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PPQ7 Flashcards

1
Q

which statement is correct regarding anaesthetic aspects of hyperadrenocorticism

A

Limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation necessary in the
maintenance phase of anaesthesia

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2
Q

which is correct regarding inhalant anaesthetics

A

most inhalant anaesthetics are liquid at room temperature

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3
Q

where are the scrotal incisions made for castration

A

parallel with raphe scroti, 1cm from the midline; 2 incisions

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4
Q

which belong to the core vaccines in dogs

A

Leptospira; Parvoviral enteritis; Distemper; Rubarth disease; Rabies; Canine hepatitis

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5
Q

which muscles can be used for IM drug application

A

M. semitendinosus/ semimembranosus

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6
Q

to perform a complete blood count exam, you need

A

EDTA blood sampling tube

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7
Q

in case of hypovolaemia, the first choice infusion is

A

lactated ringer solution

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8
Q

in case of epistaxis

A

as soon as possible haemostatis and coagulation profile test are required

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9
Q

point of maintenance infusion therapy is to

A

treat dehydration

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10
Q

characteristics of feline herpes viral rhinitis

A

bilateral mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge

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11
Q

the concept of moist wound therapy does not inclue

A

a wet to dry dressing

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12
Q

primary assessment of the circulation, which is incorrect

A

perform, ECG and heart US

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13
Q

what does ‘3-metric’ mean on a suture material pack

A

0.3mm in diameter

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14
Q

characteristic of canine bronchitis

A

crackles and wheezes auscultation

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15
Q

what is the golden period in treatment of fresh traumatic wounds

A

6-8 hours from injury

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16
Q

during the early

healing phase, what are the most essential WBC’s in the wound

A

Monocytes

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17
Q

what characterises the proliferative phase of wound healing

A

angiogenesis

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18
Q

granulation tissue is especially sensitive to

A

desiccation

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19
Q

primary wound closure should be avoided in

A

gunshot wound and bite wounds

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20
Q

delayed primary closure

A

is usually performed 2-5 days after injury

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21
Q

which statement is false

A

wounds are rinsed with large volumes of hydrogen peroxide

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22
Q

preferred method of debridement in a lacerated wound is

A

surgical

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23
Q

in case of wound infection presumable caused by multi resistance organism

A

the patient should be treated in isolation wearing protective clothing

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24
Q

first aid key points

A

Haemostasis and prevention of further contamination

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25
the basic concept of moist wound treatment is
based on the idea of preserving wound exudate in contact with the wound surface
26
which is false
a good bandage reduced blood flow to the wound
27
which contact layer is most suitable for heavily exudating wounds
calcium alginate
28
Used as a topical wound medication, the mechanism of action is based on hyperosmolarity
sugar and honey
29
surgical site infection
often results in wound breakdown and dehiscence (rupture)
30
a layer of the Robert-jones bandage
secondary absorbent layer- cotton wool
31
not a risk factor for a wound infection
obesity
32
which statement is correct
sugar wound therapy enhances granulation
33
psedumonas spp. grows from a sample from the surface of a wound with healthy granulation tissue. this is most likely due to
contamination
34
what is the most dangerous complication of bandaging
distal limb oedema
35
what does not require emergency care
Tracheal hypoplasia; Heartworm disease; Gastric ulcer; Hydrocephalus; Cystitis; Patellar luxation; Subcutaneous/skin autoimmune disease
36
which statement is false
all critical care patients require intensive wound care
37
which statement is false
primary survey is used to determine all organic disorders
38
which statements is false
ECG & echocardiograms are primary assessments of the circulation
39
when can you see the foetal skeleton on the x-ray
after the 45th day
40
when can HD (hip dysplasia) be seen on the x-ray
after 6 months
41
If you see decreased radiopacity of the femoral head & neck on an x-ray of a spitz, what do you suspect?
perthes disease
42
how early do you x-ray a dog with ileus once fed with contrast medium
12 hours
43
what is the principle of ALARA
to keep the radiation As Low As Reasonable Achievable
44
when can an osteophyte be detected
after 3 weeks
45
which part of the carpus is the most affected in OCD
cartilage
46
hansen I can also be described as
An extrusion; Typical in chondrodystrophic breeds, calcification of the nucleus pulposis, anulus fibrosis rupture and rapid deterioration
47
statement of bone tumour; age and type
5-6 years: Middle/large breeds; Fibrosarcoma, malignant melanoma, squamous cell carcinoma
48
predisposed for Perthe's disease
Young, small toy breeds
49
Bilateral forelimb periosteal reaction, what should be x-rayed next
thoracic cavity; lung for metastasis
50
what bone disease leads to fracture
renal osteodystrophy
51
what can be seen on x-ray in case of intestinal linear foreign body
intestines appear pleated
52
hansen type II
Large breeds; Aged > 8 years; Nuleus pulposis fibrinisation; Annulus fibrosus intact; Protrusion; Chronic process
53
fusion time of anconeous process
4-5 months
54
security around x-rays
Radiation of vet > Radiation of patient; People are not allowed to restrain the animal; ALARA; Immobilise by sedation; Lead apron; Thyroid gland protection; Lead gloves; Rotate restrainer; Distance; Personal monitoring device
55
tissue radiodensity in order
Metal/stone (Radiopaque) > Bone > Fluid/soft tissue > Fat > Gas (Radiolucent)
56
position of malignant bone tumours
stifle near; elbow far
57
which beam emits the most UV radiation
UV beams
58
common disease in Westie
craniomandibular osteopathy
59
developmental disease of the spine in small animals
Spina bifida; Block vertebrae; Hemivertebrae; Transient vertebrae
60
which contrast media would you choose for urinary tract
hyperosmotic; ionic iodine
61
where do we do the epidural injection
sacro-coccygeal junction; C1-C2
62
tracheal collapse of the cervical trachea is seen during
inspiration
63
tracheal collapse of the thoracic trachea is seen during
expiration
64
what does kV mean
kilovolt- unit of electrical potential
65
what does mAs mean
miliampere- unit used for electric current
66
what types of x-ray generators are used today
Single-phase with low capacity; 3-phase which needs 3 phase electric current; High frequency, largest and most stable capacity
67
which disorder is mostly diagnosed on a plain abdominal radiography
intestinal obstruction
68
which statement is not true? in a healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen
on the left in DV view
69
which statement is true? in a healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen
Ventrally in left lateral recumbency; Ventrally in the right lateral recumbency; On the right in VD view
70
which statement is false
If there is no dangerous amount of fluid in the oral cavity, remove the tube with the cuff inflated
71
which statement is false
Stadium analgesiae – Max. pupil dilation; Ø Corneal tension
72
which statement is false
Acepromazine should have a higher does because lower doses notably elongate the duration of action
73
which statement is false
propofol general dose: 0.5 ml/bwkg IV
74
which statement is true
propofol general dose: 5mg/bwkg IV
75
which statement is false
mixing system of the anaesthetic- absorbed canister with soda lime
76
which statement is false
parameters of ventilation- inhalation: exhalation time ratio = 1:2-8:1
77
which is true
parameters of ventilation- inhalation: exhalation time ratio = 1:2- 1:3
78
which is false
capnometry- paCO2
79
which statement is false
pain sensation is not influenced by fear and stress
80
which statement is false
pain management is not very important in young animals, but it is in adults
81
which statement is false
preoperative analgesics- phenothiazine but butyrophenone derivatives
82
which statement is false
antagonists- propofol: dantrolene
83
which statement is false
Physical characteristics of young patients – BBB is less permeable, so puppies until 4 weeks of age require higher doses
84
which statement is false
old patients have increased vital capacity, respiratory frequency & compliance
85
which statement is false
opioids cannot be administered intraoperatively
86
which statement is false
epidural anaesthesia- 10% lidocaine is most frequently used
87
which statement is true
epidural anaesthesia- 2% lidocaine is most frequently used
88
which statement is false
most postoperative complications can be manifested using balance anaesthesia (PIVA)
89
which statement is true
greyhounds should not be given thiopental
90
which statement is true
boxers should not be given phenothiazines
91
which statement is true
large breeds & individuals are sensitive to hypoxia
92
which statement is true
premedication- ACP + butorphanol
93
which statement is true
premedication- medetomidine + butorphanol
94
which statements is true
premedication- midazolam + butorphanol
95
which statement is true
premedication- medetomidine + butorphanol + butorphanol??
96
which statement is true
premedication- diazepam + butorphanol
97
which statements is true
premedication- fentanyl
98
which statement is true
Pre-operative antibiotics are indicated in orthopaedic surgery – 30 mins prior and a second dose lasting for 3 hours
99
when should antibiotics be used
f surgery >90 mins; Implantation; Infection; Orthopaedics; Oesophageal; Dirty surgery – Faecal/urine contamination
100
which drugs are contraindicated in liver patients
Ketamine; Diazepam; Methoxyflurane; Halothane – Fentanyl is recommended

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