Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

SAM > PPQ11 > Flashcards

PPQ11 Flashcards

1
Q

which statement is incorrect regarding prostate ultrasonography

A

it can differentiate cysts from abscess urolithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

probable diagnosis for a cat with enlarged kidneys

A

PKD; hydronephrosis; lymphoma of the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which is the most important test for diagnosing glomerulopathies

A

detection of severe proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

not a typical lab alteration in CKD

A

metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is your diagnosis if glucosuria appears in case of euglycemia

A

addisons disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the most common LUTD of cats

A

Idiopathic cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

causes of glomerular diseases in small animals

A

Adhesions of immune complexes to the basement membrane; Ischaemia; Nephrotoxic
materials; Amyloidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

causes of anaemic in CKD patients

A

Lack of erythropoietin; GI bleeds/ulcers; Decreased survival of RBCs (not haemolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which statement is true for pyelonephritis

A

we can get a sample for diagnostic tests by aspirating the renal pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

subclinical bacteriuria

A

is asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

causes of acute interstitial nephritis in small animals

A

E. coli/proteus; Antifreeze; Ureter stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

true for polycystic kidney disease

A

painful kidneys; haematuria; inherited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

urohydropropulsion

A

may be suitable for removing small stones from the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

fanconi syndrome is not characterised by

A

central diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

recommended for cystotomy wound closure

A 
Double layer continuous Lembert; Single layer seromuscular continuous; Double layer
interrupted Lembert (Not penetrating)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IRIS classification of CKD

A

4 stages determined by serum creatinine levels; Substaged based on presence of
proteinuria and degree of hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when should you think of leptospirosis in a dog

A

elevated liver enzymes & creatinine values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

antidote of ethylene glycol toxicosis

A

ethyl alcohol; fomepizole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

not typical of IRIS stage 1 CKD

A

acute blindness due to hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

renal amyloidosis is not typically caused by

A

chronic liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which statement is correct about glomerulopathies

A

50% of glomerul0pathies are immune complex origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

most likely diagnosis in cats in case of haematuria

A

FIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

to determine the urine concentrating capacity, we use

A

USG with refractometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

monitoring BP is especially important in

A

kidney diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is the cause of urine urolithiasis
hyperuricosuria; PSS; chronic liver disease
26
you can diagnose pyelonephritis by
Histological exam of a renal biopsy; Visualising pelvis dilation with imaging methods and performing urine cultures; Microbiological examination of a renal pelvis puncture
27
persistent perineal proteinuria
bence-jones proteins are typical examples for it
28
the second most common lower urinary tract disease of dogs
urolithiasis
29
CKD treatment includes
Renal diet; Phosphate binders; Erythropoietic injection; Potassium supplement; PO diuretics
30
in case of subclinical bacteriuria
Usually, a predisposing factor for UTI is present; The urine sediment can be active; Microbiological examination of urine is positive
31
which mean urination not at the proper place
periuria
32
what type of proteins are detected with sulfosalicyclic acid test
albumin; globulin
33
recommended concomitant wiht erythropoietin/darbepoetin
iron & B12
34
can be accompanied by crystalluria in cats
idiopathic cystitis; urolithiasis; bacterial cystitis
35
what are contributing factors concerning UTI
incontinence; corticosteroid therapy; FIC
36
indications for dialysis treatment
Anuric acute kidney injury; Chronic renal failure; Renal fibrosis; Removal of toxins in case of acute toxicosis
37
When is it recommended to start erythropoietin/darbepoetin therapy in chronic kidney disease?
then the haematocrit level drops to 18-20%
38
treatment for pyelonephritis
Puncture & flushing of the renal pelvis; Systemic Abx; Fluid therapy
39
which procedures are recommended for surgical resolution of prostatic cysts
marsupialisation; omentalisation; drainage
40
feline interstitial cystitis (FIC)
Abx are useless; Affected cats are mostly fed dry food; Affected cats are mostly neutered animals
41
what is true about the progression of CKD
hypertension and proteinuria can increase hyperfiltration of nephrons
42
ectopic ureters
are usually causing constant urine dripping; Can be diagnosed with x-ray or CT or cystoscopy
43
what are the target organs that are damaged by hypertension
brain; kidney; eye; heart
44
define polydipsia in SAM
Dog: Water intake >80-100ml/bwkg/day; Cat: Water intake >50ml/bwkg/day
45
symptom of renal tubular acidosis
metabolic acidosis
46
most likely diagnosis in dogs with haematuria
bacterial cystitis
47
high-dose maintenance fluid therapy for acute injury
may cause interstitial oedema in the kidneys, that decreases the GFR & renal blood flow
48
renal proteinuria can be decreased by
Renal diet; Antihypertensives; ACE-inhibitors
49
abx that are excreted from the urine- good for UTI treatment
Amoxicillin; Cephalosporins; Trimethoprim-sulphonamide (not rifampicin though)
50
what is most informative for diagnosing ectopic ureters
cystoscopy
51
what is V-Y plasty
tension relieving plastic procedure
52
which statement is correct
hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in cats
53
which of the following has got the widest indication area
reconstructive therapy
54
what is pathognomic of cushing's syndrome
calcinosis cutis
55
3 most common causes of PU/PD in cats
CKD; DM; hyperthyroidism
56
what may cause hyperglycaemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin
insulin resistance
57
what is the target blood glucose level in the diabetic patient at max. effect of insulin
4-9 mmol/l
58
what may cause hypoglyceamia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin
GC; progestogen tx; DI; bitch spay
59
which is not a possible consequence of obesity
hypokalaemia
60
addisons disease in dogs. diagnosis
Na/K < 27; Cl decrease; ACTH-stim. Test
61
causes of insulin resistance
progesterone; hypercortisolism; hypersomatotropism
62
which is the most effect in feline otitis media
ventral bulla osteotomy
63
causes of acromegaly
dog: progesterone treatment cat: pituitary tumour
64
clinical features of congenital hyposomatotropism
german shepherd; proportionate dwarfism; alopecia
65
hypothyroidism in dogs symptoms
Activity decrease; Weight gain; Alopecia; Thick skin; Bradycardia; Decreased fertility
66
hyperthroidism of cats- therapeutic options
Thyroidectomy; Radiotherapy; Methimazole; Low iodine diet
67
which endocrine disorder is there no PU/PD
hyperthyroidism; alopecia-x
68
hyperthyroidism of cats
Thyroid adenoma/hyperplasia; Polyphagia; Weight loss; Myocardial hypertrophy
69
diabetes insipidus. which is correct
The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin
70
Which factor plays a crucial role in the preoperative determination of surgical prognosis of adrenalectomy?
tumorous involvement of the caudal vena cava
71
which breed is not predisposed to obesity
borzoi
72
addison's disease in dogs causes & pathogensis
primary disease is due to autoimmune inflammation of the adrenals
73
which statement is true for diabetes insipidus
partial/complete ADH deficiency
74
which breed is predisposed for addisons disease
poodle
75
which breed is predisposed for cushings
dachshund
76
hypoadrenocorticism of dogs-clinical manifestations
Dehydration; K increase; Ca decrease; Weakness; Tremor; Shock
77
hypothyroidism of dogs
Thyroxine decrease; TSH increase; Free thyroxine decrease; TGAA; ACTH-stim
78
which of the following is false following neutering
appetite
79
which of the following is the classic indication of adrenaloctomy
Unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma caused by peripheral cushin’s disease
80
which disease does not cause osmotic diuresis
pyometra
81
which statement is correct
thyroid adenocarcinoma without hormone alteration is common in dogs
82
which of the following techniques is the most tension relieving one
tubed/stent suture
83
the most important nutitive vessel of the ventral abdominal skin is
cranial superficial epigastric artery and vein
84
hypoadrenocorticism of dogs- therapy
Crisis: 0.9% saline & hydrocortisone; Later: Fludrocortisone, DOCP, prednisolone, salt

SAM (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions