lecture exam 4 Flashcards
1
Q
How does the CNS develop?
A
from a strip called neuroectoderm which lies in the midline of the embryo, which eventually gives rise to a hollow tube called the neural tube.
2
Q
How is the neural tube formed?
A
by fushion of the nueral folds (of the neural plate).
3
Q
what would negatively affect the development of the spinal cord?
A
if the posterior portion of the neural tube failed.
4
Q
where does the midbrain develop?
A
embryonic mesencephalon.
5
Q
where does the medulla develop?
A
myelencephalon.
6
Q
where does the cerebellum develop?
A
metencephalon.
7
Q
where does the thalamus develop?
A
diencephalon.
8
Q
what are the functions of cerebrospinal fluid?
A
provides chemically stable enviornment for nervous tissues, allows buuyancyof the brain, absorbs physical shock.
9
Q
how does cerebrospinal fluid enter in the subarachnoid space?
A
mostly through paired lateral apertures.
10
Q
what is gryi?
A
ridges on the surface of the cortex.
11
Q
what is sulci?
A
shallow grooves between these ridges.
12
Q
what is the right and left cerebral hemispheres joined by?
A
lateral ventricles.
13
Q
identify the lobes that border of each of these fissures of sulci: longitudinal fissure; parieto-occipital fissure; lateral sulcus; central sulcus.
A
longitudinal fissure separates right/left hemispheres; parieto-occipital fissure separates parietal and occipital lobes; lateral sulcus separates temporal and parietal lobes; central sulcus separated frontal and parietal lobes.
14
Q
what neuron structures are located in the gray matter? the white matter?
A
gray matter contains neurons and cell bodies; white matter contains axons.
15
Q
what do association fibers do?
A
connect one gyrus to another within the same cerebral hemisphere.
16
Q
what is the corpus callosum composed of?
A
commissural fibers.
17
Q
what is the cerebral cortex?
A
the area of conscious thought and it forms a cap over the rest of the brain, because of this, it has been called the “thinking cap.”
18
Q
what was the significance of Brodmann’s numbering scheme?
A
identify unique areas of the cerebral cortex.
19
Q
what is the function of the primary motor cortex? the premotor cortex?
A
primary motor: voluntary muscle contractions initiate here. premotor: responsible for learned/repetitive skills.
20
Q
what would represent damage to the premotor cortex.
A
loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles.
21
Q
what is Broca’s area? what is its function?
A
specific portion of cerebral cortex; it directs muscles of speech production.
22
Q
where are the pyramidal neurons cell bodies that initiate skeletal muscle contractions?
A
primary motor cortex located in the precentral gyrus.
23
Q
what is the primary somatosensory area? where is it found on the cerebrum?
A
receives general sensory information from skin; located in postcentral gyrus of parietal lobe.
24
Q
which lobe of the cerebrum is most concerned with vision?
A
occipital.
25
what is the function of the visual association area? how would a person be affected if it were damaged?
uses memory to interpret visual stimuli; would not be able to recognize faces if it were damaged.
26
what lobe of the cerebral cortex is concerned with hearing?
temporal lobe.
27
explain the significance of the olfactory cortex; gustatory cortex; vestibular cortex; auditory cortex; visual cortex.
olfactory cortex for smelling; gustatory cortex for tasting; vestibular cortex for awareness of position; visual cortex for vision.
28
what area of the brain is possibly involved in verbalizing unfamiliar written words?
Wernicke's area (posterior association area).
29
what is considered our relay station?
the thalamus.
30
what are the parts making up the basal nuclei?
caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus.
31
what are the many functions of the hypothalamus?
controls autonomic nervous system, initiates physical responses to emotions, regulates body temperature, regulates hunger.
32
what hormone does the pineal gland of the epithalamus secrete that helps regulate sleep cycles?
melatonin
33
what are the parts making up the brain stem?
midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata.
34
what is the medulla oblongata?
in the brain stem that contains nuclei that controls coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and and vomiting.
35
what is the function of the reticular formation? give an example.
govern brain arousal by sending impulses to cerebral cortex. this keeps the brain conscious and alert, while filtering out repetitive, familiar, or weak stimuli. over 99% of stimuli are filtered out.
36
what is concerned with motor coordination and balance?
cerebellum.
37
what is the white matter of the cerebellum referred to as?
arbor vitae.
38
what is the limbic system mostly concerned with?
the emotional aspect to behaviors, experiences, and memories.
39
what is an electroencephalogram?
records electrical activity that accompanies brain function.
40
what are the four brain waves?
alpha, beta, theta, delta.
41
what is REM sleep? what occurs during REM sleep?
rapid eye movement. brain activity is heightened like during waking hours, but the voluntary muscles are immobilized. this is where dreams come from.
42
what enhances ones ability to store information in long-term memory?
being alert, repetition, and associating new information with old information.
43
from superficial to deep, list the meninges which cover the brain?
dura matter, arachnoid mater, pia mater.
44
what is dura matter?
thick, leathery meningeal layer.
45
what channels within the dura mater contain venous blood returning from the brain to the jugular veins?
superior sagittal sinus.
46
what tissue does the epidural space in the spinal column contain?
adipose tissue.
47
the subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?
pia mater and arachnoid mater.
48
what is cerebrospinal fluid? what does it contain? what secretes it? where is it found? how does it return to the bloodstream??
liquid cushion surrounding the brain for protection and buoyancy. it is watery solution containing ions, protein, and other nutrients from plasma. it is secreted by ependymal cells in the choroid plexuses, and is found in the ventricles of the brain, and the central canal of the spinal cord. it returns to the blood stream via arachnoid villi (granulations).
49
what is the blood-brain barrier? what creates this barrier? what is it effective against? what can pass through it?
a barrier that heavily filters substances entering into the brain, and it is made of astrocytes and pericytes surrounding endothelial cells (creating tight junctions). this barrier keeps out wastes, ions, and proteins while allowing oxygen, glucose, water, amino acids, and other lipid-solution substances to readily enter.
50
tremor at rest, shuffling walk, stooped posture, and expressionless face due to the deterioration of dopamine-secreting neurons, results in a disease.
Parkinson's disease.
51
what is Huntington's disease? at what age does one begin showing signs of the disorder?
a degeneration of basal nuclei due to accumulation of the protein huntingtin. usually begins in young adulthood (30s).
52
in the embryonic spinal cord what kind of plate forms interneurons? what plate give rise to motor neurons.
alar and basal.
53
in the spinal cord, where is gray matter located versus white matter?
gray matter is deep to white matter.
54
where are the cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves located?
dorsal root ganglia.
55
what is an ultrasound used for?
diagnose hydrocephalus and allows x-ray visualization of the ventricles of the brain.
56
true or false: age brings some cognitive decline, yet despite some neuronal loss, changing synaptic connections support additional learning throughout life.
true
57
twelve cranial nerves
I: olfactory, sensory for smell.
II: optic, sensory for vision. III: oculomotor, motor nerves to eye. IV: trochlear, motor nerves to eye. V: trigeminal, sensory for touch, temperature, and pain; motor for mastication. VI: abducens, motor nerve to eye. VII: facial, sensory for hearing; motor for adjustment of sensitivity receptors. IX: vagus, sensory and motor for abdominal organs; only cranial nerve to leave head/neck region. XI: accessory, sensory and motor (mostly) for head, neck, and shoulders. XII: hypoglossal, sensory and motor for mouth (eating, speaking, swallowing).
58
what proprioception fibers?
all of the cranial motor nerves sensory feedback fibers. (no cranial nerve's function is motor only)
59
which cranial nerves, have sensory or motor functions related to the eye.
mostly II, III, IV, VI.
60
what muscle rotates the eye laterally? what cranial nerve sneds impulses to that muscle?
lateral rectus and abducens nerve.
61
if the facial (VII) and glossopharyngeal (IX) were destroyed what would happen?
no sense of taste.
62
which cranial nerves are parts of the parasympathetic of the ANS?
III (oculomotor), VII (facial), IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus).
63
cardiac, pulmonary, and esophageal parasympathetic nerves are formed by fibers of what nerve?
X (vagus).
64
which cranial nerves are purely sensory nerves? what are their specific functions?
I (olfactory) for smell, and II (optic) for vision.
65
sensory fibers of the optic nerve end in which area of the cerebrum?
visual cortex located in occipital lobe.
66
what cranial nerve is called "the great sensory nerve of the face."
trigeminal nerve.
67
how many pairs of spinal nerves are there? what is the opening they branch from called?
31 and the intervertebral foramen that's between adjacent vertebrae.
68
what is the function of the meningeal branches? where do they originate?
small branch of spinal nerve that innervates meninges and blood vessels, they pass through the intervertebral foramen to the vertebral canal.
69
what would happen if the phrenic nerve was severed?
life-threatening effect, since it travels through the thorax to innervate the diaphragm for breathing.
70
which nerves of the brachial plexus carry proprioceptive fibers back to the CNS?
brachial, axillary, ulnar, radial, and musculocutaneous.
71
name the body's largest nerve, which consists of two major branches.
sciatic nerve.
72
what is the genitofemoral nerve?
a nerve that innervates skin of middle anterior thigh, and the external genitalia of males and females.
73
what is the femoral nerve?
a the nerve that innervates the skin and muscles of upper thigh, including the quadriceps femoris.
74
what is a dermatome and how are they illustrated?
areas of skin innervated by a single spinal nerve; they are illustrated as lines making boundaries of the area the nerve receives stimuli from .
75
what do somatic nerve fibers innervate?
skeletal muscle and skin.
76
what are the characteristics of reflexes?
direct and rapid connection between stimulus and response, without involving conscious thought. an intrinsic reflex is rapid, involuntary, and predictable whereas an acquired reflex is learning through repetition. a stimulus activates a sensory receptor that travels to a sensory neuron (from dendrite to cell body to axon) then to the integration center. a motor neuron is sent back and arrives at either a gland or muscle (effector).
77
what are spinal reflexes?
the quickest reflex arcs that involve two neurons.
78
what is an ipsilateral reflex, what is a contralateral reflex?
ipsilateral: stung on the left causes an involuntary reaction on left, contralateral: same sting caused the reaction to the right arm as well.
79
what is a flexor withdrawl reflex?
a child reaches down and touches jellyfish and flinched at the sudden pain while pulling his hand back.
80
what is a tendon reflex?
inhibits or relaxes a skeletal muscle contraction.
81
compare and contrast somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.
somatic innervates skeletal muscles at neuromuscular junctions, acetylcholine is always the neurotransmitter, the effect is always stimulatory, and only a single motor neuron connects CNS to effector. Autonomic innervates cardiac and smooth muscle at varicosities, ACH or norepinephrine are the neurotransmitters, effect can be stimulatory, or inhibitions and two motor neurons (pre- and postganglionic) connect CNS to effector.
82
what is the parasympathetic division?
the "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system.
83
what are the overall effects on varies body systems when the parasympathetic division is active?
reduced heart rate, reduced breathing rate, increased metabolic rate, and stimulates urination and defecation.
84
what is collateral ganglia?
sympathetic nerve fibers that do not synapse in the paravertebral ganglia.
85
what is the vagus nerve?
the way parasympathetic fibers of the cranial reach their target organs.
86
what specific fibers of the autonomic nervous system secrete norepinephrine?
postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division, located in the adrenal medulla.
87
what is the parasympathetic system?
it's characterized by long preganglionic fibers.
88
where does the sympathetic nervous system reduce blood flow from?
digestive system.
89
what is the thoracolumbar system also called?
sympathetic division.
90
what division utilizes ACH as both preganglionic and postganglionic neurotransmitter?
parasympathetic division.
91
the preganglionic fibers in the sympathetic nervous system branch away from the ventral root through what? what ganglion does it connect to?
gray and white rami communications and paravertebral ganglion.
92
what are the gray rami and where are they found?
branches that connect sympathetic trunk to spinal nerves, found alongside vertebral column.
93
what characteristics distinguish the autonomic nervous system (ANS) from the somatic nervous system.
autonomic innervates cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands. it has a preganglionic and postganglionic neuron for motor neurons to pass through, and its effect can be either stimulatory or inhibitory. Somatic innervates skeletal muscle, only has a single motor neuron connection to effector, and the effect is always stimulatory.
94
the secretions from the adrenal medulla act to enhance the effects of what system?
sympathetic system.
95
how is gray matter arranged in the spinal cord, and what neurons travel within each section?
dorsal horn contains interneurons that receive sensory input, lateral horn contains visceral motor neurons, and the ventral horn contains somatic motor neurons.
96
within the inner ear, which structure contains sensory receptors for hearing and equilibrium?
vestibule has sensory receptors for static equilibrium, semicircular canals have sensory receptors for dynamic equilibrium, and the cochlea has sensory receptors for hearing.
97
what are rods and cones, and where are they located?
sensory receptors in the retina, rods are for low light and peripheral vision, and cones are for color and visual acuity (sharpness).
98
name the function of these eye structure: sclera, cornea, and choroid.
sclera is the white outer covering of most of the eyeball and serves to protect and anchor the eye to nearby structures. cornea is the transparent, anterior protective covering of the eye. choroid is the middle layer that provides blood to the eye.
99
name the function of these eye structure: ciliary bodies, iris, pupil, and lens.
ciliary bodies are muscular extensions of the choroid layer that control lens shape. iris is the pigmented portion of the eye that constricts and dilates an opening (the pupil), which receptors the amount of light entering the eye. lens is a transparent ball of fibers that changes shape the change our focusing.
100
identify the five main types of general sensory receptors.
mechanoreceptors detect changes in pressure and movements, thermoreceptors detect changes in temperature, nociceptors detect pain, chemoreceptors detect chemical changes (O2, CO2, and pH), and photoreceptors detect light changes.
