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Bacteriology II > Persistent Viruses (Exam 5) > Flashcards

Persistent Viruses (Exam 5) Flashcards

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1
Q

Persistent infections occur and last for long periods when the primary infection is not cleared by:

A

adaptive immune response

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2
Q

Persistent infection bypasses _________ immunity and then ________ response cannot clear the virus.

A

innate
adaptive

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3
Q

List 3 types of persistent infections.

A
  1. latent infection
  2. chronic infection
  3. slow infection
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4
Q

Match the type of persistent infection with the description:

  1. life-long, long incubation period with rapid progression of clinical disease
  2. initial infection and virus released from host; serve as persistent carriers
  3. life-long maintenance of viral genome with periods of non-productive state and reactivation.
A
  1. slow infection
  2. chronic infection
  3. latent infection
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5
Q

Which two persistent infections discussed occur due to a virus within Family Retroviridae & Genus Lentivirus?

A

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)
Equine Infectious Anemia Virus (EIAV)

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6
Q

(T/F) Lentiviruses are oncogenic.

A

False! (non-oncogenic)

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7
Q

Lentiviruses are (enveloped/nonenveloped) (negative/positive) sense (ss/ds) (DNA/RNA) viruses.

A

enveloped (+) ssRNA

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8
Q

Lentiviruses use __________ where a provirus is inserted into the host genome.

A

reverse transcriptase

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9
Q

Lentiviruses undergo antigenic (shift/drift) where mutations accumulate and affect antibody recognition.

A

drift

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10
Q

Lentiviruses cause persistent, lifelong infection of ________ (cell type).

A

phagocytes (monocytes, macrophages, DCs, microglia)

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11
Q

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus infects and kills _______ cells.

A

CD4+ T cells

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12
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity do lentiviruses cause?

A

Type III (immune complexes)

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13
Q

How are lentiviruses in general transmitted?

A

body fluid (blood, milk)

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14
Q

What is the official test for diagnosis of Lentiviruses?

A

Agar Gel Immunodiffusion test (AGID)

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15
Q

Once a Lentivirus infects phagocytes and the provirus is inserted, latency occurs in precursors cells such as _________ and _______.

A

monocytes
lymphocytes

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16
Q

List 3 common sequelae / lesions from Lentivirus infection.

A
  1. chronic granulomatous inflammation
  2. macrophage/lymphocyte lysis
  3. immunosuppresion
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17
Q

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV) has ______ protein properties which determine cell tropism.

A

Env

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18
Q

Mutations of Env protein can lead to new FIV ________ which can impede vaccine development.

A

subtypes (variants)

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19
Q

There are currently ___ subtypes of FIV.

A

6 (A-F)

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20
Q

(T/F) ALL cats can become infected with FIV.

A

True (more common in free-roaming males)

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21
Q

List 3 possible routes of FIV transmission.

A
  1. bite wounds (contaminated blood/saliva)
  2. transplacental (milk)
  3. venereal (possible)
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22
Q

What is the primary tropism for FIV?

A

CD4+ T cells

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23
Q

Due to FIV’s tropism for CD4+ T cells, this leads to a progressive _______ deficiency.

A

immune

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24
Q

While there is a large antibody response to FIV, infected cats need ________ immunity to suppress viremia, so this is the limiting factor.

A

cell-mediated

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25
List the 3 phases of Clinical Disease of FIV.
1. short acute phase 2. prolonged asymptomatic phase 3. terminal phase (Feline Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome)
26
(T/F) F-AIDS is ultimately fatal and presents with non-specific signs.
True
27
List 4 possible non-specific signs of F-AIDS during the terminal phase of FIV.
1. recurrent rhinitis / sinusitis 2. progressive weight loss 3. diarrhea 4. recurring fever
28
In addition to the non-specific signs of FIV, what 3 disease types can develop?
1. Neoplasia 2. Ocular disease 3. Neurologic syndromes
29
What in-office test is seen as the "gold standard" for FIV diagnosis?
Western-Blot
30
FIV in-office diagnostic tests detect (antigen/antibody) to _____ capsid protein & _____ envelope protein.
antibody p24 gp41
31
(T/F) PCR is a common diagnostic method for FIV.
False (too much antigenic variation)
32
There are NO _______ vaccines for FIV prevention and the _______ vaccine is NOT recommended.
MLV killed
33
Which horse Lentivirus is a reportable disease in Missouri?
Equine Infectious Anemia Virus
34
(T/F) Equine Infectious Anemia Virus causes immunodeficiency in horses.
False (DOES NOT attack immune system)
35
All equidae are affected by Equine Infectious Anemia Virus. _________ are resistant to clinical disease but can transmit it to horses. _________ develop a similar disease to horses.
donkeys mules
36
What is the main pathogenic mechanism for EIAV?
intravascular hemolysis
37
Equine Infectious Anemia Virus inserts a provirus in ________, causing a permanent infection.
macrophages
38
(T/F) Antigenic shift is common in EIAV.
False (antigenic drift)
39
EIAV replicates in macrophages. From there, two outcomes are possible:
1. provirus inserted --> permanent infection 2. macrophage lysis --> viremia
40
When EIAV causes viremia, _______ cells via cell-mediated response can clear the virus OR ________ generation occurs leading to Type ____ & ___ Hypersensitivities.
cytotoxic T cells antibody II & III
41
When EIAV generates antibody production leading to Type II & III Hypersensitivities, this causes 3 clinical signs:
1. fever 2. anemia 3. thrombocytopenia
42
Equine Infectious Anemia Virus is transmitted by contaminated ________.
blood
43
(T/F) EIAV can be transmitted by mechanical vectors (tabanids) so it is considered an arbovirus.
False (different from arbovirus)
44
In addition to contaminated blood transmission, EIAV can be transmitted ________ or _______.
vertically iatrogenically
45
List the 3 forms of Equine Infectious Anemia.
1. acute 2. chronic 3. inapparent carrier
46
Acute Equine Infectious Anemia can relapse, causing ________ infection.
chronic
47
Acute EIA leads to ________ in 2-3 weeks.
death
48
If horses with chronic EIA survive, they become:
inapparent carriers
49
The majority of horses infected with EIA develop which form?
inapparent carrier (NO signs of disease)
50
List 3 methods of EIA diagnosis.
1. serology 2. AGID 3. RT-PCR
51
What is the main EIA AGID diagnostic test used considered the official test for USDA & OI?
Coggins Test
52
(T/F) EIA vaccine is a core vaccine for horses.
False (NO vaccine available)
53
(T/F) EIAV positive horses are usually euthanized.
True
54
List the 2 small ruminant lentiviruses that affect sheep or goats.
Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus (CAEV) Ovine Progressive Pneumonia Virus
55
Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus is a(n) (oncogenic/non-oncogenic) lentivirus.
non-oncogenic
56
List 2 modes of transmission of CAEV in kids. Which is primary mode?
1. ingestion (colostrum) *primary 2. vertical (direct contact w/ blood/secretions)
57
Older goats become infected with CAEV horizontally via:
direct contact (fecal-oral)
58
After ingestion, CAEV infects and replicates in _______, NOT ______.
monocytes/macrophages lymphocytes
59
(T/F) Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus causes immunodeficiency.
False
60
CAEV is a __________ disease causing Type ___ Hypersensitivity.
lymphoproliferative III
61
List the 3 clinical signs that occur in adults with CAEV.
1. arthritis 2. interstitial pneumonia 3. indurate mastitis ("hard bag")
62
What clinical sign is seen in kids with CAEV?
leukoencephalomyelitis
63
List 3 ways to diagnose CAEV.
AGID histopath PCR
64
(T/F) There is NO vaccine available for CAEV.
True
65
Which virus is a "slow" lentivirus in sheep?
Ovine Progressive Pneumonia Virus
66
Ovine Progressive Pneumonia Virus is also called _______ ______ virus. ______ means "wasting/shrinking" in the brain while ______ means dyspnea in the lungs.
Visna/Maedi visna maedi
67
List 3 ways OPPV is transmitted and which is the primary route.
1. inhalation 2. ingestion (colostrum) *primary 3. vertical (in-utero)
68
OPPV chronically infect ________, causing lymphoproliferation but NO immunosuppression.
monocytes/macrophages
69
Match the 4 clinical signs/syndromes that occur with Ovine Progressive Pneumonia Virus with its descriptions: 1. listlessness, poor BC, emaciation 2. emaciation --> dyspnea 3. hindlimb weakness --> paralysis 4. enlarged, firm udder
1. Thin Ewe Syndrome 2. Maedi 3. Visna 4. Hard Bag
70
AGID serologic test can be used to detect OPPV by detecting ______ viral protein.
gp135
71
(T/F) There are NO treatments and NO vaccines available for Ovine Progressive Pneumonia Virus.
True
72
Which virus is endemic in standardbred horses and within the Arterivirus genus?
Equine Viral Arteritis Virus
73
Equine Viral Arteritis Virus is (zoonotic/non-zoonotic) and (reportable/non-reportable) in Missouri.
non-zoonotic reportable
74
Equine Viral Arteritis Virus is a (ss/ds) (+/-) sense (DNA/RNA) virus.
ss (+) sense RNA virus
75
Equine Viral Arteritis Virus infects _________, causing a persistent, often asymptomatic infection.
macrophages
76
Equine Viral Arteritis can be transmitted in 3 ways. List them. Which is most frequent?
1. venereal (semen) 2. respiratory *most frequent 3. congenital
77
Most commonly, healthy adult horses infected with Equine Viral Arteritis Virus develop _______ or ______ Respiratory Disease.
inapparent or mild
78
What is the most important clinical sign of Equine Arteritis Virus?
abortion
79
If foals become infected congenitally with Equine Arteritis Virus, they develop:
interstitial pneumonia
80
(T/F) Stallions do not shed Equine Viral Arteritis Virus.
False (persistent carriers)
81
The main lesion seen with Equine Arteritis Virus is infection of endothelial cells --> vasculitis causing:
edema (subcutaneous, eyelids, scrotal)
82
What is the official OIE diagnostic test for Equine Arteritis Virus?
viral isolation (in semen)
83
Control of Equine Arteritis Virus is centered around:
carrier stallions
84

Bacteriology II (22 decks)

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