law exam 2- section 22-25A, Chapter 95C <3, CMR 1-9, Licensure, CE, definitions Flashcards

Question

section 1 Extended-release long acting opioid in a non-abuse deterrent form

Answer 1

a drug that is: (i) subject to the United States Food and Drug Administration's extended release and long-acting opioid analgesics risk evaluation and mitigation strategy; (ii) an opioid approved for medical use that does not meet the requirements for listing as a drug with abuse deterrent properties pursuant to section 13 of chapter 17; and (iii) identified by the drug formulary commission pursuant to said section 13 of said chapter 17 as posing a heightened level of public health risk.

Answer 2

the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance, either directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, including any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling or relabeling of its container except that this term does not include the preparation or compounding of a controlled substance by an individual for his own use or the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance: (a) by a practitioner as an incident to his administering a controlled substance in the course of his professional practice, or (b) by a practitioner, or by his authorized agent under his supervision, for the purpose of, or as an incident to, research, teaching or chemical analysis and not for sale, or (c) by a pharmacist in the course of his professional practice.

Answer 3

any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis: (a) Opium and opiate, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiate; (b) Any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in clause (a), but not including the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium; (c) Opium poppy and poppy straw; (d) Coca leaves and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves, and any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, but not including decocainized coca leaves or extractions of coca leaves which do not contain cocaine or ecgonine

Answer 4

an oral order for medication which is dispensed to or for an ultimate user, but not including an order for medication which is dispensed for immediate administration to the ultimate user by an individual who is authorized to administer such medication under this chapter.

Answer 5

an entity at 1 geographic location or address that: (i) is engaged in the compounding of sterile drug preparations; (ii) has registered with the federal Food and Drug Administration as an outsourcing facility pursuant to 21 U.S.C. section 353b; and (iii) has registered with the board of registration in pharmacy pursuant to section 36E of chapter 112.

Answer 6

any pharmacist registered in the commonwealth to dispense controlled substances, and including any other person authorized to dispense controlled substances under the supervision of a pharmacist registered in the commonwealth. a facility under the direction or supervision of a registered pharmacist which is authorized to dispense controlled substances, including but not limited to ''retail drug business'' as defined below.

Answer 7

a person who is a graduate of an approved program for the training of physician assistants who is supervised by a registered physician in accordance with sections nine C to nine H, inclusive, of chapter one hundred and twelve. ''Poppy straw'', all parts, except the seeds of the opium poppy, after mowing. ''Practitioner'', (a) A physician, dentist, veterinarian, podiatrist, scientific investigator, or other person registered to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research in the commonwealth; (b) A pharmacy, hospital, or other institution registered to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to or to administer a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research in the commonwealth. (c) An optometrist authorized by sections 66, 66B and 66C of chapter 112 and registered pursuant to paragraph (h) of section 7 to utilize and prescribe therapeutic pharmaceutical agents in the course of professional practice in the commonwealth. (d) A nurse practitioner registered pursuant to subsection (f) of section 7 and authorized by section 80E of chapter 112 to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to or use in teaching or chemical analysis a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research in the commonwealth. (e) A nurse anesthetist registered pursuant to subsection (f) of section 7 and authorized by section 80H of chapter 112 to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to or use in teaching or chemical analysis a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research in the commonwealth. (f) A psychiatric nurse mental health clinical specialist registered pursuant to subsection (f) of section 7 and authorized by section 80J of chapter 112 to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to or use in teaching or chemical analysis a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research in the commonwealth.

Answer 8

any and all drugs upon which the manufacturer or distributor has, in compliance with federal law and regulations, placed the following: ''Caution, Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription''.

Answer 9

a person who is registered pursuant to any provision of this chapter.

Answer 10

unless the context specifically indicates otherwise, such registration as is required and permitted only pursuant to the provisions of this chapter.

Answer 11

such registration number or numbers, either federal or state, that are required with respect to practitioners by appropriate administrative agencies.

Answer 12

a store for the transaction of ''drug business'' as defined in section thirty-seven of chapter one hundred and twelve.

Answer 13

the list of controlled substances established by the commissioner pursuant to the provisions of section two for purposes of administration and regulation. focus on this not class (which has to do with jail time and law enforcement

Answer 14

a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his own use or for the use of a member of his household or for the use of a patient in a facility licensed by the department or for administering to an animal owned by him or by a member of his household.

Answer 15

a lawful order from a practitioner for a drug or device for a specific patient that is communicated directly to a pharmacist in a licensed pharmacy; provided, however, that ''written prescription'' shall not include an order for medication which is dispensed for immediate administration to the ultimate user by a an individual who is authorized to administer such medication under this chapter.

Answer 16

6 yes there are 5 I II III IV V VI - gabapentin (and additional drug), briith control pills, hydrocholorthiazide, lisinopril, amoxicillin need a Rx for V & VI

Answer 17

The commissioner

Answer 18

except that if any substance that has not been scheduled pursuant to the provisions of this section is designated a controlled substance under the Federal Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 or any amendment thereof, or if any substance that has been scheduled pursuant to the provisions of this section is designated a controlled substance of greater abuse liability under the Federal Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 or any amendment thereof, the commissioner, pursuant to the provisions of chapter thirty A, shall, not more than thirty days after publication of final notice in the federal register or not more than thirty days after the effective date of any federal statute affecting the scheduling of controlled substances under said federal act or any amendment thereof, issue a regulation controlling the substance in a schedule corresponding to the federal schedules.

Answer 19

he must know and consider 1) Its actual or relative potential for abuse. (2) Scientific evidence of its pharmacological effect, if known. (3) The state of current scientific knowledge regarding the drug or other substance. (4) Its history and current pattern of abuse. (5) The scope, duration and significance of abuse. (6) What, if any, risk there is to the public health. (7) Its psychological or physiological dependence liability. (8) Whether the substance is an immediate precursor of a substance already controlled under this chapter.

Answer 20

if the commissioner finds: (i) it is necessary to avoid an imminent hazard to the public safety; (ii) it is necessary for the preservation of the public health, safety, or general welfare; (iii) the substance is not listed in any other schedule identified in section 3; (iv) no exception is in effect for the substance pursuant to section 4, and (v) the substance is not excluded under subsection (c) of section 2.

Answer 21

the commissioner shall consider the substance's actual or relative potential for abuse and its history and current patterns of abuse.

Answer 22

An order issued under subsection (a) shall be an emergency regulation and subject to section 3 of chapter 30A; provided, however, that: (i) no further approval by designated persons or bodies, as referenced in said section 3 of said chapter 30A, shall be required before the emergency regulation becomes effective; and (ii) the emergency regulation may remain in effect for up to 1 year.

Answer 23

When the commissioner forwards the order to the attorney general

Answer 24

1) SCHEDULE I.— (A) The drug or other substance has a high potential for abuse. (B) The drug or other substance has no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States. (C) There is a lack of accepted safety for use of the drug or other substance under medical supervision. (2) SCHEDULE II.— (A) The drug or other substance has a high potential for abuse. (B) The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States or a currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions. (C) Abuse of the drug or other substances may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence. (3) SCHEDULE III.— (A) The drug or other substance has a potential for abuse less than the drugs or other substances in schedules I and II. (B) The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States. (C) Abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence. (4) SCHEDULE IV.— (A) The drug or other substance has a low potential for abuse relative to the drugs or other substances in schedule III. (B) The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States. (C) Abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence relative to the drugs or other substances in schedule III. (5) SCHEDULE V.— (A) The drug or other substance has a low potential for abuse relative to the drugs or other substances in schedule IV. (B) The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States. (C) Abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence relative to the drugs or other substances in schedule IV. (6) SCHEDULE VI.— (A) The substance is a prescription drug; and (B) Said prescription drug has not been included in Schedules I through V.

Answer 25

I - heroin - marijuana - methaqualone - lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) - 3,4 methylenedioxymeaphetamije (ecstasy) II - amphetamine MethMphetamine Methylphenidate Amobarbital Gluethimide Pentobarbital Hydrocodone III Anabolic steroids Benzphetamine Phendimetrazine Ketamine Tylenol with codeine IV Alprazolam Diazepam Clonazepam Midazolam Lorazepam V Cough syrup with codiene Lyrica lomotil Motormenarapeclotin

Answer 26

Older drugs that no one uses any more old old product that is probably not made anymore OTC outside of the scheduling, acetaminophen, robitussin

Answer 27

(1) that such preparation shall be dispensed, or sold in good faith as a medicine, and not for the purpose of evading the provisions of the controlled substances law; (2) that the purchaser of such preparation identify himself to the satisfaction of the pharmacist; and (3) that of such preparation not more than four ounces are dispensed, or sold to a person during any 48 hour period. The pharmacist dispensing such excepted substances shall keep an accurate record book including the name and address of the purchaser, the name of the preparation, the strength per dosage unit, the quantity dispensed and the date.

Answer 28

The pharmacist dispensing such excepted substances shall keep an accurate record book including the name and address of the purchaser, the name of the preparation, the strength per dosage unit, the quantity dispensed and the date. Site Information & Links

Answer 29

that such preparation shall be dispensed, or sold in good faith as a medicine, and not for the purpose of evading the provisions of the controlled substances law; (2) that the purchaser of such preparation identify himself to the satisfaction of the pharmacist; and (3) that of such preparation not more than four ounces are dispensed, or sold to a person during any 48 hour period.

Answer 30

The board of registration in pharmacy in the case of a retail drug business, wholesale druggist or outsourcing facility

Answer 31

the commissioner in all other cases may promulgate rules and regulations relative to registration and control of the manufacture, distribution, dispensing and possession of controlled substances within the commonwealth.

Answer 32

A corporate entity - other than a hospital or clinic licensed under section 51 of chapter 111 or an opioid treatment program licensed under chapter 111E, doing business in the commonwealth, which has more than 300 patients receiving treatment for opioid dependency in the form of opioid agonist therapy provided by physicians who are associated with the entity by contract, fee for service or other arrangement other than as members of the practice, shall be licensed by the department and shall comply with requirements established by the department to limit the diversion of opioid drugs and ensure patient safety. The department shall issue best practice guidance related to routine toxicology screenings, maximum take home dosages and behavioral health referrals for practitioners who provide opioid agonist therapy in the commonwealth. Practitioners shall adhere to said best practices promulgated by the department.

Answer 33

The department shall issue best practice guidance related to routine toxicology screenings, maximum take home dosages and behavioral health referrals for practitioners who provide opioid agonist therapy in the commonwealth. Practitioners shall adhere to said best practices promulgated by the department.

Answer 34

If the commissioner finds that sufficient data and funding sources exist to conduct a valid study, he shall conduct a study within 2 years after that finding.

Answer 35

a pharmacy wholesale druggist outsourcing facility hospital

Answer 36

certified nurse midwives physician assistants idk if there are limits

Answer 37

Upon obtaining or renewing a registration under section 7, a practitioner who prescribes controlled substances shall automatically and without further action be registered as a participant in the prescription monitoring program

Answer 38

prescription monitoring program

Answer 39

must supply the commissioner with satisfactory evidence of compliance with any applicable federal law, and, if the commissioner so requires, with a protocol describing the research project or study to be undertaken.

Answer 40

physician dentist podiatrist nurse practitioner nurse anesthetist psychiatric nurse mental health clinical specialist optometrist physician assistant certified nurse midwife pharmacist veterinarian

Answer 41

physician dentist podiatrist nurse practitioner nurse anesthetist psychiatric nurse mental health clinical specialist optometrist as limited by sections 66, 66B, and 66C of chapter 112 and subsection (h) of section 7 physician assistant as limited by said subsection (g) of said section 7 and section 9E of said chapter 112 certified nurse midwife as provided in section 80C of chapter 112 pharmacist as limited by said subsection (g) of said section 7 and section 24B.5 of said chapter 112 veterinarian when registered under said section 7,

Answer 42

C-VI samples cannot be prohibited or limited if if the prescription medication is: (i) dispensed to the patient by a professional authorized to dispense controlled substances pursuant to this section (ii) dispensed in the package provided by the manufacturer (iii) provided at no charge to the patient.

Answer 43

yes physician or optometrist can give them from the in-office dispensing as long as the medication in the contact is in their scope of practice ''therapeutic contact lenses'' shall mean contact lenses that contain 1 or more medications and that deliver such medication to the eye.

Answer 44

Every physician physician assistant dentist podiatrist certified nurse midwife nurse practitioner psychiatric nurse mental health clinical specialist nurse anesthetist pharmacist veterinarian shall keep and maintain records, open to inspection by the commissioner during reasonable business hours in the record: - the names and quantities of any controlled substances in schedules I, II, or III received by the practitioner - the name and address of each patient to whom such controlled substance is administered or dispensed - the name, dosage, and strength per dosage unit of each such controlled substance; and the date of such administration or dispensing.

Answer 45

yes A separate registration shall be required at each principal place of business or professional practice where the registrant manufactures, distributes, or dispenses controlled substances.

Answer 46

the establishment of a registrant or applicant for registration pursuant to the provisions of this chapter if CS violation, then notify DPH

Answer 47

shall register an applicant to manufacture or distribute controlled substances included in the schedules established pursuant unless he determines that the issuance of that registration would be inconsistent with the public interest wholesalers, retail pharm.

Answer 48

the establishment of a registrant or applicant for registration pursuant to the provisions of this chapter. same of board of pharmacy

Answer 49

shall register an applicant to manufacture or distribute controlled substances included in the schedules established pursuant unless he determines that the issuance of that registration would be inconsistent with the public interest same as board of pharmacy

Answer 50

(1) maintenance of effective controls against diversion of controlled substances into other than legitimate medical, scientific, or industrial channels; (2) compliance with applicable federal, state and local law; (3) any conviction of the applicant under any federal and state law relating to any controlled substance; (4) past experience in the manufacture or distribution of controlled substances, and the existence in the applicant's establishment of effective controls against diversion; (5) furnishing by the applicant of false or fraudulent material in any application filed under the provisions of this chapter; (6) suspension or revocation of the applicant's federal registration to manufacture, distribute or dispense controlled substances as authorized by federal law; and (7) any other factors relevant to and consistent with the public health and safety. (b) Registration under subsection (a) of this section shall not entitle a registrant to manufacture or distribute controlled substances in Schedules I or II established pursuant to the provisions of section two except to the extent specified in the registration.

Answer 51

may suspend or revoke a registration to manufacture, distribute, dispense or possess a controlled substance (1) has furnished false or fraudulent material information in any application filed under the provisions of this chapter (2) has been convicted under any state or federal law of any criminal violation relating to his fitness to be registered under this chapter (3) has had his federal registration suspended or revoked to manufacture, distribute, dispense, administer or possess controlled substances (4) is, upon good cause, found to be unfit or unqualified to manufacture, distribute, dispense, or possess any controlled substance. (b) The board of registration in pharmacy in the case of a retail drug business, wholesale druggist or outsourcing facility and the commissioner in all other cases may pursuant to the provisions of this section or section fourteen suspend or revoke any registration issued by him or it for violation of any provision of this chapter. (c) Whenever the commissioner, the board of registration in pharmacy, or the commissioner of mental health has substantial reason to believe that a registrant has committed a criminal violation of any provision of this chapter, he or it shall promptly report all pertinent facts to the district attorney in the county where the violation is believed to have occurred, or to the attorney general. (d) The board of registration in pharmacy in the case of a retail drug business, wholesale druggist or outsourcing facility and the commissioner in all other cases may limit revocation or suspension of a registration to the particular controlled substance with respect to which grounds for revocation or suspension exists. (e) If the board of registration in pharmacy in the case of a retail drug business, wholesale druggist or outsourcing facility or the commissioner in all other cases suspends or revokes a registration, all controlled substances which are affected by such suspension or revocation order at the time of suspension or the effective date of the revocation order shall be placed under embargo pursuant to the procedures prescribed in sections one hundred and eighty-nine and one hundred and eighty-nine A of chapter ninety-four. No disposition may be made of substances under such embargo until the time for taking an appeal has elapsed or until all appeals have been concluded unless a court, upon application therefor, orders the sale of perishable substances and the deposit of the proceeds of the sale with the court. Upon a revocation order becoming final, all controlled substances may be forfeited to the commonwealth under the provisions of section forty-seven. (f) The board of registration in pharmacy in the case of a retail drug business, wholesale druggist or outsourcing facility and the commissioner in all other cases shall promptly notify the bureau of all orders suspending or revoking a registration and all forfeitures of controlled substances.

Answer 52

legal prohibition by a government or group of governments restricting the departure of vessels or movement of goods from some or all locations to one or more countries

Answer 53

there shall be a suspension The suspension shall continue in effect until the conclusion of the proceedings including judicial review thereof, unless sooner dissolved by a court of competent jurisdiction, or withdrawn by the board of registration in pharmacy in the case of a retail drug business, wholesale druggist or outsourcing facility, or withdrawn by the commissioner in any other case. pharmacy can be shut down if compounding sterile in nonsterile

Answer 54

shall keep records and maintain inventories in conformance with the record-keeping and inventory requirements of the Federal ''Comprehensive Drug Prevention and Control Act of 1970'' or any amendment thereof, and the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, and with any additional rules or regulations promulgated by the board of registration in pharmacy in the case of a retail drug business or wholesale druggist or by the commissioner in all other cases.

Answer 55

106, notify DEA within 24 hours CS II-V If VI then MA board

Answer 56

file a copy of that form with the department of state police so send to police department

Answer 57

Controlled substances in Schedules I and II shall be distributed by a registrant to another registrant only pursuant to such order form as may be required by the Federal ''Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970'' or any amendment thereof and the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 222 form if

Answer 58

(a) No controlled substance in Schedule II may be dispensed without an electronic prescription from a practitioner, except that— (b) In emergency situations, as defined by the commissioner, a schedule II, III, IV, V or VI substance may be dispensed upon written prescription or oral prescription in accordance with section 20 and related regulations. (c) A controlled substance included in Schedule III, IV, V or VI shall not be dispensed without an electronic prescription from a practitioner.

Answer 59

(1) authorized to prescribe controlled substances; and (2) registered pursuant to the provisions of this chapter. (b) An oral prescription issued by a practitioner may be communicated to a pharmacist by an expressly authorized employee or agent of the practitioner. A prescription for a controlled substance contained in schedules III to VI, inclusive, as defined in section three may also be issued by an authorized practitioner who is duly licensed and authorized to engage in prescriptive practice and duly registered in the state wherein he resides, A prescription for a nonnarcotic substance contained in Schedule II of section three may also be issued by a practitioner who is licensed and authorized to engage in prescriptive practice and registered in another state where he resides or practices, if required, and registered under federal law to write prescriptions Except as provided in section 18A, a prescription for a narcotic substance contained in Schedule II of section 3 may also be issued by a practitioner who is licensed and authorized to engage in prescriptive practice and registered in Maine or in a state contiguous with the commonwealth wherein such practitioner resides or practices, if required, and registered under federal law to write prescriptions. DEA resgtration for II-V

Answer 60

) An oral prescription issued by a practitioner may be communicated to a pharmacist by an expressly authorized employee or agent of the practitioner. pharm. or intern can take Rx over phone

Answer 61

a pharmacist filling such prescription shall within thirty days after the filling of such prescription deliver to the department a copy of each such Schedule II prescription; provided, however, that such copy shall not include the name and address of the patient for whom the prescription is issued and that such copy and the information contained thereon shall not be deemed to be public record

Answer 62

the case of any oral prescription for a schedule III through V substance, the pharmacist shall record that he has requested that the practitioner deliver or mail to the dispensing pharmacy a written prescription for the controlled substance within seven days or such shorter period required by Federal law. if electronic, within 2 days

Answer 63

A prescription for a nonnarcotic substance contained in Schedule II may also be issued by a practitioner who is licensed and authorized to engage in prescriptive practice and registered in another state where he resides or practices, if required, and registered under federal law to write prescriptions. quantity: 30 days for CII exception: 60 days for methylphenidate and something else.... if never had before 7 days

Answer 64

Except as provided in section 18A, a prescription for a narcotic substance contained in Schedule II of section 3 may also be issued by a practitioner who is licensed and authorized to engage in prescriptive practice and registered in Maine or in a state contiguous with the commonwealth wherein such practitioner resides or practices, if required, and registered under federal law to write prescriptions. come from any state from any prescription

Answer 65

allowed written preceding 5 days by practioner

Answer 66

only allowed if the state touches MA & is ME states that touch MA: RI CT VT NH NY Except as provided in section 18A, a prescription for a narcotic substance contained in Schedule II of section 3 may also be issued by a practitioner who is licensed and authorized to engage in prescriptive practice and

Answer 67

the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to a prescriber's order which, in the professional judgment of the pharmacist, is lawful.

Answer 68

A pharmacist filling a prescription for a schedule II substance shall, if requested by the patient, dispense the prescribed substance in a lesser quantity than indicated on the prescription. The remaining portion may be filled upon patient request in accordance with federal law; provided, however, that only the same pharmacy that originally dispensed the lesser quantity shall dispense the remaining portion.

Answer 69

a practitioner registered under section 7 shall: (i) evaluate the patient's current condition, risk factors, history of substance abuse, if any, and current medications; (ii) inform the patient and note in the patient's medical record that the prescribed medication, in the prescriber's medical opinion, is an appropriate course of treatment based on the medical need of the patient.

Answer 70

yes appropriately addresses the benefits as well as the risk factors for abuse or misuse of the prescribed substance under guidelines published by the department. Such an agreement shall be filed in the patient's medical record or included in the patient's electronic health record.

Answer 71

department's searchable website

Answer 72

An individual may execute and file a voluntary non-opiate directive form with a practitioner registered under section 7 or other authority authorized by the secretary to accept the voluntary non-opiate directive form for filing

Answer 73

(i) consult with a the patient regarding the quantity of the opioid and a patient's option to fill the prescription in a lesser quantity (ii) inform the patient of the risks associated with the opioid prescribed.

Answer 74

tell them the quantity and risks of the opioid

Answer 75

schedule II

Answer 76

While the prescriber has the responsibility for the proper. prescribing and dispensing of controlled substances, the pharmacist. filling the prescription has a corresponding responsibility to ensure the prescription is legal and not for purposes of abus

Answer 77

A pharmacy may dispense naloxone either pursuant to a patient-specific prescription or via the statewide standing order.

Answer 78

mean any drug approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration as a contraceptive method for use after sexual intercourse.

Answer 79

(d) A pharmacist dispensing emergency contraception under this section shall annually provide to the department of public health the number of times such emergency contraception is dispensed. Reports made pursuant to this section shall not identify any individual patient, shall be confidential and shall not be public records as defined by clause twenty-sixth of section 7 of chapter 4. (c) Before dispensing emergency contraception authorized under this section, a pharmacist shall complete a training program approved by the commissioner on emergency contraception, which training shall include but not be limited to proper documentation, quality assurance, and referral to additional services, including appropriate recommendation that the patient follow-up with a medical practitioner. (b) Notwithstanding any other law, a licensed pharmacist may dispense emergency contraception in accordance with written, standardized procedures or protocols developed by an actively practicing physician registered with the commissioner to distribute or dispense a controlled substance in the course of professional practice pursuant to section 7 if such procedures or protocols are filed at the pharmacist's place of practice and with the board of registration in pharmacy before implementation.

Answer 80

Standing orders authorize nurses, pharmacists, and other healthcare providers where allowed by state law, to assess a client's immunization status and administer vaccinations according to a protocol approved by an institution, physician, or other authorized provider. The department shall ensure that a statewide standing order is issued to authorize the dispensing of emergency contraception by a licensed pharmacist.

Answer 81

designed to rapidly reverse opioid overdose. It is an opioid antagonist—meaning that it binds to opioid receptors and can reverse and block the effects of other opioids, such as heroin, morphine, and oxycodone example: naloxone

Answer 82

(c) Notwithstanding any general or special law to the contrary, a licensed pharmacist may dispense an opioid antagonist in accordance with the statewide standing order issued under subsection (b). Except for an act of gross negligence or willful misconduct, a pharmacist who, acting in good faith, dispenses an opioid antagonist shall not be subject to any criminal or civil liability or any professional disciplinary action by the board of registration in pharmacy related to the use or administration of an opioid antagonist. can be dispensed by any licensed pharmacist (d) A pharmacist who dispenses an opioid antagonist shall annually report to the department the number of opioid antagonist doses dispensed. Reports shall not identify an individual patient, shall be confidential and shall not constitute a public record as defined in clause Twenty-sixth of section 7 of chapter 4. The department shall publish an annual report that includes aggregate information about the dispensing of opioid antagonists in the commonwealth. (e) A pharmacist or designee who dispenses an opioid antagonist pursuant to this section shall, for the purposes of health insurance billing and cost-sharing, treat the transaction as the dispensing of a prescription to the person purchasing the opioid antagonist regardless of the ultimate user of the opioid antagonist. Unless the person purchasing the opioid antagonist requests to pay for the prescription out-of-pocket, the pharmacist or designee shall make a reasonable effort to identify the purchaser's insurance coverage and to submit a claim for the opioid antagonist to the insurance carrier prior to dispensing the opioid antagonist.

Answer 83

A pharmacist who dispenses an opioid antagonist shall annually report to the department: the number of opioid antagonist doses dispensed Reports shall not identify an individual patient shall be confidential and shall not constitute a public record as defined in clause Twenty-sixth of section 7 of chapter 4. The department shall publish an annual report that includes aggregate information about the dispensing of opioid antagonists in the commonwealth.

Answer 84

7day exceptions: cancer pain, palliative care

Answer 85

the condition triggering the prescription of an opiate for more than a 7–day supply shall be documented in the patient's medical record and the practitioner shall indicate that a non-opiate alternative was not appropriate to address the medical condition.

Answer 86

the pharmacist shall immediately reduce the prescription to writing on a prescription form and shall record: the name, address and registration number of the practitioner the name of any expressly authorized representative the date of the prescription, the name, dosage and strength per dosage unit of the controlled substance the serial number assigned to the prescription by the dispensing pharmacy the name of said pharmacy the name and address of the patient unless it is a veterinary prescription the directions for use any cautionary statements required a statement indicating the number of times to be refilled.

Answer 87

the date of filling, the pharmacy name and address, the filling pharmacist's initials, the serial number of the prescription, the name of the patient, unless it is a veterinary prescription, the name of the prescribing practitioner, the name of the controlled substance, directions for use and cautionary statements

Answer 88

10 Larger than 12 characters because there are less characters per inch on the prescription

Answer 89

A pharmacist shall distribute the pamphlet when dispensing a narcotic or controlled substance contained in Schedule II or III.

Answer 90

pharmacy shall have affixed to their container by the compounding pharmacy a label notifying prescribed users and practitioners that the drug is either a sterile or non-sterile compounded drug preparation.

Answer 91

shall provide a telephone number to foster communication between patients in the commonwealth and a pharmacist employed by the pharmacy who has access to the patient's records. The phone shall be staffed during regular hours of operation every day and not less than 56 hours per week. The phone number shall be affixed to the drug's container, alongside the label notifying prescribed users and practitioners of the fact that the drug is a compounded drug preparation. This paragraph shall not apply to an institutional pharmacy licensed pursuant to section 39I of chapter 112 if the sterile drug preparation compounded by such pharmacy is to be administered to an individual admitted as an inpatient within the same hospital.

Answer 92

This paragraph shall not apply to an institutional pharmacy licensed pursuant to section 39I of chapter 112 if the sterile drug preparation compounded by such pharmacy is to be administered to an individual admitted as an inpatient within the same hospital.

Answer 93

allows the pharmacist to identify and resolve problems before the patient has received the medication, drug drug

Answer 94

screening for potential drug therapy problems due to therapeutic duplication drug disease contraindication, drug interactions, including serious interactions with nonprescription or over-the-counter drugs incorrect drug dosage duration of drug treatment drug allergy interactions clinical abuse or misuse.

Answer 95

The patient for new Rx

Answer 96

Pharmacist, pharmacy techs, pharmacy interns via faec to face or telephone

Answer 97

Pharmacist (for new Rx!) or with interns who is under direct supervision of the pharmacist

Answer 98

providing such person with access to a toll-free telephone service to facilitate communication between such person and the pharmacist at such pharmacy.

Answer 99

According to and must address (1) the name and description of the medication; (2) the dosage form, dosage, route of administration and duration of drug therapy; (3) special instructions and precautions for preparation, administration and use by the patient; (4) common adverse or severe side effects or interactions and therapeutic contraindications that may be encountered, including their avoidance and the action required if they occur; (5) techniques for self-monitoring drug therapy; (6) proper storage; (7) prescription refill information; (8) Action to be taken in the event of a missed dose.

Answer 100

Then don’t have to counsel but if something of severe side effects then document that you rejected it

Answer 101

The pharmacist or his designee shall make reasonable efforts to obtain, record and maintain the following patient information generated at an individual pharmacy: (1) the name, address, telephone number, date of birth or age, and gender; (2) individual history where significant, including known allergies and drug reactions, and a comprehensive list of medications and relevant devices; and (3) any additional comments relevant to the patient's drug use, including any failure to accept the pharmacist's offer to counsel. Such information may be recorded in the patient's manual or electronic profile or in the prescription signature log, or in any other system of records and may be considered by the pharmacist in the exercise of his professional judgment concerning both the offer to counsel and the content of counseling. The absence of any record of a failure to accept the pharmacist's offer to counsel shall create a presumption that such counseling was provided.

Answer 102

shall not apply to any drug dispensed to an inpatient at a hospital or nursing home, except to the extent required by regulations promulgated by the Federal Health Care Financing Administration pursuant to the provisions of 42 USC 1396r–8.

Answer 103

a box with a locking mechanism that cannot be tampered with or opened without extreme force. Kind of like a safe

Answer 104

For dispensing schedules II, III, IV or V Sign: needs to be at least 4 inches by 5

Answer 105

includes the following statement in legibly printed font: ''Lock boxes for securing your prescription medications are available at this pharmacy''.

Answer 106

name, address and registration number of the practitioner, the date of delivery of the prescription, the name, dosage and strength per dosage unit of the controlled substance, the name and address of the patient unless it is a veterinary prescription, the directions for use and any cautionary statements required, and a statement indicating the number of times to be refilled.

Answer 107

a notation on the prescription that the patient may fill, upon request, the prescription in compliance with subsection (d.75) of section 18 (CARA act) in an amount not to exceed the full prescribed quantity Patient can request partial fill

Answer 108

30 days from the date of issuance in the state 5 days for out of state

Answer 109

3 different files: for II for III, IV, V and for V and anything else

Answer 110

Sign on the face (the front) of Rx with your signature (full name; not the same as initals) if electronic follow what the law says

Answer 111

II & III: max quantity is 30 day supply - general rule exceptions: dextroamphetamine sulfate and methylphenidate hydrochloride, a prescription may be filled for up to a 60 day supply of such substance upon any single filling if said substance is being used for the treatment of minimal brain dysfunction or narcolepsy prescriptions for implantable infusion pumps, subq consisting of Schedule II or Schedule III controlled substances may be filled for a maximum of 90 days. v

Answer 112

2 years except with medicare which is 10 yrs no refills for CII V or VI are silent PRN = zero refills

Answer 113

(i) All written prescriptions shall be written in ink, indelible pencil or by other means on a tamper resistant form (which can probably change color if tampered) consistent with federal requirements for Medicaid and signed by the prescribing practitioner.

Answer 114

Mass pat program

Answer 115

It is a schedule VI drug which is Gabapentin — has potential for abuse. Pharmacy has 24 hours to report

Answer 116

Who are high prescribers (prescribe a lot of opiates) What are the volume that the prescriber is prescribing the opioid then go and talk to them Can go to jail

Answer 117

With no Rx, can sale to them and no age limit or quantity limit

Answer 118

Do not need ID, can buy lots of them on exam, can specify age so know that there is no age requirement

Answer 119

A graduate of an ACPE-accredited and Board-approved college/school of pharmacy shall be eligible for examination for licensure as a pharmacist provided the applicant: (a) is 18 years of age or older by the scheduled date of the examination applied for; (b) has earned a doctor of pharmacy degree from a college/school of pharmacy accredited by the ACPE or approved by the Board; (c) has completed a pharmacy internship in accordance with 247 CMR 8.01(1); and (d) is of good moral character.

Answer 120

(a) Whenever an applicant has been notified by NABP that the applicant does not meet the requirements for licensure by reciprocity, the applicant may in writing request the Board to review the basis of NABP's decision. (b) The Board shall make the final determination of any applicant's eligibility to be registered as a pharmacist by reciprocity. (c)A reciprocity application shall be valid for one year after the date of approval by NABP. (d) All fees submitted to the Board in connection with an application for licensure by reciprocity, reviewed and acted upon by the Board, are nonrefundable.

Answer 121

1. NABP approval; 2. documentation of internship experience in accordance with 247 CMR 8.01: Pharmacy Interns; 3. Passing score (at least 75%) on MPJE; 4. if requested, the applicant shall personally appear before the Board to discuss any matter related to the application.

Answer 122

In accordance with M.G.L. c. 94C §19(a), prescriptions must be issued pursuant to a valid patient / prescriber relationship and for a legitimate medical reason by a prescriber acting in the usual course of his / her professional practice.

Answer 123

Prescriber is located at a great geographic distance from the pharmacy. Patient lives a great geographic distance from the pharmacy or prescriber. Patient frequently requests early refills. Patient often runs out of or “loses” their medications. Patient requests to bypass insurance and pay with cash. Prescriptions written for combinations known as “cocktails” (i.e., containing an opioid, a benzodiazepine, and a muscle relaxant).

Answer 124

Prescriptions written for unusually large quantities for a single patient. Multiple prescribers for a single patient. Multiple pharmacies used by a single patient. Groups of patients that present at the same time with the same prescriptions. Strong analgesic prescriptions written by a prescriber that is not associated with pain management. Prescriptions written by prescribers with federal or state regulatory actions against them. Prescriptions that appear to be written in multiple colors or printing / writing. Patients that use street slang and present with unusual or aggressive behavior. Patients that rush or try to distract you while you fill their prescription.

Answer 125

patient’s name (i.e., change to different patient) controlled substance prescribed (except generic substitution) prescriber’s name prescriber’s signature earliest date to be filled (Schedule II only)

Answer 126

date of issue (date written) may only be added if omitted prescriber’s address patient’s address maybe added if omitted without consultation may only be changed after consultation with the prescriber or authorized agent prescriber’s DEA number may be added without consultation directions for use dosage form drug strength quantity prescribed supervising physician’s name of mid-level prescriber The following may be added and the prescriber’s office should be notified if the following language is omitted: “no substitution” language “partial fill upon patient request” language

Answer 127

date of issue (date written) may only be added if omitted prescriber’s address patient’s address maybe added if omitted without consultation may only be changed after consultation with the prescriber or authorized agent prescriber’s DEA number may be added without consultation directions for use dosage form drug strength quantity prescribed refill information supervising physician’s name of mid-level prescriber “no substitution” language may be added If deemed appropriate in the pharmacist’s professional judgement, the days’ supply dispensed (e.g., 30-day supply with 11 refills vs. 90-day supply with 3 refills) may be changed without consultation only for drugs that do not require PMP reporting (cannot be II-V and Gabapentin).

Answer 128

the date item changed or added name of the authorizing prescriber, if applicable name of the pharmacist accepting / making the change

Answer 129

Except for CDTM pharmacists, at least 20 contact hours of CE, including specialized topics/requirements below, must be completed by December 31 of each calendar year. Contact hours may not be carried over from one calendar year to another. A maximum of 8 contact hours may be claimed each calendar day. At least 5 contact hours must be “live”. At least 2 contact hours must be in the area of pharmacy law (does not need to be Massachusetts-specific or “live”). The Board accepts the following types of credit: Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (“ACPE”), Interprofessional Continuing Education (“IPCE”), AMA PRA Category 1 Credit, and any U.S. pharmacy Board approved programs. For any non-ACPE / ICPE credits that will not appear on your CPE Monitor profile, pharmacists must retain documentation (i.e., certificates of completion) of completed programs that must include: participant’s name; title and activity number of the program; credit type (e.g., ACPE, etc.); name of the authorized provider; whether the program was obtained in a “live” or “home study” format; date of completion of the program; and number of contact hours earned. All pharmacists, including non-resident pharmacists practicing in other states or U.S. jurisdictions, MUST complete immunization compounding, Collaborative Drug Therapy Management other CE requirements if they oversee or engage in these practices, as applicable. See below for details on these specific practices. A pharmacist who has failed to complete the requisite number of contact hours must email the Board with a detailed statement explaining the reasons. II. Newly Licensed or Recently Transferred Pharmacists Pharmacists who have obtained their Massachusetts license via exam or transfer on or after October 1 will be granted a grace period through April 30 of the next calendar year to obtain all required contact hours for the previous year. Need to get CE from prior year and new year too

Answer 130

Any practice of pharmacy by a registrant after the expiration of his or her personal registration shall constitute the unlicensed practice of pharmacy and shall be subject to any and all penalties established for such unlicensed practice of pharmacy.

Answer 131

Each calendar year, pharmacists who physically immunize or directly supervise immunizing activities MUST complete 1 contact hour of ACPE-approved, immunization-related continuing pharmacy education.

Answer 132

An applicant who has failed to renew his or her personal registration for a period of more than 60 days, and whose personal registration has not been suspended or revoked by the Board, may apply for a renewal of personal registration upon satisfying conditions imposed by the Board, which may include the completion of additional contact hours of continuing education.

Answer 133

An applicant for personal registration renewal who has failed to renew his or her personal registration for more than two years, and whose personal registration has not been suspended or revoked by the Board, shall take and pass the Multistate Pharmacy Jurisprudence Examination and meet all other conditions as determined by the Board as a prerequisite to registration renewal.

Answer 134

An applicant for personal registration renewal whose personal registration has been revoked or has been suspended for between six months and two years shall take and pass the Multistate Pharmacy Jurisprudence Examination and meet all conditions as determined by the Board as a prerequisite to registration renewal.

Answer 135

false but instead: each calendar year has 1 contact hour not every 2 years :).

Answer 136

means the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education.

Answer 137

means an institution, organization or agency that is recognized by the ACPE, in accordance with its policies and procedures, as qualified to provide continuing education for pharmacists.

Answer 138

means a college or school of pharmacy which has been accredited by the ACPE or approved by the Board.

Answer 139

means a person who or agency which, sponsors or co-sponsors one or more contact hours of continuing education for pharmacists and which has received the approval of the ACPE, CME/Category 1, or the Board.

Answer 140

means whole blood collected from a single donor and processed, whether for transfusion or further manufacturing.

Answer 141

means that part of blood separated by physical or mechanical means.

Answer 142

means a program which has been approved by the Board for continuing education credits. Such program may be sponsored by the ACPE, and/or sponsored or co sponsored by any person who has been granted prior written approval by the Board for the particular program. The Board may, within its discretion, accept comparable continuing education hours approved by other Boards of Pharmacy.

Answer 143

means a document, issued to a named pharmacist by an authorized provider, certifying that the pharmacist has satisfactorily completed a specified number of CEUs.

Answer 144

means a document issued by the Board to a pharmacy or pharmacy department which permits a pharmacy or pharmacy department to use alcohol for the manufacture of U.S. Pharmacopoeia or National Formulary preparations and all medicinal preparations unfit for beverage purposes, and to sell alcohol as authorized under M.G.L. c. 138.

Answer 145

means a pharmacy technician who is currently: (a) registered by the Board; and (b) certified by a Board-approved certifying body. A pharmacy technician may perform the duties authorized to be performed by a certified pharmacy technician in 247 CMR 8.04: Certified Pharmacy Technicians when Board-approved certification is current. If certification lapses, the individual is required to function as a pharmacy technician until certification is current.

Answer 146

means a unit of measure of educational credit which is a minimum of 50 minutes, or the equivalent as determined by the Board, of satisfactory participation in a Board-approved program of continuing education.

Answer 147

means participation by registered pharmacists in Board-approved educational programs and is a prerequisite for the renewal of a personal registration.

Answer 148

means a unit of measure of educational credit which is equal to ten contact hours, or it's equivalent as determined by the Board, of satisfactory participation in a Board-approved program of continuing education.

Answer 149

means a drug, substance, or immediate precursor in any schedule or class referred to in M.G.L. c. 94C.

Answer 150

means a document issued by the Board which allows the holder to receive and dispense, pursuant to a valid prescription, controlled substances.

Answer 151

means continuing medical education (CME) credits sponsored by an organization accredited for CME by the Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education, the Postgraduate Medical Institute or the state medical society.

Answer 152

means the identification number on a valid government issued identification, as specified by the Department, which a pharmacy obtains by inspecting the identification of the ultimate user or agent of the ultimate user to whom a prescription is dispensed. (105 CMR 700.001: Purpose)

Answer 153

means the Massachusetts Department of Public Health.

Answer 154

(a) thetypeofsupervisionaBoard-approvedregisteredpharmacistpreceptorinapharmacy, pharmacy department, or institutional pharmacy is required to provide to a pharmacy intern when said preceptor oversees and directs the professional activities of the pharmacy intern, and includes directly reviewing the work of the intern; and (b) the type of supervision a registered pharmacist in a pharmacy, pharmacy department, hospital pharmacy, or institutional pharmacy is required to provide a pharmacy technician when said pharmacist oversees and directs the activities of the pharmacy technician.

Answer 155

means the physical act of delivering a drug, chemical, device or combination thereof to an ultimate user pursuant to the lawful order of a practitioner, as defined in M.G.L. c. 94C, § 1, including the utilization of the professional judgment of the pharmacist and the packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the drug, chemical, or device for delivery.

Answer 156

means a unit of a prescription drug that is not intended to be sold.

Answer 157

means an order of a practitioner which has been transmitted electronically to a pharmacy in accordance with 105 CMR 721.020: Prescription Formats.

Answer 158

means a machine that electronically transmits exact images through connection with an electronic network.

Answer 159

means the NABP's Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Examination Committee.

Answer 160

means a document issued by the NABP evidencing the assessment of the educational equivalency of a graduate of a non-approved college/school of pharmacy.

Answer 161

means the NABP’s Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination.

Answer 162

means those virtues of a person which are generally recognized as beneficial to the public health, safety and welfare.

Answer 163

means the pharmacist’s personal registration is not currently being sanctioned by the Board.

Answer 164

means a pharmacist whose undergraduate pharmacy degree was not conferred by an ACPE-accredited or Board-approved college/school of pharmacy yet was conferred by a recognized college/school of pharmacy outside of the United States, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico. Recognized colleges/schools of pharmacy are those colleges and universities listed in the World Health Organization’s World Directory of Schools of Pharmacy, or otherwise approved by the FPGEC.

Answer 165

means continuing education activities which do not provide for direct interaction between faculty and participants and may include audio tapes, video tapes, cable television, computer assisted instruction, journal articles and monographs.

Answer 166

means the physical portion of an organization, including but not limited to hospitals, health maintenance organizations and clinic pharmacies, whose primary purpose is to a provide a physical environment for patients to obtain health care services under the supervision and direction of a registered pharmacist and is authorized to dispense controlled substances.

Answer 167

means the period of training under the supervision of a Board-approved registered pharmacist preceptor, which training is a prerequisite to examination for personal registration as a pharmacist in the Commonwealth of Massachusetts.

Answer 168

means a drug, device or gas which by federal law must bear the legend: "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription."

Answer 169

means a continuing education program that provides for direct interaction between faculty and participants and may include, but not be limited to, lectures, symposia, live teleconferences and workshops.

Answer 170

means a pharmacist, currently registered by the Board pursuant to 247 CMR 6.07: Pharmacist Manager of Record, who is responsible for the operation of a pharmacy or pharmacy department in conformance with all laws and regulations pertinent to the practice of pharmacy and the distribution of drugs.

Answer 171

means a person who is engaged in manufacturing, preparing, propagating, compounding, processing, packaging, repackaging or labeling a prescription drug.

Answer 172

MPJE means the Multistate Pharmacy Jurisprudence Examination. NABP means the National Association of Boards of Pharmacy. NABP Number means a unique seven digit number issued by the National Council for Prescription Drug Programs. NAPLEX means the North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination.

Answer 173

National Drug Code (NDC) Number means a nationally recognized standard which identifies drug products using a unique number issued by the United States Food and Drug Administration. The NDC number has three components: the first component identifies the drug manufacturer ("Labeler No."); the second component identifies the product ("Product No."); and the third component identifies the package size ("Pkg."). NCPDP means the National Council for Prescription Drug Programs. Over-the-counter Drug means any drug whose availability is not restricted to an order of a practitioner. Person means an individual, corporation, government, governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate trust, partnership or association, or any other legal entity. Personal Registration means a document issued by the Board to a qualified pharmacist, under the provisions of M.G.L. c. 112, § 24, permitting the pharmacist to engage in the practice of pharmacy.

Answer 174

Pharmacy means a facility under the direction or supervision of a registered pharmacist which is authorized to dispense controlled substances. The term "pharmacy" shall not include institutional pharmacies or pharmacy departments except as otherwise provided in 247 CMR. Pharmacy Department means that part of a retail store registered by the Board in which a drug business, as defined in M.G.L. c. 112, § 37, is transacted. Pharmacy Intern means an individual who has completed two years of academic curriculum or who has standing as a student beyond the second-year class in the undergraduate academic sequence of an approved college/school of pharmacy, and who is registered by the Board to acquire, under the direction of a Board-approved registered pharmacist preceptor to whom he or she has been assigned, that practical experience which is a prerequisite to examination for personal registration as a pharmacist. A pharmacy intern may engage in the full range of activities conducted by a registered pharmacist provided that at all time he or she is under the direct supervision of a registered pharmacist preceptor. Pharmacy Permit means a document issued by the Board to a registered pharmacist in the name of a pharmacy or pharmacy department to manage and operate a pharmacy or a pharmacy department. Pharmacy Technician means an individual who is registered by the Board, pursuant to 247 CMR 8.02: Pharmacy Technicians, who performs pharmacy duties under the direct supervision of a pharmacist. Pharmacy Technician Trainee means an individual preparing to be registered as a pharmacy technician who performs pharmacy duties under the direct supervision of a pharmacist.

Answer 175

Postgraduate means graduation and award of an entry-level degree in pharmacy from a Board- approved or ACPE-accredited college/school of pharmacy. Practitioner means any person with prescriptive privileges as defined in M.G.L. c. 94C, § 1. Preceptor means a registered pharmacist in good standing who has completed at least one year of the actual practice of pharmacy and who the Board has approved to supervise and direct the training of pharmacy interns and to assist in the training of other pharmacy interns. Prescription means an order for a drug, chemical, device or combination thereof, either written, given orally or otherwise transmitted to a registered pharmacy by a practitioner or his or her expressly authorized agent, to be dispensed or compounded in a registered pharmacy and dispensed by a registered pharmacist to a patient or his or her agent with necessary and appropriate counseling. Prescription Drug means any and all drugs which, under Federal Law, are required, prior to being dispensed or delivered, to be labeled with the statement “Caution, Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription" or a drug which is required by any applicable Federal or State law or regulation to be dispensed pursuant only to a prescription drug order. Prescription Device means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, or other similar related article, including any component part or accessory, which is required by federal law and regulations to bear the label, “Caution, Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription” or a device which is required by any applicable Federal or State law or regulation to be dispensed pursuant only to a prescription order.

Answer 176

Program means an educational course, lecture, seminar, conference, session or exercise. Registered Pharmacist (R.Ph.) means a pharmacist who, pursuant to the provisions of M.G.L. c. 112, § 24, is registered by the Board to practice pharmacy. Restricted Pharmacy means a pharmacy licensed by the Board for the limited transaction of a drug business as defined in M.G.L. c. 112, § 37. Universal Claim Form (UCF) means a nationally recognized standard form developed by the NCPDP used for billing prescription drug claims to insurance plans. Universal Claim Forms are available through a pharmacy's local wholesaler.

Answer 177

distribution of prescription drugs and prescription devices to persons other than a consumer or patient, but does not include: (a) Intracompany sales; (b) the purchase or other acquisition by a hospital or other health care entity that is a member of a group purchasing organization of a drug or device for its own use from the group purchasing organization or from other hospitals or healthcare entities that are members of such organizations; (c) the sale, purchase or trade of a drug or device or an offer to sell, purchase or trade a drug by a charitable organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 to a nonprofit affiliate of the organization to the extent otherwise permitted by law; (d) the sale, purchase or trade of a drug or device or an offer to sell, purchase or trade a drug or device among hospitals or other health care entities that are under common control; for purposes of 247 CMR 7.00, "common control" means that power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person or an organization, whether by ownership of stock, voting rights, by contract or otherwise; (e) the sale, purchase or trade of a drug or device or an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug or device for emergency medical reasons; for purposes of 247 CMR 7.00, "emergency medical reasons" includes transfers of prescription drugs or devices by a retail pharmacy to another retail pharmacy to alleviate a temporary shortage; (f) the sale, purchase or trade of a drug or device, an offer to sell, purchase or trade a drug or device, or the dispensing of a drug or device pursuant to a prescription; (g) thelawfuldistributionofdrugsamplesbymanufacturers'representativesordistributors' representatives; or (h) the sale, purchase or trade of blood and blood components intended for transfusion.

Answer 178

a person engaged in wholesale distribution of prescription drugs or devices including, but not limited to, manufacturers; repackers; own-label distributors; private-label distributors; jobbers; brokers; warehouses, including manufacturers' and distributors' warehouses, chain drug warehouses, and wholesale drug warehouses; independent wholesale drug traders; and retail pharmacies that conduct wholesale distributions.

Answer 179

Whoever robs a pharmacy can go to jail no more than 2 years and a $500 fine

law exam 2- section 22-25A, Chapter 95C <3, CMR 1-9, Licensure, CE, definitions Flashcards

(373 cards)