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PANCE PREP > PANCE Cardio round 2 > Flashcards

PANCE Cardio round 2 Flashcards

1
Q

LBB what leads

A

V5- V6

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2
Q

what is a normal PR

A

.20

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3
Q

irregularly irreigular on EKG

A

a Fib

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4
Q

how long for persistant a fib

A

> 7 days

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5
Q

a fib rhythm control 2

A
  • cardiovertion

- ablation

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6
Q

tx wide complex SVT

A

amiodrone

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7
Q

what medication do you want to avoid with WPW

A

beta blocker

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8
Q

unstable WPW tx

A

cardiovertion

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9
Q

what rate for junctional rhythm

A

40-60

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10
Q

how do you tell on EKG for junctional rhythm

A

inverted T waves

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11
Q

what is the tx for PVC

A

none

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12
Q

what is the tx for PEA and asystolye

A

epi, shock, epi (CPR)

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13
Q

what does ST depression mean

A

cardio ishmeia

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14
Q

brugada syndrome is MC is what group

A

asian males

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15
Q

brugada syndrome tx

A

pacemaker

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16
Q

how do you tx cocaine induced MI

A

benzos (no BB)

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17
Q

how to tx prinzmental angina

A

CCB

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18
Q

“sartan” what medication class

A

ARB

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19
Q

best med class for HF

A

ace

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20
Q

what position is worse with acute pericarditis

A

supine

Better with leaning forward

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21
Q

how do you tx acute pericarditis

A

NSAIDS

colchicine

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22
Q

how do you tx percardial effusion

A

pericardial centesis

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23
Q

what is constrictive pericarditis often confused with

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy

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24
Q

constrictive pericarditis tx

A

pericardiectomy

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25
Q

2 causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

amalyoidosis

sarcoidosis

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26
Q

what is the first line tx for HCMP

A

beta blockers

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27
Q

metabolic changes with HCTZ 5

A

hypercalcemia
hyponatremia
hypokalemia

Gout
DM

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28
Q

metabolic changes with Loops 3

A

hypocalcemia
hyponatremia
hypokalemia

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29
Q

when do you do surgery on AAA 2

A

5.5 cm

> .5 6 months

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30
Q

AAA medication

A

BB

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31
Q

xanthomas over the extensor surfaces associated with what

A

TG

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32
Q

holiday heart syndrome tx

A

observation

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33
Q

what has a progressively long PR

A

mobitz I

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34
Q

what heart arrthymia do you anticoag in addition to a fib

A

a flutter

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35
Q

what pathology has no P waves

A

A fib

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36
Q

what do you TX WAP / MAP 2

A
  • CCB

- BB

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37
Q

how do you tell functional rhythm

A

inverted P waved

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38
Q

how do you tx unstable V tach with a pulse

A

cardiovert

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39
Q

is it possible that ST elevation does not mean an MI

A
  • none
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40
Q

what type of block for brugoda syndrome

A

RBBB

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41
Q

how do you rule out CAD

A

stress test

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42
Q

what is the worst factor for CAD

A

DM

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43
Q

what three things does ACS include

A
  • unstable angina
  • NSTEMI
  • STEMI
44
Q

what pain with bradycardia think what

A

inferior wall MI

45
Q

how much ST elevated for MI

- what is also an equivalant

A
  • 1 mm

- new LBBB

46
Q

EKG progression of MI 4

A
  • Peak T waves
  • ST elevation
  • pathological (deep) Q
  • intervened T
47
Q

what 4 things may elevate troponin

A
  • CKD
  • CHF
  • PE
  • CVA
48
Q

what two MI do you tx with CCB

A
  • Prizmetal angina

- cocain

49
Q

how long after MI do you have for a stent

A

90 min

50
Q

what 4 things does an STEMI get in addition to MONA

A
  • BB
  • ACE
  • Herperin
  • PCI
51
Q

what 3 things does an NSTEMI get in addition to MONA

A
  • ACE
  • Herperin
  • BB
52
Q

how do you tx cocain MI 2

A
  • CCB

- Benzos

53
Q

what is the name for post MI pericarditis

A

dresslers

54
Q

what is the most importnat CHF medication

A

ACE > Duiretic > BB

but you want all 3

55
Q

how do you tx pericardial effuion

A
  • pericardial window

- pericardiocentesis

56
Q

if you see ST elevation in leads V1-V6 what are you thinking

A

acute pericarditis

57
Q

tx for pericardial tamponade

A

pericardiocentesis

58
Q

what do you see on echo for pericardial tamponade

A

diastolic collapse of the chnambers

59
Q

pericardial knock think what

A

constrictive pericarditis

60
Q

what causes myocarditis

A

coxackie virus

61
Q

how do you tx myocarditis

A

just like S- CHF

62
Q

what are the top three reasons for dilated cardiomyopathy

A
  • idiopathic
  • Myocarditis
  • ETOH
63
Q

what side of the heart for restrictive cardiomyopathy

A
  • right
64
Q

what are the 2 MC symtpms of HCOM

A
  • dyspnea

- angina

65
Q

what two activities make HCOM worse

A

valsalva
standing

dec VR

66
Q

two tx for HCOM

A
  • BB

- ICD

67
Q

what is the MCC of mitral stenosis

A

rheumatic fever

68
Q

what murmur opening snap

A
  • mitral stenosis
69
Q

what metabolic dysfunction is caused by loops and thiazides

A
  • metabolic alkalosis
70
Q

alpha blocker (prazosin) is used when for HTN

A

if they also have BPH

71
Q

what is the order 4 in how to manage HTN

A
  • Thiazides
  • ACE
  • ARB
  • CCB
72
Q

what two HTN everygencyes do you not want to lower BP too much

A
  • stroke

- aortic disection

73
Q

what meds to raise HDL

A

niacin

74
Q

what is the most importnat thing to do first with infective endocarditis

A
  • blood clultures
75
Q

what is the tx for infective endocarditis

  • acute native
  • subacute
  • prosthetic valve
  • fungal
A
  • acute native: nafcillin + gent (staph aureus)
  • subacute ampcillin + gent (strep virdans)
  • prosthetic valve: vancy + rifamfin + gent (staph epiderm)
  • fungal: amp B
76
Q

what are the three indications for infective endocarditis prophalaxisis

A
  • dental work gums
  • resiratory
  • muscle
77
Q

what are the 6 Ps associated with

A

PAD

78
Q

what side of the ankle for PAD ulcers

A

lateral

79
Q

“dependent rubor

A

PAD

80
Q

MC area for AAA

A

infrarenal

81
Q

2 AAA RF

A
  • athersclerosis

- smkoking

82
Q

best AAA medication

A

BB

83
Q

what is the most importnat factor to a aortic disection

A
  • HTN
84
Q

diffrenece in BP between right and left

A

aortic disection

85
Q

what test for aortic disection

A

Stable: MRI
Unstable: CT

86
Q

Thromboangitis obliterans (burgers disease) what is it

A
  • nonathersclertic inflammatory disease of small and medium size vesscles
87
Q

Thromboangitis obliterans (burgers disease) primary RF

A

smoking

88
Q

Thromboangitis obliterans (burgers disease) primary symptoms

A

similar to PAD of the small digits

89
Q

Thromboangitis obliterans (burgers disease) tx 2

A

stop smoking

CCB

90
Q

peripherial venous disease ulcer location

A

medial

91
Q

how do you tx superficial thrombophilibitis

A

NSAIDs

92
Q

what is virchows triad for DVT

A
  • stasis
  • herpercoag
  • endothelial damage
93
Q

what is the manual DVT test

A

homas sign

94
Q

who gets an IVC filter for a DVT

A

those who can’t be on anti coag

95
Q

venious insufficency ulcer

A

medial

96
Q

how do you tell if the orthostatic HTN is due to hypovolemia

A

> 15 BPM

97
Q

two things that dertermine shock

A

decreased CO

decreased SVR

98
Q

4 types of shock

A
  1. hypovolemic: reduced blood volume
  2. cardiogenic: reduced cardiac output
  3. obstructive: Obstruction to circulation
  4. disributive: maldistribution of blood flow
99
Q

what are the two worst symptoms of hypovolemic shock

A
  • letheray

- low urine

100
Q

how do you know it’s cardiogenic shock

A

inc PCWP

101
Q

how do you tx cardiogenic shock because you can’t give fluids

A

-ionotropes

102
Q

what is the only shock with an increase in CO

A

early septic

103
Q

what is the only shock with warm extremities

A

early septic

104
Q

4 qualifications of SIRS

A
  • temp
  • pulse
  • respiratory rate
  • WBC
105
Q

how do you manage distributive shock due to adisons

A

hydrocortisone IV

106
Q

how do you manage distributive shock due to anaphyalaxix

A

epi

PANCE PREP (27 decks)

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