MISC Flashcards

1
Q

Write out (from memory) the GCS scale

A
Eye opening 
4 - Spontaneous 
3 - To speech
2 - To pain 
1 - No response 
Verbal response 
5 - Oriented
4 - Confused sentences 
3 - Inappropriate words 
2 - Sounds that are incomprehensible 
1 - No response 
Motor response 
6 - Obeys commands 
5 - Localises pain 
4 - Withdraws to pain 
3 - Flexion to pain 
2 - Extension to pain 
1 - No response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A man attends A&E via paramedics due to a fall. He has a decreased GCS of 6, and has a history of alcohol access. What is your initial first step and why?

A

Initial first step - Urgent CT scan of the head
Why - could have a bleed in the brain, specifically a subdural heamatoma as a fall, reduced GCS and alcohol excess are all risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A woman with a BMI of 35 attends your breast clinic due to a lump in her left breast. On examination, it is irregular and hard. She mentions it was initially firm, round and painful after trauma to the breast last week. She has a PMH of T2DM, IHD, OA and Hyperlipidaemia.

  1. What is your diagnosis?
  2. What investigations would you like to do and why?
A
  1. Diagnosis is fat necrosis of the breast. This is a classic history.
  2. Investigations - Mammogram and biopsy - to rule out malignancy as presentation of breast cancer is similar.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name features of biliary colic

A

Colicky RUQ pain
Worse after eating
No fever
Murphy sign -ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the complication of biliary colic?

A

Obstructive jaundice = jaundice, dark urine and pale stools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can ascending cholangitis be caused by?

A

Biliary calculi, benign biliary stricture, malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name three risk factors of cholangiocarcinoma

A

Hx of gallstones, smoking, obesity, porcelain gallbladder, primary sclerosing cholangitis, UC, Chrons, Oestrogens, Occupational exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A man had a radical prostatectomy 5 months ago due to prostate cancer. He now returns to you as he has a week stream and post micturition dribble. Why might he have these symptoms now?

A

Developed a urethral stricture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A patient attends ED as she has anxiety. She has SOB and feels her heart is beating too quickly. You carry out an ABG.What would this show?

A

Respiratory alkalosis.
WHY? Pt has anxiety —> panic attacks due to hyperventilation —> breathing off too much CO2 so reduces pp of CO2 —> = resp alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When do we invite women to breast screening?

A

ages 50-70yrs, every 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is an active seizure treated in the hospital setting?

A

IV 4mg lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which organism causes Staghorn calculus in abdominal XR

A

Proteus species infection- causes alkalisation of urine leading to staghorn calculus e.g Proteus mirabilis. Note: E.coli causes UTIs but does not cause stones to form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does having a glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency mean for red blood cells?

A

G6pd keep red blood cells working properly and live a normal ~ 120 day cycle. Without this, red cells lyse early (haemolysis) - get haemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In achalasia, how is pain/discomfort described clinically?

A

Retrosternal discomfort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does Pharyngeal pouch present?

A

Dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food, aspiration, chronic cough, weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A history of dysphagia, regurgitation of food and aspiration can bring about what differentials?

A

Achalasia
GORD
Pharyngeal pouch

17
Q

Name treatment used for HER2 receptor positive breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab aka Herceptin

18
Q

Which hormone receptor must a breast lesion be positive for to be treated with Tamoxifen?

A

ER (oestrogen receptor) positive

19
Q

Which antibiotic would be an appropriate choice for the treatment of a food borne enteric infection acquired in the UK?

A

Ciprofloxacin - good activity against many salmonellae and campylobacter.

20
Q

What particular food borne infection is metronidazole effective in treating?

A

Giardia

21
Q
Quinolone antibiotics need to be used with caution in the following groups:
Patients with e\_\_\_\_\_\_
Patients over \_\_ years old 
C\_\_\_\_\_\_
Patients who are p\_\_\_\_
A

Patients with epilepsy
Patients over 60 years old
Children
Patients who are pregnant

22
Q

Name three contraindications to using loperamide

Hints - medication causing gut problem, stool abnormality, hot hot hot!

A

Antibiotic associated colitis, bloody diarrhoea, high temperature

23
Q

What should you advise a patient about before taking metronidazole?

A

Metronidazole has a disulfram-like effect web drinking alcohol along side metronidazole. Symptoms of this include flushing, abdominal pain and hypotension.

24
Q

If the colon is dilated more than 10cm on an abdominal x ray, what is your top differential?

A

Toxic megacolon

25
Q

Amlodipine, Ramipril, Atorvastatin, Beclometasone and Salbutamol inhaler all have side effects. Which two from this list cause GI symptoms such as heartburn/dyspepsia, belching, occasional vomiting?

A

Amlodipine - causes dyspepsia. Atorvastatin - cause upper GI symptoms

26
Q

A 30 year old woman attends ED as she has an acutely red swollen leg. You confirm a DVT. Bloods are significant for thrombocytopenia and a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). These findings prompt an antibody screen, and the patient is subsequently diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome.
What should her long term treatment be (i.e. once discharged)?

A

Lifelong warfarin - After the first VTE, patients with antiphospholipid syndrome should be on lifelong warfarin

27
Q

Which lung cancer can present with moon face and purple striae on the abdomen?

A

Small cell lung cancer - secretes ACTH - leads to Cushing’s syndrome

28
Q

What is mesothelioma

A

Mesothelioma is a cancer of the pleura due to asbestos exposure.

29
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage of the bladder?

A

External and internal iliac nodes, so if cancer in bladder, these will be the first nodes affected

30
Q

What metabolic disturbance are you most worried about when prescribing salbutamol?

A

Hypokalaemia

31
Q

How does hyperkalaemia show on ECG?

A

Tall tented T waved

32
Q

What do you give if you see tall tented t waves on ECG and why?

A

IV calcium gluconate, to stabilise the myocardium and prevent cardiac arrest

33
Q

Characteristics of hypodelirum?

A

Withdrawal and sleepiness

34
Q

How does levy body dementia commonly present?

A

Dementia w Parkinsonism

Fluctuating cognition - compared to other dementia

35
Q

What are the 5D’s of charcot’s foot found on Xray? (Capsule clinical investigation case 142)

A

Density change (areas of lucency and sclerosis)

Destruction

Debris (loose bodies and bone fragments)

Distension (joint effusion)

Dislocation (e.g. metacarpophalangeal joints).

36
Q

What to do with warfarin if a pt has an IC haemorrhage?

A

give IV vitamin K 5mg + prothrombin complex concentrate

37
Q
A