Misc. antibiotics Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

What is the MOA of tetracyclines?

A

REVERSIBLY binds to the 30S ribosomal subunit (inhibits protein synthesis - no binding of tRNA to acceptor site)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Tetracyclines ____________ bind to the 30S subunit while aminoglycosides _______________ bind to the 30S subunit

A

REVERSIBLY

IRREVERSIBLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Are tetracyclines bacteriocidal or static?

A

STATIC (cidal at high concentrations against susceptible organisms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are 3 big MOR for tetracyclines?

A

1) efflux pumps
2) ribosomal protection proteins
3) enzymatic inactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Do you see cross-resistance at all for tetracyclines?

A

YES but not for minocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which tetracycline is resistant to the MORs?

A

tigecycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the spectrum of activity for tetracyclines

A

GRAM POS: MSSA, PSSP, bacillus, listeria, nocardia

GRAM NEG: burkholderia pseudomallei, neisseria, H. flu

Aerobes: actinomyces, proprionibacterium

MISC: legionella, chlamydophila, chlamydia, mycoplasma, ureaplasma, rickettsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the miscellaneous bacteria covered by tetracylcine

A
legionella 
chlamydophila
chlamydia
mycoplasma
ureaplasma
rickettsia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a special inclusion and exemption of tigecycline?

A

INCLUDED: bacteroides

OMISSION: proteus and pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

True or false: tigecycline has pseudomonas activity

A

FALSE (big hole in activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why can you not use tigecycline for bacteremias or UTIs?

A

cannot maintain good levels in the blood and does not concentrate in the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the route of admin for tigecycline?

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What impairs absorption of tetracyclines?

A

di and trivalent cations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is a big site of distribution of tet?

A

prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What 3 drugs are not eliminated via the kidney? andwhat 2 are?

A

renal: tetracycline, demeclocycline

non renal: doxy, mino, tige

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what do you use tet/glycylcyclines for?

A

RMSF, CA pneumo, STDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is demeclocycline particularly useful for?

A

SIADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name 5 adverse effects of tetracyclines

A

1) GI (nausea and vomiting)
2) hypersensitivity
3) PHOTOSENSITIVITY (exaggerated sunburn)
4) renal (fanconi-like syndrome with expired tets)
5) PREGNANCY CAT D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What can you get with expired tet?

A

fanconi like syndrome (renal failure)

20
Q

What effects do tetracylcines have on pregnancy?

A

discoloration of teeth and decreased bone growth

21
Q

What is the MOA of sulfonamides?

A

INHIBITS dihydropteroate synthetase (so PABA cannot be incorporated into tetrahydropteroic acid)

22
Q

Are sulfonamides bacteriocidal or static?

23
Q

What is the most common short acting sulfonamide?

A

sulfamethoxazole

24
Q

What does Trimethoprim do?

A

inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

25
____________ blocks conversion of PABA ---> dihydrofolic acid while __________ blocks dihydrofolic acid ----> tetrahydrofolic acid
sulfamethoxazole trimethoprim (both result in no purines produced)
26
Is resistance common to sulfonamides?
YES (structural change of enzyme)
27
What is the big gram positive and big gram negative bug TMP-SMX targets?
``` + = staph aureus - = stenotrophomonas maltophilia ```
28
TMP-SMX is prophylaxis of choice for what bug?
pneumocystis carinii
29
Where do TMP-SMX get good distribution?
prostate
30
Where are TMP-SMX eliminated?
liver and kidney - need to adjust dose in patients with CrCl
31
Name 5 clinical uses for TMP-SMX
1) acute, chronic, or recurrent infections of the urinary tract 2) acute/chronic bacterial prostatitis 3) skin infections due to CA MRSA 4) bacterial sinusitis 5) NOCARDIA
32
Name 4 adverse effects associated with TMP-SMX
1) leukopenia 2) thrombocytopenia 3) hypersensitivity (rash) 4) crystalluria also get tubular necrosis and interstitial nephritis
33
Name 3 drug interactions common of TMP-SMX
1) phenytoin 2) warfarin 3) methotrexate
34
How is TMP-SMX administered?
oral (single or double strength) or IV
35
What is the MOA of chloramphenicol?
binds to 50S subunit of 70s ribosome
36
For which 3 bugs is chloramphenicol bacterioCIDAL (not static) for?
1) H. flu 2) strep pneumo 3) N. meningitidis
37
What are 3 resistance mechanisms for chloramphenicol?
1) reduced permeability/uptake 2) ribosomal mutation 3) acetyltransferase inactivation
38
You should decrease chloramphicol dose in what kind of failure?
liver (adjustment not required in renal failure)
39
Is chloramphenicol used for pseudomonas?
NO
40
What 4 bugs does chloramphenicol treat?
Ricketssiae Spirochetes Chlamydia Mycoplasma IN DEVELOPING WORLD
41
What are the 2 main adverse effects of chloramphenicol?
1) Aplastic anemia | 2) Gray baby syndrome
42
What are the 2 UTI agents?
Nitrofurantoin | Methenamine
43
Which UTI agent is converted to formaldehyde in acidic pH?
Methenamine
44
Which UTI agent is used to suppress UTIs and which to treat?
Methenamine --> suppress Nitrofurantoin --> treat
45
How are the UTI agents administered?
orally
46
What are some adverse effects of nitrofurantoin?
GI intolerance | rashes