parvovirus?

A

Intravenous fluids, antibiotics, and analgesics

126
Q

What treatment may successfully treat aplastic anemia in ferrets?

A

Ovariohysterectomy

127
Q

Where are Dirofilaria immitis (heartworms) found in a dog’s body?

A

right atrium and pulmonary artery

128
Q

Otitis externa in cats may be associated with infestation by what arthropod?

A

Notoedres cati

129
Q

Mycobacteriosis in fish is thought to spread how?

A

Cannibalism of dead tank mates

130
Q

New tank systems may develop high levels of __________ in the water that may kill fish.

A

ammonia

131
Q

What causes most of the illness of pasteurellosis in ruminants?

A

bacterial endotoxin

132
Q

What disease is characterized by fish rubbing their sides and flipping around in the corners of the tank?

A

velvet disease

133
Q

A bacterial septicemia that occurs frequently in frogs and that can cause erosion of the toes, feet, and jaws is called:

A

red leg

134
Q

Among all animals used in research, which are at the greatest risk for contracting rabies?

A

wild caught animals

135
Q

What is the BEST way to prevent canine distemper in ferrets?

A

vaccination

136
Q

What is the causative agent of Tyzzer’s disease?

A

Clostridium piliforme

137
Q

To test nonhuman primates for tuberculosis, the tuberculin is injected intradermally in what part of the body?

A

upper eyelid

138
Q

What is the primary sign of orf?

A

blisters

139
Q

How is rumen stasis generally treated?

A

administration of warmed saline and electrolytes

140
Q

Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is what type of organism?

A

nematode

141
Q

What zoonotic agent can be harbored by hamsters for an extended period of time, often without clinical signs?

A

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus

142
Q

Orf mainly affects what animals?

A

sheep and goats

143
Q

The most common method used to detect the presence of mouse hepatitis virus (MHV) in a colony is:

A

serology testing of sentinels or colony animals

144
Q

True or False: Mouse parvovirus in rats and mice is always subclinical.

A

True

145
Q

What changes in the appearance of young mice would indicate that they suffer from epizootic diarrhea of infant mice?

A

yellow staining around tail base

146
Q

Bacterial diarrhea of hamsters is known by what common name?

A

wet-tail disease

147
Q

Which viral disease of rodents affects the salivary glands and Harderian glands?

A

sialodacryoadenitis virus (SDAV)

148
Q

True or False: Syphacia spp. can be detected by finding eggs on the perineum of the affected animal.

A

True

149
Q

True or False: Rabies can be transmitted by mosquitoes.

A

False

150
Q

True or False: Antibiotics against gram-positive organisms should be avoided in guinea pigs.

A

True

151
Q

What are the 2 main causes of hairballs in rabbits?

A

self grooming, insufficient dietary fiber

152
Q

What is often a fatal disease in ferrets?

A

Canine distemper

153
Q

What is a disease of ferrets that only affects the females of the species?

A

aplastic anemia

154
Q

Canine parvovirus is an acute infection affecting what part of the GI system?

A

lining of the small intestine

155
Q

In most cases, how do NHPs contract tuberculosis?

A

via infected human

156
Q

True or False: Intradermal tuberculin testing is used to test NHPs for tuberculosis.

A

True

157
Q

What precautions should the staff take when performing a necropsy on an animal suspected of having tuberculosis?

A

wear appropriate PPE, including respirator

158
Q

What is the primary cause of fighting in aquatic species?

A

overcrowding

159
Q

True or False: Q-fever is only found in sheep.

A

False

160
Q

What are the 2 common names for Orf?

A

sore mouth, contagious ecthyma

161
Q

Why is Corynebacterium bovis clinically relevant in the vivarium?

A

high degree of virulence, environmental persistence, high potential for reinfection even after treatment

162
Q

What pathogen causes velvet disease?

A

Piscinoodinium pillulare

163
Q

What causes gas bubble disease in fish?

A

too much air dissolved in water (supersaturation)

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