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anatomy 2401 > lecture final exam > Flashcards

lecture final exam Flashcards

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1
Q

levels of human structures from smallest to largest

A

atom, molecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, and organism.

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2
Q

a ___ by definition, is composed of two or more types of tissues.

A

organ

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3
Q

Define homeostasis

A

Maintenance of relatively stable internal environment despite the outside environment changing.

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4
Q

Define the different types of gross and microscopic anatomy

A

Gross anatomy: structures visible to the unaided eye.
Regional anatomy: study of all structures in a particular region of the body
Systemic anatomy: study of all structures grouped into a body system
Surface anatomy: study of internal structures based on their relation to overlying skin
Microscopic anatomy: structures visible with a microscope
Cytology: study of cells
Histology: study of tissues

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5
Q

Identify the 11 body systems, their main functions, and their main organs.

A

Skeletal: bones and joints. Protects and supports the body, blood cells are formed here and minerals are stored.
Integumentary: hair, skin, and nails. Provides protection, synthesizes vitamin D, houses sensory receptors and sweat/oil glands.
Muscular: muscles and tendons. Allows for manipulation of the environment, maintains posture, and produces heat.
Endocrine: thyroid gland, thymus, adrenal gland, pancreas, testis, ovaries, pituitary gland, pineal gland. Regulates hormones responsible for growth, reproduction, and metabolism.
Cardiovascular: heart and blood vessels. Transports blood to the body tissues, blood contains gases, nutrients, wastes, etc.
Lymphatic: thymus, lymph nodes, spleen. Houses white blood cells and fights off pathogens from the body.
Respiratory: larynx, trachea, lungs. Provides gas exchange with outside environment.
Digestive: esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, pancreas, liver, gallbladder. Breaks down ingested food into absorbable molecules for the body to use.
Urinary: kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra. Eliminates nitrogenous waste from the body, regulates fluid balance in the body.
Nervous: brain, spinal cord, and nerves. Control center of the body
Reproductive: penis, testes, scrotum, uterus, vagina, uterine tube, ovary. Produce offspring.

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6
Q

list and define characteristics needed for life.

A

Ingestion: eating food
Digestion: large molecules broken down to smaller molecules that can be used by the body
Absorption: molecules transported through cell membranes
Assimilation: creating larger molecules from small molecules
Respiration: cells break down food molecules and release chemical energy (in the form of ATP)
Excretion: waste products of metabolic activities of a cell that must be eliminated from the cell via diffusion
Movement: energy released from a cell assists in cell movements
Secretion: substances produced by the body to help carry out metabolic activities
Reproduction: when an organism produces more organisms of the same species
Irritability: the ability to be aware and responsive of stimuli
Egestion: the excretion of indigestible materials from the body

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7
Q

define and give an example of a negative feedback system.

A

Negative feedback response reduces or shuts off an original stimulus; example is the hormone insulin regulating blood glucose.

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8
Q

define and give an example of a positive feedback system.

A

Positive feedback response enhances or exaggerates the original stimulus; example is enhancement of labor contractions by the hormone oxytocin.

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9
Q

In an _____ bond, the atoms completely transfer electrons from one to another.

A

ionic.

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10
Q

in a ___ bond, the atoms share electrons.

A

covalent

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11
Q

a ___ bond is weak chemical bond formed when a partially positive hydrogen atom in a molecule is attracted to a partially negative atom in another molecule. it is most easily seen between __ molecules.

A

hydrogen; water

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12
Q

What is the basic difference in the molecular structure between saturated and unsaturated fats? Give examples of saturated and unsaturated fats.

A

Saturated fats have carbons linked via single covalent bonds, form solids at room temperature, examples are animals fats and butter.
Unsaturated fats have carbons linked via double covalent bonds, form thick liquids at room temperature, examples are plant oils and olive oil.

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13
Q

What is a carbohydrate, and what are they used for? Include examples

A

Sugars, they are used for an energy source in the cell. Examples include glucose, fructose, starch, cellulose, glycogen, etc.

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14
Q

The atomic number of an element indicates the number of _____ of a specific element?

A

Number of protons in the nucleus.

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15
Q

What condition must exist for an atom to be electrically balanced?

A

Number of protons and electrons must be equal.

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16
Q

What are valence electrons? If the atomic number of potassium is 15. How many electrons are found in the valence shell of this atom in its non-ionic state?

A

Valence electrons are located on the outer energy shell. Potassium’s valence shell contains 5 electrons (2, 8, 5).

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17
Q

A _____ is an atom that has lost one or more of its electrons.

A

Cation

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18
Q

The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by the _____ in its outermost energy shell.

A

Electrons

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19
Q

What do the chemical symbols, H - H, O = O, and N ≡ N mean?

A

Single dash indicates single bond, two dashes indicate double bond, and three dashes indicate a triple bond.

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20
Q

The reaction A + B  AB is an example of _____ reaction.

A

synthesis

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21
Q

The reaction AB + CD  AD + CB is an example of _____ reaction.

A

exchange

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22
Q

Monosaccharides joining together to make a disaccharide is a good example of a _____ reaction.

A

synthesis

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23
Q

What takes place in a dehydration synthesis reaction? hydrolysis reaction? What happens to water in each of the reactions?

A

Dehydration synthesis is when two monomers are joined together by the removal of water. Hydrolysis reaction breaks down a polymer into monomers by adding water.

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24
Q

“Animal starch” that is stored in the liver and muscles are in the form of _____.

A

cholesterol

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25
Why are proteins so important to human physiology? What is a polypeptide?
Involved in almost all cellular activities due to variable structure. An amino acid is the monomer of proteins, and a polypeptide is a chain of more than 100 amino acids.
26
Adding acid tends to _____ the hydrogen ion concentration of a solution.
increase
27
Tell whether the following solutions are considered an acid or a base: pH of 9, pH of 2, pH of 7, pH of 8, pH of 12, pH of 7.4
pH of 7 is neutral. Anything towards 1 is acidic, anything towards 14 is alkaline (basic).
28
Phospholipid molecules in a cell membrane are arranged with their _____ tails on the interior and their _____ heads on the exterior.
Hydrophobic; hydrophilic.
29
Define and understand hypertonic, hypotonic, and isotonic solutions.
Hypertonic is a high concentration of solutes. Hypotonic is a low concentration of solutes, and isotonic is an equal concentration of solutes.
30
In osmosis, water always moves toward the _____ solution, that is, toward the solution with the greater solute concentration.
hypertonic
31
You open a bottle of perfume in your bedroom and forget to place the lid back onto the bottle. A few hours later, you notice the smell of the perfume has spread throughout the house. This resulted from _____.
diffusion
32
define osmosis
the process of a solvent moving across a cell membrane (usually water).
33
what are types of diffusion, and how are they different?
Simple diffusion is when substances move across a concentration gradient, from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration. Facilitated diffusion is when large substances need assistance to cross a cell membrane via a carrier molecule or transport protein; generally move against the concentration gradient, from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration.
34
Active transport requires _____, while passive transport does not.
energy (atp).
35
Describe the function of a sodium-potassium pump, where you would find one, and which ions are involved.
Allows sodium and potassium to move against the concentration gradient to reset resting membrane potential; 3 sodium molecules move out of the cell for every 2 potassium molecules that move into the cell.
36
The process of a cell engulfing a large particle and bringing it into itself via a vesicle is called _____.
phagocytosis
37
Many gland cells release their secretions by means of _____, a process somewhat like reverse pinocytosis.
exocytosis
38
Which RNA is responsible for bringing the amino acids to the ribosome for protein formation?
tRNA (transfer)
39
Describe the relationships between guanine, cytosine, adenine, thymine, and uracil. Which ones are associated with DNA? And with RNA?
For DNA, guanine pairs with cytosine and adenine pairs with thymine. For RNA, guanine pairs with cytosine and uracil pairs with adenine.
40
What is the role of Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA in protein synthesis?
mRNA sends a message about what enzymes are needed, tRNA brings the enzymes needed for building, and rRNA synthesizes the protein.
41
give the function for the following organelles:
nucleus: control center of the cell; contains DNA. smooth endoplasmic reticulum: lacks ribosomes; produces lipids and hormones, processes carbohydrates, modifies toxic chemicals, and stores calcium ions. rough endoplasmic reticulum: ribosomes located on surface; synthesizes proteins that will be secreted from the cell. mitochondria: site of cellular respiration that takes food molecules and transforms them into energy the cell can use. golgi apparatus: package, sort, and modify cellular molecules for transport inside and outside of the cell. lysosome: small sacs that contain digestive enzymes to break down organic polymers (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins). They can rupture when the enzymes are needed for the cell, which gives them the nickname “suicide sacs”. ribosome: site of protein synthesis peroxisome: break down toxic substances. cell membrane: selectively permeable membrane that allows certain molecules to enter/exit the cell.
42
define mitosis
Cell division to form two identical daughter cells.
43
Describe the processes occurring during interphase
Basic metabolic functions, DNA replication, and prepares for division.
44
describe the processes occurring during each phase of mitosis.
Prophase: nuclear envelope fragments, nucleolus disappears, chromatin condenses to form chromosomes Metaphase: chromosomes cluster at the middle of the cell along the metaphase plate Anaphase: replicated chromosomes split apart and are pulled towards the poles Telophase: two daughter cells pinch off from each other, nuclear envelope reforms and nucleolus reappears.
45
What is cytokinesis, and when does it occur?
Division of the cell parts except for the nucleus, starts in late anaphase and continues through telophase.
46
What is a multinuclear cell?
Cell that goes through mitosis but does not go through cytokinesis; produces one cell with more than one nuclei.
47
In what type of cells does melanin accumulate in the skin?
melanocytes
48
The fastest rate of mitosis is seen in the _____ layer of the epidermis.
stratum basale
49
_____ is an epidermal cell with an immunological function
Dendritic cell (Langerhans cell).
50
How many layers comprise the epidermis? Describe them.
Stratum basale: deepest layer, actively mitotic, contains mostly melanocytes. Stratum spinosum: contains keratinocytes; can withstand tension and pulling. Stratum granulosum: keratinization begins, cells above this layer die, slows water loss due to water- resistant glycolipids found in this layer. Stratum lucidum: only found in thick skin, clear layer of dead keratinocytes. Stratum corneum: most superficial layer, thickest layer, provides protection.
51
How many layers comprise the dermis? Describe them
Papillary layer: superficial layer, interlacing collagen and elastic fibers, dermal papillae start here and supply blood for the epidermis, friction ridges found here. Reticular layer: makes up 80% of dermis, contains elastic fibers and dense fibrous connective tissue, contains cutaneous plexus, and cleavage lines are located here.
52
What are the parts of a hair from deepest in the skin to the part above the surface?
Hair bulb, hair root, then hair shaft.
53
The _____ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes a wax called _____.
Ceruminous gland; cerumen.
54
The _____ gland secretes oil at the base of hairs; the oil is called _____.
Sebaceous gland; sebum.
55
The _____ glands are most responsible for cooling the skin.
Eccrine (merocrine).
56
What integumentary glands normally develop at puberty?
Sebaceous glands.
57
What are the major characteristics of the following skin cancers?
Basal cell carcinoma: stratum basale cells proliferate and slowly invade dermis and hypodermis. Least malignant and most common. Squamous cell carcinoma: involves keratinocytes of stratum spinosum, second most common type and can metastasize. Presents as scaly and reddened. Malignant melanoma: cancer of melanocytes, highly metastatic and resistant to chemotherapy. Usually presents as a dark, asymmetrical patch with irregular borders.
58
What is the greatest immediate threat to the survival of a patient with severe burns?
Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance shock.
59
Define the following bone structures:
shaft: skinny, long part of a long bone; also called diaphysis. epiphysis: ends of long bones that contains spongy bone. periosteum: double-layered membrane that covers external surface of bones. epiphyseal line: remnant of location where bone growth occurs in adolescence. endosteum: reticular connective tissue membrane lining internal bone surface. metaphysis: area where diaphysis and epiphysis meet; location of epiphyseal plate. articular cartilage: layer of hyaline cartilage on the epiphysis where bone meets bone. diaphysis: shaft of a long bone that surrounds the medullary cavity. spongy bone: located in epiphyses; honeycomb appearance filled with bone marrow. compact bone: dense outer layer of bones that appear smooth and solid. medullary cavity: open area within the diaphysis of a long bone.
60
_____ are bone-dissolving cells; _____ are bone-forming cells.
Osteoclasts; osteoblasts.
61
What is diploë?
Spongy bone that is sandwiched between two layers of compact bone.
62
Bone tissue is more rigid than other tissue because its ground substance contains inorganic salts. These salts contribute to the formation of _____ crystals in bones.
hydroxyapatites
63
Spongy bones are made up of a framework of bony plates called _____.
Trabeculae
64
In bone formation, the term _____ tissue refers to bone tissue, where the term _____ tissue pertains to embryonic tissue that later turns into bone.
65
Skull bones and bones of the face (including the mandible) and the clavicles develop from _____, where all other bones develop from _____.
Fibrous connective tissue (intramembranous); hyaline cartilage models (endochondral).
66
When does the ossification of the ends of long bones take place? What is this site called?
Begins at the primary ossification center; mesenchymal cells specialize into osteoblasts, which secrete matrix. This happens around month 3 of fetal development.
67
In the embryological development of long bones, the medullary cavity develops after _____
After the periosteal bud invades cavities of the diaphysis and forms spongy bone
68
In what direction does the epiphyseal plate grow?
Epiphysis grows away from the diaphysis
69
When bone is being resorbed, lysosomal enzymes dissolve its _____.
matrix
70
Compare and contrast calcitonin and parathyroid hormone.
Both influence blood calcium levels. Calcitonin is produced in the thyroid gland in response to high levels of blood calcium levels. Parathyroid hormone is produced in the parathyroid gland in response to low blood calcium levels.
71
What hormones cause osteoblasts to deposit more bone matrix?
Serotonin and growth hormone
72
Describe endochondral ossification and where it occurs.
Bone collar forms around diaphysis of cartilage model, then the central cartilage calcifies and develops cavities. Periosteal bud invades cavities, leading to the formation of spongy bone. The diaphysis elongates and the medullary cavity forms, then epiphyses ossify. Occurs in all bones inferior to the skull, except for the clavicle.
73
Describe intramembranous ossification and where it occurs.
Begins with fibrous connective tissue membranes that have ossification centers formed when mesenchymal cells cluster and become osteoblasts. Osteoid is secreted, then calcifies, and as more is laid down then trabeculae are formed with blood vessels between. Occurs in bones of the skull, plus the clavicles.
74
What are the 4 stages of healing a bone fracture, and what occurs during each stage?
Hematoma formation: mass of torn blood vessels, is swollen and painful Fibrocartilaginous callus formation: cartilage grows in the hematoma as capillaries grow Bony callus formation: cartilage begins to calcify and trabeculae forms Bone remodeling: compact bone is laid down to reconstruct walls of the shaft.
75
What is the main reason why osteoporosis is most common in elderly women?
Estrogen helps with denser bones, and when estrogen levels drop at menopause then osteoporosis is more likely to occur.
76
What are some factors in delaying osteoporosis?
Ingest plenty of calcium, reduce alcohol/carbonated beverages, get plenty of exercise.
77
What vitamin(s) and mineral(s) are needed for normal bone formation and growth?
calcium and vitamin D
78
_____ are considered to be a regulatory proteins of the thin myofilaments.
Tropomyosin and troponin.
79
What are the components of the thin filaments of striated muscle?
Fibrous protein actin: a polypeptide made of globular subunits Elastic filament: protein titin that hold thick filaments in place Dystrophin: links thin filaments to proteins of sarcolemma Nebulin, myomesin, and C-proteins bind filaments or sarcomeres together for alignment.
80
The repeated segments of a myofibril are called _____.
sarcomeres
81
Muscle fibers and neurons have an excess of _____ ions surrounding them and excess of _____ ions inside of them.
Excess of Na+ outside the cell and K+ inside the cell.
82
Explain the sliding-filament theory of muscle contraction.
Myosin filaments “bike pedal” along actin filaments with their cross bridges.
83
How is ATP used in muscle contraction and relaxation?
Move and detach cross bridges, pump calcium back into sarcoplasmic reticulum, and pump sodium out of and potassium back into the cell after excitation-contraction coupling.
84
Muscles can store relatively large amounts of energy in molecules of _____.
glycogen
85
When there is not enough oxygen to create ATP by aerobic respiration, a muscle fiber can produce ATP by borrowing phosphate groups from _____.
Creatine phosphate
86
After a muscle fiber has exhausted all of its immediate sources of ATP, it switches to _____ (part of anaerobic fermentation) only as a source of ATP.
lactic acid
87
Describe a myofibril and all of its features (striations, sarcomeres, and myofilaments).
Myofibrils are densely-packed rodlike elements that account for 80% of the muscle volume. Striations consist of A and I bands, an H zone, and an M line and Z disc. A sarcomere is the smallest functional unit of a muscle fiber and consists of an A band with half of an I band at each end. Myofilaments are thin (actin) filaments and thick (myosin) filaments, and they form cross bridges for a muscle contraction to occur.
88
List the events that happen at the neuromuscular junction.
An impulse arrives at the axon terminal, causing calcium channels to open. Calcium floods into the axon terminal, which causes vesicles containing acetylcholine to burst. Acetylcholine diffuses out of the axon terminal, across the synaptic cleft, and binds to ACH receptors on the muscle end plate. Sodium gates open, allowing sodium to flood into the muscle which causes an electrical impulse to be generated, which then passes through the muscle. Potassium channels open and sodium channels close to reset conditions.
89
Describe the function of t-tubules and where they are found
T-tubules are folds in the muscle that increase the surface area of a muscle fiber.
90
Describe the cross-bridge cycle
high-energy myosin head attaches to the active site on the actin thin filament. The myosin head pivots and pulls the thin filament to create a power stroke. ATP attaches to the myosin head, causing the cross bridge to detach.
91
What is calmodulin?
In a smooth muscle contraction, calcium binds to calmodulin which activates the cross bridge cycle.
92
What constitutes the central nervous system? And the peripheral nervous system?
Brain and spinal cord for CNS, cranial nerves and spinal nerves for PNS.
93
What are the 3 main functions of the nervous system?
Sensory input, processing information, responding with motor output.
94
What happens when a neuron is depolarized to threshold?
an impulse is sent.
95
What is the period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus?
refractory period.
96
What are the stages of generating an action potential, and what happens during each?
Depolarization: influx of sodium causes a decrease in membrane potential. Repolarization: efflux of potassium causes sodium channels to close, which brings the membrane potential back to -70 mV. Hyperpolarization is when sodium channels reset and some potassium channels open.
97
What is the function of a myelin sheath? What is it made of?
A myelin sheath is made of a protein-lipid substance, it wraps around an axon for protection and increases the rate of an impulse transmission.
98
What is an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)? And an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)?
An ISPS is hyperpolarization and ESPS is depolarization.
99
What is contained within white matter? And gray matter?
White matter: myelinated and nonmyelinated axons. Gray matter: short, nonmyelinated neurons and cell bodies.
100
What structures are found in each of the telencephalon, diencephalon, mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon?
Telencephalon: cerebrum Diencephalon: epithalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, retina Mesencephalon: midbrain Metencephalon: pons, cerebellum Myelencephalon: medulla oblongata
101
What is cerebrospinal fluid, and where can it be found?
Fluid found mostly in the ventricles of the brain and central canal of spinal cord, functions to lighten the weight of the brain (buoyancy), absorb physical shock, and provide chemically stable environment for the brain.
102
What is the function of the cerebral cortex? The cerebellum?
Cerebral cortex: “thinking cap”, awareness, sensory perception, voluntary motor initiation, communication, memory storage, understanding Cerebellum: provides smooth, coordinated movements of skeletal muscle.
103
What is the function of the pons? Medulla oblongata?
Pons: relays information between cerebrum and spinal cord, or cerebellum and medulla oblongata. Also relays messages concerning facial expressions Medulla oblongata: autonomic reflex center (respiratory rhythm, coughing, sneezing, etc).
104
What is the function of the thalamus? Hypothalamus?
Thalamus: sorts, edits, and relays sensory information to rest of brain. “post office” Hypothalamus: regulates water balance, thirst, sleep-wake cycle, controls endocrine functions (hormones).
105
What is Broca’s area? Wernicke’s area?
Broca’s area is a specific portion of cerebral cortex; it directs muscles of speech production. Wernicke’s area is associated with understanding spoken and written language.
106
Where are the cell bodies located for sensory neurons?
dorsal root ganglion
107
Give the pathway of a reflex arc.
stimulus, sensory receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector organ
108
How many cranial and spinal nerves are there?
12 cranial 31 spinal
109
Compare and contrast the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
Somatic: innervates skeletal muscle, single motor neuron, only have neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Autonomic: innervates cardiac and smooth muscle, two motor neurons, neurotransmitter either acetylcholine and norepinephrine.
110
Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
Parasympathetic: rest and digest. Decreased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, decreased breathing rate, increased metabolic rate. Sympathetic: fight or flight. Increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, increased breathing rate, decreased metabolic rate.
111
Where are sensory receptors for hearing and equilibrium (both types) located? Be specific.
Equilibrium: vestibule and semicircular canals Hearing: cochlea
112
What are the photoreceptors found in the eye? What are they each responsible for?
Rods are for dim light and peripheral vision, and cones are for color vision and sharp focus.
113
Define chemoreceptor, thermoreceptor, mechanoreceptor, nociceptor, and photoreceptor.
Chemoreceptor: sense chemical changes in blood Thermoreceptor: senses temperature changes Mechanoreceptor: senses pressure changes Nociceptor: senses pain Photoreceptor: for vision

anatomy 2401 (12 decks)

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