MIX Flashcards

1
Q

Von Gierke Disease (type I) mutated enzyme

A

glucose-6-phosphatatse

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2
Q

Pompe disease (type II) mutated enzyme

A

lysosomal alpha-1,4-glucosidase

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3
Q

Cori Disease (type III) mutated enzyme

A

debranching enzyme (alpha-1,6-glucosidase)

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4
Q

McArdle disease (type V) mutated enzyme

A

skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase

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5
Q

Fabry disease mutated enzyme

A

alpha-galactosidease

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6
Q

Gaucher disease mutated enzyme

A

glucocerebrosidase

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7
Q

Niemann-Pick mutated enzyme

A

sphingomyelinase

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8
Q

Tay-Sachs mutated enzyme

A

hexosaminidase A

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9
Q

Krabbe disease mutated enzyme

A

galactrocerebrosidase

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10
Q

metachromic leukodystrophy mutated enzyme

A

arylsulfatase A

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11
Q

Hurler syndrome mutated enzyme

A

alpha-L-iduronidase

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12
Q

Hunter syndrome mutated enzyme

A

iduronate sulfatase

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13
Q

_1 (alpha1) receptor action

A

increase vascular smooth muscle contraction, increase pupillary dilator muscle contraction (mydriasis), increase intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction

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14
Q

_2 (alpha2)receptor action

A

decrease sympathetic outflow, decrease insulin reslease, decrease lipolysis, increase platelet aggregation, decrease aqueous humor production

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15
Q

_1 (beta1) receptor action

A

increase heart rate, increase contractility, increase renin release, increase lipolysis

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16
Q

_2 (beta2) receptor action

A

vasodilation, bronchodilation, increase lipolysis, increase insulin release, decrease uterine tone (tocolysis), ciliary muscle relaxation, increase aqueous humor production

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17
Q

M1 receptor action

A

CNS, enteric nervous system

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18
Q

M2 receptor action

A

decrease heart rate and contractility of atria

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19
Q

M3 receptor action

A

increase exocrine gland secretions (lacrimal, salivary, gastric acid), increase peristalsis of gut, increase bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, increase pupillary sphincter muscle contraction (miosis), ciliary muscle contraction (accomodation)

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20
Q

D1 receptor action

A

relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle

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21
Q

D2 receptor action

A

modulates transmitter release, especially in the brain

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22
Q

H1 receptor action

A

increases nasal and bronchial mucus production, increase vascular permeability, contraction of bronchioles, pruritus, pain

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23
Q

H2 receptor action

A

increase gastric acid secretion

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24
Q

V1 receptor action

A

increase vascular smooth muscle contraction

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25
V2 receptor action
increased H2O permeability and reabsorption in collecting tubules of the kidney
26
bethanechol use
post-op ileus, neurogenic ileus, urinary retention
27
carbachol use
constricts pupil, relieves intraocular pressure in glaucomoa
28
methacholine use
challenge test for asthma dx
29
pilocarpine use
open angle and closed angle glaucoma
30
donepezil use
alzheimer disease
31
galantamine use
alzheimer disease
32
rivastigmine use
alzheimer disease
33
edrophonium use
historically used to diagnose myasthenia gravis
34
neostigmine use
post-op ileus, neurogenic ileus, urinary retention, myasthenia gravis, reversal of neuromuscular junction blockade post-op
35
physostigmine use
used to treat anticholinergic toxicity (ie atropine tox, TCA od); is able to cross BBB
36
pyridostigmine use
myasthenia gravis
37
atropine use
eye: mydriasis (pupillary dilation), hard to seeairway: decreased secretionsstomach: decreased acid secretiongut: decreased motilitybladder: decreased urgency
38
homatropine use
eye: mydriasis (pupillary dilation), hard to see
39
tropicamide use
eye: mydriasis (pupillary dilation), hard to see
40
benztropine use
Parkinson disease; acute dystonia
41
glycopyrrolate use
GI (oral administration): drooling, peptic ulcerrespiratory (parenteral administration): pre-op to reduce secretions
42
hyoscyamine use
GI: antispasmotic for IBS
43
dicyclomine use
GI: antispasmotic for IBS
44
ipatropium use
respiratory: COPD, asthma
45
tiopropium use
respiratory: COPD, asthma
46
oxybutynin use
GU: reduce bladder spasm and urge incontinence (overactive bladder)
47
solifenacin use
GU: reduce bladder spasm and urge incontinence (overactive bladder)
48
tolterodine use
GU: reduce bladder spasm and urge incontinence (overactive bladder)
49
scopalamine use
CNS: motion sickness
50
tetrodotoxin symptoms
nausea, vomiting, paresthesias, weakness, dizziness, loss of reflexes after eating poorly prepared pufferfish
51
ciguatoxin symptoms
temperature related dysesthesia (Cold feels hot)= specific finding; otherwise looks like cholinergic poisoning (diarrhea, urination, miosis, bradycardia, lacrimation, sweating salivation) after eating reef fish
52
scombroid poisoning
burning sensation in mouth, flushing of face, erythema, urticaria, pruritus, headache; anaphylaxis-like presentation
53
albuterol use
acute asthma
54
salmeterol use
long-term asthma, COPD control
55
dobutamine use
heart failure (inotropic> chronotropic), cardiac stress testing
56
dopamine use
unstable bradycardia, HF, shock; inotropic/chronotropic effects predominate at high dosese
57
epinephrine use
anaphylaxis, asthma, open-angle glaucoma (alpha effects predominate at high doses)
58
isoproterenol use
electrophysiologic evaluation of tachyarrhythmias
59
norepinephrine use
hypotension
60
phenylephrine use
hypotension (vasoconstrictor), dilates pupils, decongestant
61
amphetamine use
narcolepsy, obesity, ADHD
62
cocaine use
vasoconstriction, local anesthesia
63
ephedrine use
nasal decongestant, urinary incontinence, hypotension
64
clonidine use
hypertensive urgency, ADHD, Tourettes
65
_-methyldopa use
hypertension in pregnancy
66
phenoxybenzamine use
used pre-op before pheochromocytoma surgery to prevent catecholamine/hypertensive crisis
67
phentolamine use
for patients on MAO inhibitors who eat tyramine-containing foods
68
prazosin use
BPH urinary symptoms; PTSD; hypertension
69
terazosin use
BPH urinary symptoms; hypertension
70
doxazosin use
BPH urinary symptoms; hypertension
71
tamsulosin use
BPH urinary symptoms
72
mirtazapine use
depresson, increases appetite
73
metoprolol use
angina pectoris, MI (dec mortaility), SVT, hypertension, HF
74
esmolol use
angina pectoris, SVT, hypertension, HF
75
carvedilol use
angina pectoris, MI (dec mortaility), hypertension, HF
76
timolol use
glaucoma
77
toxin use
antidote/treatment
78
acetaminophen antidote
N-acetylcysteine
79
AchE inhibitors antidote
atropine, pralidoxime
80
organophosphates antidote
atropine, pralidoxime
81
amphetamines antidote
NH4Cl
82
antimuscarinic agents antidote
physostigmine salicylate
83
anticholinergic agents antidote
physostigmine salicylate
84
benzodiazepines antidote
flumazenil
85
beta blockers antidote
glucagon
86
carbon monoxide antidote
100% O2, hyperbaric O2
87
copper, arsenic, gold antidote
penicillamine
88
cyanide antidote
nitrite+ thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin
89
digitalis (Digoxin) antidote
anti-dig Fab fragments
90
heparin antidote
protamine sulfate
91
iron antidote
deferoxamine, deferasirox
92
lead antidote
EDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, pencillamine
93
mercury, arsenic, gold antidote
dimercaprol (BAL), succimer
94
methanol antidote
fomepizole, ethanol
95
ethylene glycol antidote
fomepizole, ethanol
96
methemoglobin antidote
methylene blue, vitamin c
97
opioids antidote
naloxone, naltrexone
98
salicylates antidote
sodium bicarb
99
TCAs antidote
sodium bicarb
100
tPA, streptokinase, urokinase antidote
aminocaproic acid
101
warfarin antidote
FFP, vit K
102
Inspiration does what to flow to the heart
increased venous return to RA
103
Hand Grip does what to flow to the heart
increases afterload
104
valsalva (phase II)does what to flow to the heart
decreased preload
105
standing up does what to flow to the heart
decreased preload
106
rapid squatting does what to flow to the heart
increased venous return, increased preload
107
Inspiration changes heart sounds how?
increased intensity of right heart sounds
108
Hand Grip changes heart sounds how?
increased intensity of MR, AR, VSD murmursdecreased intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmur MVP: later onset of click/murmur
109
valsalva (phase II) changes heart sounds how?
decreased intensity of most murmurs (inc. AS)increased intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmurMVP: earlier onset of click/murmur
110
standing up changes heart sounds how?
decreased intensity of most murmurs (inc. AS)increased intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmurMVP: earlier onset of click/murmur
111
rapid squatting changes heart sounds how?
decreased intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmur increased intensity of AS murmurMVP: later onset of click/murmur
112
Alcohol exposure in utero
VSD, PDA, ASD, TOF
113
congenital rubella
septal defects, PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis
114
Down syndrome
AV septal defect (endocardial cushion defect), ASD, VSD
115
Infant of Diabetic Mother
Transposition of the great vessels
116
Marfan
MVP, thoracic aortic aneurysm and dissection, aortic regurg
117
prenatal lithium exposure
Ebstein anomaly (tricuspid valve anomaly)
118
Turner syndrome
coarctation of the aorta, bicuspid aortic valve
119
Williams Syndrome
supravalvular aortic stenosis
120
22q11 (Di George)
truncus arteriosus, TOF
121
VSD is associated with
alcohol exposure, Down syndrome
122
PDA is associated with
alcohol exposure, Down syndrome, congenital rubella
123
TGA is associated with
infants of diabetic mother
124
truncus arteriosus is associated with
digeorge
125
coarctation of the aorta is associated with
Turner syndrome
126
TOF is associated with
alcohol exposure, DiGeorge
127
ASD is associated with
Down syndrome, alcohol exposure
128
dihydropyridines except nimodipine
act on vascular smooth musle (vs. non-dihydropyridines which act on heart) block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of smooth muscle--> decrease muscle contractility
129
nimodipine
(dihydropyridine) acts on vascular smooth musle (vs. non-dihydropyridines which act on heart) block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of smooth muscle--> decrease muscle contractility
130
clevidipine
(dihydropyridine) acts on vascular smooth musle (vs. non-dihydropyridines which act on heart) block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of smooth muscle--> decrease muscle contractility
131
verapamil
(non-dihydropyridine); class IV antiarrhythmic acts on heart block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of cardiac muscle--> decrease muscle contractility decrease conduction velocity, increase refractory period, increase PR interval
132
diltiazem
(non-dihydropyridine); class IV antiarrhythmic acts on heart block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of cardiac muscle--> decrease muscle contractility decrease conduction velocity, increase refractory period, increase PR interval
133
hydralazine
increases cGMP--> smooth muscle relaxation; vasodilation of arterioles > veins --> results in reduced afterload
134
nitroprusside
increases cGMP by directly releasing NO
135
fenoldopam
dopamine D1 receptor agonist--> coronary, peripheral, renal, splanchnic vasodilation--> decreased BP, increased natriuresis
136
nitrates (nitroglycerin, isosorbide dinitrate, isosorbide mononitrate)
increase NO in vascular smooth muscle--> increase in cGMP and smooth muscle relaxation (veins >> arteries, decreased preload)
137
lovastatin, simvastatin, etc
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors inhibits conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate (cholesterol precursor) DECREASES LDL, some decrease in TG, some increase in HDL
138
cholestyramine
bile acid resin prevents intestinal reabsorption of bile acids; liver must use cholesterol to make more decreases LDL, slight increase in HDL, slight increase in TG (not good)
139
colestipol
bile acid resin prevents intestinal reabsorption of bile acids; liver must use cholesterol to make more decreases LDL, slight increase in HDL, slight increase in TG (not good)
140
colesevelam
bile acid resin prevents intestinal reabsorption of bile acids; liver must use cholesterol to make more decreases LDL, slight increase in HDL, slight increase in TG (not good)
141
ezetimibe
prevents cholesterol absorption at the small intestine brush border decreases LDL
142
gemifibrozil
fibrate upregulates LPL--> increased triglyceride clearance activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis DECREASES TGs, some decrease in LDL, some increase in HDL
143
clofibrate
fibrate upregulates LPL--> increased triglyceride clearance activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis DECREASES TGs, some decrease in LDL, some increase in HDL
144
benzafibrate
fibrate upregulates LPL--> increased triglyceride clearance activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis DECREASES TGs, some decrease in LDL, some increase in HDL
145
fenofibrate
fibrate upregulates LPL--> increased triglyceride clearance activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis DECREASES TGs, some decrease in LDL, some increase in HDL
146
Niacin (Vit b3)
inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue; reduces hepatic VLDL synthesis decreases LDL, increases HDL, slight decrease in TG
147
digoxin
cardiac glycoside direct inhibitition of Na/K ATPase --> indirect inhibition of the Na/Ca exchanger--> increased intracellular calcium--> positive inotropy stimulates vagus nerve--> decreased heart rate
148
quinidine
sodium channel blockers (class Ia) slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized-- eg tachycardia) increase AP duration, increase effective refractory period in ventricular action, prolong QT interval
149
procainamide
sodium channel blockers (class Ia) slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized-- eg tachycardia) increase AP duration, increase effective refractory period in ventricular action, prolong QT interval
150
disopyramide
sodium channel blockers (class Ia) slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized-- eg tachycardia) increase AP duration, increase effective refractory period in ventricular action, prolong QT interval
151
lidocaine
sodium channel blockers (class Ib) slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized-- eg tachycardia) decreases AP duration, preferentially affects ischemic or depolarized purkinje and ventricular tissue
152
mexiletine
sodium channel blockers (class Ib) slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized-- eg tachycardia) decreases AP duration, preferentially affects ischemic or depolarized purkinje and ventricular tissue
153
flecainide
sodium channel blockers (class IC) slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized-- eg tachycardia) significantly prolongs effective refractory period in AV node and accessory bypass tracts; no effect in Purkinje or ventricular tissue; minimal effect on AP duration
154
propafenone
sodium channel blockers (class IC) slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized-- eg tachycardia) significantly prolongs effective refractory period in AV node and accessory bypass tracts; no effect in Purkinje or ventricular tissue; minimal effect on AP duration
155
metoprolol
beta blockers (class II) decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4 AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval
156
propanolol
beta blockers (class II) decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4 AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval
157
esmolol
beta blockers (class II) decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4 AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval VERY SHORT ACTING
158
atenolol
beta blockers (class II) decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4 AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval
159
timolol
beta blockers (class II) decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4 AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval
160
carvedilol
beta blockers (class II) decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4 AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval
161
amiodarone
potassium channel blockers (class III) increases AP duration, increases refractory period, and increases QT interval
162
ibutilide
potassium channel blockers (class III) increases AP duration, increases refractory period, and increases QT interval
163
dofetilide
potassium channel blockers (class III) increases AP duration, increases refractory period, and increases QT interval
164
sotalol
potassium channel blockers (class III) increases AP duration, increases refractory period, and increases QT interval
165
adenosine
increased K+ efflux from cells--> hyperpolarizes cell--> decreases calcium influx
166
dihydropyridines except nimodipine
hypertension, angina (inc. Prinzmetal), Raynaud phenomenon
167
nimodipine
subarachnoid hemorrhage (prevents cerebral vasospasm)
168
clevidipine
hypertensive urgency or emergency
169
verapamil
hypertension, angina, atrial fibrillation/flutter prevention of nodal arrhythmias (SVT), rate control in a fib
170
diltiazem
hypertension, angina, atrial fibrillation/flutter prevention of nodal arrhythmias (SVT), rate control in a fib
171
hydralazine
severe, acute HTN, heart failure safe to use in pregnancy
172
nitroprusside
hypertensive emergency
173
fenoldopam
hypertensive emergency
174
nitrates (nitroglycerin, isosorbide dinitrate, isosorbide mononitrate)
angina, acute coronary artery syndrome, pulmonary edema
175
lovastatin, simvastatin, etc
lipid lowering agent
176
cholestyramine
lipid lowering agent
177
colestipol
lipid lowering agent
178
colesevelam
lipid lowering agent
179
ezetimibe
lipid lowering agent
180
gemifibrozil
lipid lowering agent
181
clofibrate
lipid lowering agent
182
benzafibrate
lipid lowering agent
183
fenofibrate
lipid lowering agent
184
Niacin (Vit b3)
hyperlipidemia
185
digoxin
heart failure (increased contractility), a fib (decreased conduction at AV note, depression of SA node)
186
quinidine
atrial and ventricular arrhythmias; reentrant and ectopic SVT and VT
187
procainamide
atrial and ventricular arrhythmias; reentrant and ectopic SVT and VT
188
disopyramide
atrial and ventricular arrhythmias; reentrant and ectopic SVT and VT
189
lidocaine
acute ventricular arrhythmias (especially post-MI), digitalis-induced arrhythmias
190
mexiletine
acute ventricular arrhythmias (especially post-MI), digitalis-induced arrhythmias
191
flecainide
SVT (inc. a fib)
192
propafenone
SVT (inc. a fib)
193
metoprolol
SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter
194
propanolol
SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter
195
esmolol
SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter
196
atenolol
SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter
197
timolol
SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter
198
carvedilol
SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter
199
amiodarone
a fib, a flutter, ventricular tachycardia
200
ibutilide
a fib, a flutter
201
dofetilide
a fib, a flutter
202
sotalol
a fib, a flutter, ventricular tachycardia
203
adenosine
diagnosis and stopping SVT very short acting
204
magnesium
torsades de points and digoxin toxicity
205
with which conditions do you have a failure to agglutinate with ristocetin assay?
vWD and Bernard-Soulier syndrome
206
t(8;14)
Burkitt Lymphoma
207
t(9;22)
CML
208
t(11;14)
mantle cell lymphoma
209
t(14;18)
follicular lymphoma
210
t(15;17)
M3 type of AML
211
Medication
Effect on fetus
212
ACE inhibitors
renal damage
213
alkylating agents
absence of digits, multiple anomalies
214
aminoglycosides
CN VIII toxicity (deafness)
215
carbamazepine
facial dysmorphism, developmental delay, neural tube defects, phalanx/fingernail hypoplasia
216
Diethylstilbestrol (DES)
vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma, congenital mullerian anomalies
217
folate antagonists
neural tube defects
218
isoretinoin
multiple birth defects
219
lithium
ebstein anomaly (atrialized RV)
220
methimazole
aplasia cutis congenita
221
phenytoin
fetal hydantoin syndrome- cleft palate, cardiac defects, phalanx/fingernail hypoplasia
222
tetracyclines
discolored teeth
223
thalidomide
limb defects (flipper limbs)
224
valproate
inhibition of maternal folate absorption (--> neural tube defects)
225
warfarin
bone deformities, fetal hemorrhage, abortion, ophthalmologic abnormalities
226
alcohol
FAS
227
cocaine
abnormal fetal growth, fetal addiction, placental abruption
228
smoking
low birth weight, preterm labor, placental problems, IUGR, ADHD
229
iodine (lack or excess)
congenital goiter or hypothyroidism
230
maternal diabetes
caudal regression syndrome, congenital heart defects, neural tube defects
231
vitamin A excess
high risk for SAB and birth defects
232
x-rays
microcephaly, intellectual disability
233
vagina
stratified squamous epithelium, non-keratinized
234
ectocervix
stratified squamous epithelium, non-keratinized
235
transformation zone
squamocolumnar junction (MC area for cervical cancer)
236
endocervix
simple columnar epithelium
237
uterus
simple pseudostratified columnar epithelium; long tubular glands in follicular phase and coiled glands in the luteal phase
238
fallopian tube
simple columnar epithelium, ciliated; peg cells secrete nutrients
239
ovary outer surface
simple cuboidal epithelium (aka germinal epithelium)
240
demeclocycline
ADH antagonist
241
somatostatin (octreotide)
basically stops the secretion of a bunch of hormones; reduces acid secretion from parietal cells, suppresses release of gastrin and CCK, inhibits release of glucagon
242
canagliflozin (SGLT-2 inhibitor)
block reabsorption of glucose in the proximal collecting tubule
243
conivaptan, tolvaptan (ADH antagonist)
blocks action of ADH at the V2 receptor
244
methimazole
blocks thyroid peroxidase--> inhibits oxidation of iodide and coupling of iodine--> inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis
245
propylthiouracil
blocks thyroid peroxidase--> inhibits oxidation of iodide and coupling of iodine--> inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis also blocks 5'-deiodase which decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
246
chlorpropamide (1st gen sulfonylurea)
closes K+ channel in the beta cell--> cell depolarization--> calcium influx--> insulin release
247
tolbutamide (1st gen sulfonylurea)
closes K+ channel in the beta cell--> cell depolarization--> calcium influx--> insulin release
248
glimepiride (2nd gen sulfoylurea)
closes K+ channel in the beta cell--> cell depolarization--> calcium influx--> insulin release
249
glipizide (2nd gen sulfoylurea)
closes K+ channel in the beta cell--> cell depolarization--> calcium influx--> insulin release
250
glyburide (2nd gen sulfoylurea)
closes K+ channel in the beta cell--> cell depolarization--> calcium influx--> insulin release
251
pramlintide (amylin analogs)
decreased gastric emptying, decreased glucagon
252
Metformin (biguanide)
decreases gluconeogenesis, increases glycolysis, increases peripheral glucose uptake (increases insulin sensitivity)
253
pioglitazone, rosiglitazone (glitazones, thiazolidinediones)
increased insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissue (via binding to PPAR-y which regulates fatty acid storage and glucose metabolism)
254
exenatide (GLP-1 analog)
increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release
255
liraglutide (GLP-1 analog)
increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release
256
linagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor)
increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release
257
saxagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor)
increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release
258
sitagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor)
increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release
259
acarbose (alpha-glucosidase inhibitor)
inhibits intestinal bursh border alpha-glucosidases (which normally breaks down starches into glucose)--> delayed carbohydrate hydrolysis and glucose absorption--> decreased postprandial hyperglycemia
260
glucocorticoids
interactions with glucocorticoid response elements, inhibition of phospholipase A2, inhibition of transcription factors such as NF-KB
261
cinacalcet
sensitizes calcium sensing receptor (CaSR) in parathyroid gland to circulating calcium--> decreased PTH release
262
Microcytic Anemias
Iron deficiency, anemia of chronic disease, thalassemias, lead poisoning, sideroblastic anemia
263
normocytic, non-hemolytic anemia (nml to low retic count)
anemia of chronic disease, aplastic anemia, chronic kidney disease, early iron deficiency anemia, pure red cell aplasia
264
normocytic, hemolytic anemia (increased retic count)- INTRINSIC
hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency, pyruvate kinase deficiency, HbC defect, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, sickle cell anemia
265
normocytic, hemolytic anemia (increased retic count)- EXTRINSIC
autoimmune, microangiopathic, macroangiopathic, infections
266
macrocytic, megaloblastic
folate deficiency, B12 deficiency, orotic aciduria
267
macrocytic, non-megaloblastic
liver disease, alcoholism, reticulocytosis
268
RBC casts are seen in which 2 conditions?
glomerulonephritis, malignant hypertension
269
WBC cast are seen in which 3 conditions?
tubulointerstitial inflammation, acute pyelonephritis, transplant rejection
270
fatty casts (oval fat bodies) are seen in which condition?
nephrotic syndrome
271
granular (muddy brown) casts are seen in which condition?
acute tubular necrosis
272
waxy casts are seen in which condition?
end-stage renal disease/ chronich renal failure
273
hyaline casts are seen in which condition?
nonspecific, can be normal finding, often seen in concentrated urine samples
274
what casts are found in glomerulonephritis?
RBC casts
275
what casts are found in malignant hypertension?
RBC casts
276
what casts are found in tubulointerstitial inflammation?
WBC casts
277
what casts are found in acute pyelonephritis?
WBC casts
278
what casts are found in transplant rejection?
WBC casts
279
what casts are found in nephrotic syndrome?
fatty casts
280
what casts are found in acute tubular necrosis?
granular, muddy brown casts
281
what casts are found in ESRD?
waxy casts
282
arginine
nitric oxide
283
arginine+ aspartate
urea
284
glycine+ succinyl coa
heme
285
glycine + arginine + sam
creatinine
286
glutamate
gaba
287
gluatmate
glutathione
288
glutamate + aspartate
pyrimidines
289
glutamate + aspartate + glycine
pryimidines
290
histidine
histamine
291
phenylalanine
tyrosine (-->DOPA--> DOPAMINE)
292
tryptophan
serotonin (--> melatonin)
293
tryptophan
niacin
294
tyrosine
thyroxine, melanin
295
acanthocyte (spur cell)
liver disease, abetalipoproteinemia
296
basophilic stippling
lead disease
297
degmacyte (bite cell)
G6PD deficiency
298
elliptocyte
heretidary elliptocytosis
299
macro-ovalocyte
megaloblastic anemia
300
ringed sideroblast
sideroblastic anemia (excess iron in mitochondria=pathologic)
301
shistocyte (helmet cell)
DIC, TTP/HUS, HELLP, mechanical hemolysis
302
sickle cell
sickle cell anemia
303
spherocyte
hereditary spherocytosis, drug and infection induced hemolytic anemia
304
dacrocyte (teardrop cell)
bone marrow infiltration (myelofibrosis)
305
target cell
HbC disease, asplenia, liver disease, thalassemia (HALT)
306
heinz bodies
preciptiation of Hb--> leads to bite cells; see in G6PD deficiency and also alpha thalassemia
307
Howell-Jolly bodies
basophilic nuclear remnants unable to be cleared by spenic macrophages; seen in functional asplenia or asplenia
308
S-100 is a marker for?
melanoma, langerhans cell histiocytosis (mesodermal origin)
309
What causes methemoglobin
nitrates, benzocaine
310
psammoma bodies?
mesothelioma, ovarian serous cystadenocarcinomas, meningiomas, papillary thyroid carcinoma
311
what cases methemoglobin?
nitrites, benzocaine
312
what kind of shift does carboxyhemoglobin cause?
LEFT SHIFT! (decreased O2 binding capacity)
313
what is caplan syndrome
pneumoconiosis w/ intrapulmonary nodules and RA