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PPQ10 Flashcards

1
Q

which diagnosis is wrong for UMN

A

hyporeflexia

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2
Q

which instrumental additional test is best for diagnosing fibrocartilage embolism

A

MRI

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3
Q

which cannot be a symptom of transverse myelopathy

A

partiality; limping; lameness

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4
Q

what is best for anti-epilepsy

A

Phenobarbital (though may cause hepatotoxicity or non-regenerative anaemia);
Imepitoin

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5
Q

what is not true for degenerative myelopathy

A

nutrition base

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6
Q

difference between aujeszky’s and rabies

A

paraesthesia is more common in aujeszky’s; offensive behaviour in rabies

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7
Q

which symptom is not common for acute abdomen

A

DIC

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8
Q

in what lesion can liqor cytology help

A

meningitis

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9
Q

which statement is true

A

botulism is caused by clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis

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10
Q

brain tissue damage in order of severity

A

commotio cerebri> contusion cerebri> lacerta vitidis

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11
Q

what does DAMNIT-V schematic stand for

A

For constructing a list of differential diagnoses based on anatomical and
pathophysiological features of a disease

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12
Q

where could we take a bone marrow sample

A

hip; humerus; wing of ileum

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13
Q

Why is multifilament suture material not recommended by the surgeries on the GI
organs?

A

high risk of septic consequences because of the drainage

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14
Q

which is the final step in small intestine anastomosis surgery

A

omentalisation (also used for prostatic/paraprostatic cyst)

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15
Q

which drug can be used to stop seizures

A

diazepam; propofol

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16
Q

which statement is false

A

In case of UMN dysfunction, the clinical findings are: Hyporeflexia; Muscle hypotonia;
Abnormal reflexes

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17
Q

which statements are true

A

The UMN cell bodies are located in the cerebellum & brainstem; The UMN could
stimulate or inhibit the lower motor neuron; In case of UMN dysfunction, the clinical
findings are: Hyperreflexia; Muscle hypertonia; Abnormal reflexes

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18
Q

incubation period of rabies

A

usually 2-3 months but can be shorter/longer depending on which body part is affected

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19
Q

which is not the function of LMN

A

control of voluntary movement

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20
Q

which are functions of the LMN

A

maintenance of muscle tone and support against gravity; initiation of voluntary movement; regulation of posture

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21
Q

congenital hydrocephalus in dogs. which statement is true

A

hydrocephalus is common in young big sized breeds under the age of 1 year

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22
Q

which disease is acute

A

type-1 discopathy

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23
Q

what disease is chronic

A

type- II discopathy; lumbo-sacral instability; tumour

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24
Q

what is the most characteristic localisation of vertebral body tumours

A

the middle third of the vertebral body

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25
regarding brain lesions, which part of the brain can be distinguished
forebrain; brainstem; cerebellum
26
which statement is correct for clinical sings of oesophageal disease in general
appetite can be decreased or increased
27
which breed is not predisposed for primary Cu accumulation
german shepherd
28
which is the first drug of choice in treatment of primary Cu accumulation
D- penicillamine
29
in case of intestinal obstruction
profuse bloody diarrhoea is the most characteristic symptom
30
chronic inflammatory enteropathy (CIE)
can result in protein-losing enteropathy
31
in which case of the following does megaoesophagus not occur
cushing's disease
32
granulomatous colitis is caused by
adherent invasive E. coli AIEC
33
not suggested medication for IBD
azathioprine for cats
34
suggested medications for IBD
Prednisolone; Cyclosporine; Budesonide
35
which hepatic division posses the gall bladder
central division
36
which of the following procedures has a modification called Roux-en-Y technique
Cholecystoduodenostomy
37
which anal zone involves Circumanal hepatoid glands
zona intermedia
38
which suture technique is recommended for the closure of colon in cats
single or double layer simple or interrupted or continuous
39
in case of anaemic condition, which cell increase is indicating the regenerative property of the disease?
reticulocytes
40
which of the following non-regenerative diseases has the best prognosis
addisons disease
41
which platelet number can we expect bleeding because of thrombocytopenia
<50 g/l
42
which statement is true
In case of acute bleeding, microcytic hypochromic anaemia can develop withing a few hours
43
which statement is true
in case of acute bleeding, the microcytic hypochromic anaemia occurs in a few hours
44
which cannot secondary immunohemolytic anaemia
microsporum
45
deviations in thrombocytopenia
Petechia; Epistaxis; Bleeding time increases; Thrombocytes decrease
46
lyssencephalon
is the congenital underdevelopment of the cerebral cortex groove
47
which statement can be true
in case of haemolytic anaemia, the blood plasma can be clear
48
which is not common with acute gastric catastrophe
vomiting
49
where are vertebral body tumours most common
on the end plates
50
which one if the following is true in case of tubular proteinuria
small-sized proteins appear in the urine
51
IRIS stage 1 chronic renal failure is associated with
decreased specific gravity of urine
52
abnormalities that are typical for chronic renal disease, which answer is wrong
hypophostataemia
53
which statement is incorrect? the progression of renal disease is caused by
isothenuria
54
it prolongs the survival of dogs & cats with chronic kidney disease
urinary diet
55
which of the following is indicated in the case of unilateral hydronephrosis
nephrectomy
56
in case of elevated blood creatinine concentration
the animal has azotaemia
57
Which of the following findings indicates the diagnosis of the urinary bladder rupture?
if the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography
58
postrenal azotaemia.. which answer is wrong
may be due to severe dehydration
59
postrenal azotaemia.. which answer is correct
May be due to urethral obstruction; May cause kidney damage without treatment; May be due to ureter rupture
60
which of the following is not typical in case of acute kidney injury
cachexia
61
which of the following is typical in case of acute kidney injury
vomitus; metabolic acidosis; uraemic ulcers
62
Which of the following protocols are to followed in case of acute obstruction form of feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD)?
stabilisation and urethral catherisation
63
which are typical of babesiosis
icterus; vomitus; AKI
64
which arent typical of babesiosis
myoglobinuria
65
Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral obturation in a male dog?
urethral hydroprulsion
66
which circumstances may cause nephrosis/acute kidney injury
Hypotension; Dehydration; Overhydration with crystalloids; Antibiotics; Chemotherapy
67
oliguria definition in dogs
urine output is <6-10ml/bwkg/day
68
which is the least important to establish the diagnosis of the kidney disease
measurement of blood phosphorus, calcium and potassium
69
which is most important to establish diagnosis of kidney disease
Blood urea/creatinine; Urine sediment & USG; Proteinuria detection
70
which of the following uroliths appears in case of thylene glycol toxicosis
calcium-oxalate monohydrate
71
symptoms of lower urinary tract disease in small animals
Haematuria; Pollakiuria; Stranguria; Dysuria; Periuria; Incontinence
72
the most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis treatment in dogs
diet; abx; urine acidification
73
acute causes of nephrosis
Renal ischaemia; Nephrotoxic materials; Haemoglobin; Myoglobin
74
renal cysts
are mainly incidental findings
75
most common cause of struvite urolithiasis in dogs
chronic bacterial UTI
76
which therapies are recommended for treatment of dehydration in CKD`
Administration of IV fluids; Administration of SC infusion; Increase water consumption
77
renal amyloidosis is usually found in
abyssinian cats
78
what us true about renal glycosuria
Plasma glucose levels are normal; Can have genetic causes; May be a part of Fanconi syndrome
79
how would you treat a cat with interstitial cystitis
Increase water; Facial pheromones; Environmental enrichment (not urine acidification)
80
creatinine level of dogs & cats with IRIS stage 1 CKD is
normal <130 umol/L
81
which statement is true for animals with renal dysplasia
common symptoms are PU/PD
82
Which therapeutic measure decreases blood potassium during the treatment of hyperkalaemia?
Potassium-free infusion & furosemide; Glucose-containing infusion; Rapid-acting insulin applications
83
what is the main and initiating cause of the calcium-phosphorus imbalance in CKF
retention of phosphorus
84
In dogs, which type of urolithiasis can be affected by housing conditions, lifestyle & body condition?
calcium oxalate
85
What is true for polycystic kidney disease
Often asymptomatic; Renal abscesses may develop in case of bacterial infection of the cyst; US examination is required for diagnosis (surgery is not often necessary)
86
the most effective gastric protectant for dogs with CKD
pantoprazole
87
which urinary stone cannot be dissolved medically
calcium oxalate
88
it typically causes acute & chronic kidney disease- preexisting chronic disease +
haemodynamic disturbances
89
Which one of the following uroliths appears usually in cases of dogs with bacterial cystitis?
struvite
90
possible causes of hydronephrosis
Granuloma formation following neutralisation; Ascending infection; Transitional cell carcinoma in the bladder
91
Until what level is it recommended to increase the Ht with erythropoietin/darbepoetin therapy in chronic kidney disease?
until the Ht is around 30%
92
renal amyloidosis is typically found in which dog breed
shar-pei
93
oliguria in the dog- aetiology
inadequate water intake; Dehydration; Acute nephrosis
94
Hypercholesterolaemia is typically associated with the following kidney disease
glomerulopathies of dogs
95
renal amyloidosis is not typically caused by
chronic liver diease
96
what statement is true about immune-complex glomerulonephritis
an important element of therapy is broad spectrum abx therapy
97
which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureters
the urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes
98
what is the advantage of scrotal urethrostomy
easily dissectible urethra, larger section, wide and safe stroma
99
which treatment does not affect the PTH-level in chronic renal cases
ACE-inhibitor therapy
100
in case of renal traumatic bleeding
retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination

SAM (11 decks)

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