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Pathology II > LEC 9 - Ears > Flashcards

LEC 9 - Ears Flashcards

(107 cards)

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1
Q

What are the commensal bacteria found in the external ear?

A

Bacillus

Corynebacterium

E. Coli

Strep/Staph

Malassezia

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2
Q

What is the mucocillary apparatus?

A

Combination of goblet cells and ciliated columnar epithelail cells

Found in middle ear

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3
Q

What is the acoustic reflex?

A

Contraction of the tensor tympani + stepdius muscle in response loud/injurious noise

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4
Q

Term: Auricular agenesis

A

Defect at embryological development

No ears

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5
Q

What are two causes of atresia of external acoustic meatus?

A

Congenital

– or –

Trauma

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6
Q

Term: Altricial

A

Animals that are helpless at birth

Puppies + Kittens

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7
Q

Term: Precocial

A

Active shortly after birth

Meatus open at birth

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8
Q

In what animals is auricular hypoplasia normal?

A

La Mancha goat breed

– and –

Scottish fold cats

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9
Q

What are the primary causes of otitis externa?

A

Ectoparasites

Keratinization defects

Foreign bodies

Hypersensitivity reactions

Systemic immune mediated disorders

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10
Q

What are the most common primary causes of otitis externa in dogs?

A

Atopic dermatitis

Adverese food reactions

Ectoparasites

Foreign bodies

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11
Q

What are the gross findings with otitis externa?

A

Exberant discharge

Hemorrhage

Skin that is red, warm, and edematous

Hyperpigmentation in chronic cases

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12
Q

What are the histological findings with otitis externa?

A

Edema

Influx of inflammatory cells

Hyperplasia of epidermia

Hyperkeratosis/crusts +/- fibrosis

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13
Q

What is the common cause of infarcation of the external ear in pigs?

A

Septicemic Salmonaellosis

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14
Q

What is the common cause of infarcation of the external ear in cats?

A

FIP

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15
Q

What is the common cause of infarcation of the external ear in dogs?

A

German Shephard

w/ familial vasculopathy

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16
Q

What types of toxins can lead to infarction of the outter ear?

A

Cause vasoconstriction + vascular compromise

Ie. Alkaloids

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17
Q

What is the gross description for an aural hematoma?

A

Swollen

Warm

Hyperemic

Heavy ears that tend to drop

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18
Q

What occurs with in frostbite along with the infarction?

A

Dry gangrene

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19
Q

What is contained within an ear that has an aural hematoma?

A

Blood and fibrin

Strands of eosinophilic fibrin strands

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20
Q

What are the four main ear mite types?

A

Otodectes cyanotis

Notoedres cati

Raillietina ssp.

Psoroptes cuniculi

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21
Q

What animals does otodectes cyanotis tend to infect?

A

Wild cats

Dogs

Occasionally ruminants

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22
Q

What do otodectes cyantosis do?

A

Non-burrowing

Feed on cermimen + keratin + lipids

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23
Q

What is grossly present with otodectes cyanotis?

A

A lot of cerumen production

Dark brown waxy material that obstructs ear canal

Auricles can be alopecic + scratch wounds

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24
Q

What animal does notoedres cati tend to infect?

A

Cat

but also dogs, foxes, and rabbits

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25
Where is Notoedres Cati resticted to on the body?
Head + Face + Neck + Shoulders
26
How does notoedres cati infect the host?
Burrows into the stratum corneum
27
What is grossly apparent when notoedres is present?
Alopecic Thick crusting Excoriation of rostral pinna
28
What animals does raillietina species tend to infect?
Cattle + Buffalo + Goats
29
How do Raillietina tend to infect their host?
resides deep in external acoustic meatus Just next to tympanic membrane
30
What is grossly seen with a raillietina ssp.?
Thick plug of cerumen + debris
31
Where does psoroptes cuniculi tend to live on the body?
Skin
32
What animals does Psoroptes Cuniculi tend to infecT?
Sheep Goat Deer Horses Donkeys Mules Antelopes
33
What are the two important tick speices?
Rhipicephalus spp. -- and -- Gulf coast ear tick
34
What breed of cattle does rhipicephalus tend to infect?
Bos tarus
35
How does rhipicephalus cause there to be "cement" in the external auricle?
Secrete proteins in their saliva Reacts with host enzymes = hard feeding cone
36
What animals does the gulf coast ear tick most commonly infest?
Cattle Sheep Horse
37
What is the gulf coast tick a vector for?
Cowdria ruminatium
38
What disease does Cowdria ruminatium cause?
Heartwater disease
39
What is the causative agent for dermatophiosis?
Dermatophilus congolensis
40
What is important to remember when dealing with dermatophilus congolensis?
It is Zoonotic
41
What parts of the body does dermatophilus congolensis infect?
Skin/Mucosa of the Nose Commissures of the Lips Distal/Proximal limbs/ears
42
How is dermatophilius conogolensis transmitted?
Dam to feeding offspring
43
How does colonization of dermatophilus occur?
Flagellated zoospores penetrate the epidermis Reach basement membrane Transform into filamentous morphology
44
What causes the crusty appearance of an animal infected with dermatophilus congolensis?
Cycle of bacterial growth + inflammation + epidermal regeneration = Multilaminated pustular crust
45
What is the gross description of the lesion caused by dermatophilus congolensis?
Crusting + Exudative dermatitis
46
What are the most common neoplasms in the ear of a dog?
Sebaceous gland tumor Histiocytomas Plasmacytomas Mast cell tumors
47
What are the most common neoplasms of the cats ear?
Basal cell tumors Vascular tumors Squamous cell carcinomas
48
What two common neoplasms of the ear are seen in both dogs and cats?
Ceruminous gland adenomas -- and -- Adenocarcinomas
49
What is the appearance of adenomas in the ear?
multiple + small + pendunculated irregular firm masses
50
What is the gross appearance of adenocarcinomas?
Locally invasice and expansile with tendency metastasize
51
What animal are adenocarcinomas most commonly seen?
Old, male cats
52
Where do adenocarcinomas tend to metastizise to?
Regional lymph nodes Lungs Systemic viscera
53
What kind of disease is pinnal alopecia in cattle? What type of cattle?
Congenital disease Polled hereford breed
54
What type of disease is pinnal alopecia in cats/dogs? What breeds are affected?
Acquired Dogs: Dachshunds Cats: Siamese
55
What is the histological appearance of ceruminous gland adenocarcinoma?
Haphazardly arranged + formed tubules/acini Evidence of anaplastic/mitotically active cells
56
Who does primary ciliary dyskinesia tend to affect?
Dogs \< 1 years of age
57
What clincal symptoms are seen in dogs with primary ciliary dyskinesia?
Persistant cough Nasal discharge With a history of recurrent respiratory disease
58
What are the three possible reasons for primary ciliary dyskinesia to occur in dogs?
Dynein arm deficiency Abnormal microtubular patterns Random orientation of microtubules
59
What is seen grossly with primary ciliary dyskinesia?
Mucopurulent exudate -- or -- Sterile gelatinous material Filling the tympanic cavity
60
What are the causative agents for otitis media in pigs?
Pasturella multocida trueperella pyogenes Mycoplasma hyorhinis
61
What are the causative agents in cows with otitis media?
Pasurella multocida trueperella pyogenes Mycoplasma bovis Histophilus somni Streptococcus
62
What is otitis media commonly a result of?
Nasopharyngeal ascending infections
63
What is seen grossly in animals with otitis media?
Unilateral/bilateral Bulla filled with fibrinopurulent to caseous exudate
64
What can be seen grossly in chronic cases of otitis media?
Mucosa becomes thickened Stenotic due to fibrosis
65
What is the causative agents for otitis media in cats?
E. Coli Enterobacter/Enterococcus Strep/Staph Proteus Clostridium
66
What is seen grossly in a cat with otitis media?
Bulla filled with fluid
67
What are the predisposing factors for cats to develope nasopharyngeal polyps?
Chronic infections Otitis media Ascending middle ear infections Congenital defects
68
What is the clinical presentation of a cat with a nasopharyngeal polyp?
Nasal, otic, or ocular discharge Sneezing Dyspnea Stridor Voice change Head tilt
69
What can be seen clinically with cats that have severe nasopharyngeal polyps?
Cyanosis -- and -- Syncope
70
What is seen grossly in cats with nasopharyngeal polyps?
Pedunculated to polypoid growths Smooth surface Protrude through auditory tube into nasopharynx
71
What type of mass is nasopharyngeal polyps?
Non-neoplastic Inflammatory
72
What is seen in histology of a nasopharyngeal polyp?
Fibrovascular core with: Lymphocytes Plasma cells Macrophages Covered by epithelium
73
What can otitis interna result in?
meningitis Ventriculitis Encephalitis
74
What causes vestibular disease?
Injury to any portion of the vestibular system
75
What are the clincal signs of vestibular disease of the inner ear?
Head tilt Ataxia
76
What are the two locations of vestibular disease?
Peripheral Central
77
Where is the lesion in peripheral cases of vestibular disease?
internal ear receptors vestibular ganglia peripheral axons of VIII CN
78
Where is the location of the lesion in central vestibular disease?
Vestibular nuclei of medulla Vestibular projection of the brain stem Cerebellum or spinal cord
79
What are the four classifications of vestibular disease?
Congenital Concurrent otitis Idiopathic Aural/Intracranial neoplasias
80
Why is it hard to diagnose congenitcal VD?
No gross or histological lesions
81
What dog breeds tend to have congenital VD?
Dobermans German Shepards Cocker spaniels Beagles Akitas
82
What cat breeds tend to have congenital VD?
Siamese Tonkinese Burmese
83
What are the causes of concurrent otitis media/interna that lead to VD?
Canine distemper FIP Erlichiosis Toxoplasmosis Neoporosis Mycosis
84
Whats the most common cause of idiopathic VD in dogs?
Age
85
Where do neoplasias tend to come from that cause VD? What are they?
Neurofibromas or Schwannomas From vestibulocochlear nerve
86
Term: Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy
Bony proliferative disease of temporohyoid articulation
87
What are two possible causes of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?
Infectious agents -- or -- Premature DJD of the joint
88
What animals tend to get aural plaques?
Horse \> 1 year old
89
What are aural plaques thought to be caused by?
Papilloma virus
90
What is the gross appearance of aural plaques?
Raised Well demarcated, hypopigmented, hyperkeratotic plaques
91
What do biting flies tend to cause on the external aural?
Stephanofilaria otitis aka ear sore
92
What do biting flies tend to spread that cause ear sores?
S. zaheeeri
93
What is the gross appearance of ear sores?
Congestion to hemorrhaging Severe crusting Chronic = Alopecia + depigmentation
94
What type of ear related neoplasia do angora goats get?
Aural melanomas
95
What is thought to be the cause of aural melanomas?
UV light induction
96
What is the gross appearance of aural melanoma?
Single or black nodules Superfical or Subcutaneous
97
What causes aural chewing in pigs?
Intese confinement -- and -- Docking tails
98
Where in the ear does cholestrol granulomas tend to occur in dogs?
Middle ear
99
What are the predisposing factors that can cause cholesterol granulomas in dogs?
Hemorrhage Impaired auditory tube drainage Dimished/Obstructed ventilation of middle ear
100
What is the gross appearance of cholesterol granulomas in dogs?
Benign Expansile masses with concurrent otitis
101
Where is aural cholesteatoma found most in?
Middle ear Middle-aged to Old dogs
102
What are aural cholesteatoma?
Beign cysts which can be locally destructive
103
What is most likely the cause of aural cholesteatoma?
Otitis externa/media Leading to negative pressure Leading to abnormalities in the tympanic membrane Forms a cysts lined by cornifying stratified squamous epithelium
104
What is the gross appearance of proliferative, necrotizing otitis extrena in a cat?
Large, well demarcated erythematous plaques Appear on concave auricular surface Covered by thick, tan/brown keratinous debris
105
What are the histological features of proliferative, necrotizing otitis externa?
Superficial ecanthosis extending into follicles Neutrophilic luminal folliculitis Follicular hyperkeratosis Necrotic keratinocytes on hair follicles
106
What are feline ceruminous cystomatosis?
benign, cystic, non-neoplastic proliferations of ceruminous glands on medial surface of auricle Extend into external acoustic meatus
107
What is the gross appearance of feline ceruminous cystomatosis?
Glands are markedly dilated Filled with brown, ceruminous secretions

Pathology II (20 decks)

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