PPQ9 Flashcards

1
Q

which statement is true regarding feline heart worm disease

A

cats are occasionally infected

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2
Q

after ECG examination of a spaniel with a 3rd degree AV block

A

Determination of the potassium level; Administer atropine & diltiazem; Long term -
Pacemaker

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3
Q

during an echocardiograph, we can use

A

short axis view; longitudinal view

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4
Q

How can you distinguish between a ventricular extrasystole from a supraventricular
one on the ECG?

A

ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause

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5
Q

How can you distinguish between a ventricular supraventricular arrhythmia on the
ECG?

A

the QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrhythmias

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6
Q

what may play a role in the progression of heart failure

A

Decreased number and function of cardiac acetylcholine receptors (downregulation);
The production of inflammatory mediators & free radicals; Poor blood supply to the
heart muscle despite increased oxygen & energy demands

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7
Q

Which steps are correct after ECG examination of a dog with supraventricular
tachyarrhythmia?

A

Perform a Vagus manoeuvre; Administer diltiazem; Echocardiography; Blood test

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8
Q

the haemodynamic parameters that determine heart rate include

A

Ventricular preload & afterload; Contractility; Distensibility; HR & synchronisation of
contractions

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9
Q

what is needed for a standard echocardiographic examination

A

Phased array transducer; Right lateral recumbency; Using standard planes

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10
Q

The cranial border of the Diernhofer triangle

A

the scapula

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11
Q

How can you determine the left atria-aortic ratio (LA/Ao.) during an
echocardiograph?

A

measure the diameter of the aorta and the LA in the same short axis view

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12
Q

which of the following types of shock is SIRIS rate in

A

Distributive shock

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13
Q

consequences of heart failure

A

pulmonary oedema

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14
Q

Which pulmonary vessels can be altered on the thoracic x-ray during canine heart
worm disease?

A

pulmonary arteries

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15
Q

what lesions are characteristic for radiograph of pneumothorax

A

Elevation of the heart from the sternum; Obvious demarcation of the intrathoracic
organs; Compression of the lung lobes

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16
Q

what changes do you expect to find in case of severe pulmonic stenosis

A

right ventricular

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17
Q

ECG characteristic of atrial fibrillation

A

there are no P-waves; the R-R distance varies

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18
Q

What is the typical finding during the FIP coinciding with fluid accumulation?

A

honey-like, viscous exudate during puncture

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19
Q

What are the three major components of the complex treatment of canine heartworm
disease?

A

Doxycycline, Moxidectin, Melarsomine

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20
Q

the upper border of the dullness during percussion of pleural effusion is

A

horizontal

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21
Q

reducing ventricular afterload during HF

A

is extremely risky

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22
Q

Which diagnostic tool is chosen next in cases of uncertain radiographic findings in
suspected diaphragmatic hernia

A

ultrasonography

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23
Q

the administration of digoxin may be justified to treat

A

atrial fibrillation

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24
Q

which answer is false

A

during surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile

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25
what is the goal of asepsis
to prevent contamination
26
what cannot be the reason of haemopericardium in dogs
thromboembolism
27
what are the characteristics of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
sudden death; long survival; right sided heart dilation
28
what are the consequences of left sided heart failure
pulmonary oedema; pleural fluid accumulation (cats)
29
pacemaker implantation is justified for
the treatment of 3rd degree AV block
30
what cannot be determined by colour Doppler Ultrasound
the character of blood flow (laminar or turbulent)
31
which statement is correct
dogs have pre-formed antibodies to blood group antigen DEA
32
which statement is false about chest tracheal and resection
up to 25% of the trachea can be removed
33
what is the appropriate respiration rate of CPR
10-12/min
34
the concept of wet wound treatment
is based on the retention of wound secretion on the wound surface
35
what drug/suspension can be given IV
ling-acting antibiotic suspension
36
which statement is correct? open-system blood collection
is easy to perform/implement
37
characteristics of foreign body in the nasal cavity
requires glucocorticoid and antibiotic treatment; decreases oedema
38
which statement is correct
There is a valve in the upper opening of the venous cannula, so we cannot take blood from here
39
characteristics of reverse sneezing
usually caused by irritation of the anterior third of the nasal cavity
40
when used in a contact layer, its antibacterial effect is due to its dehydrating properties
silver
41
which muscle can be used for intramuscular drug admin
m. quadriceps femoris (semi-tendinosus/membranosus too)
42
According to Poncet’s BOAS classification system, which clinical condition is decisive for grade III classification?
grade III collapse
43
In the complex therapy of heartworm, the only adulticidal agent accepted by AHS is…
milbemycin oxime
44
The recommended time of the last combined primary vaccine in the primary vaccination series of the pup
12 weeks of age
45
which contact layer is best to cover the wound in exudative phase
hydrogel
46
choose the correct answer
Colloidal infusions contain low molecular weight solute used to treat dehydration at a dose of 20 ml/kg/day
47
The study found that the cat had prolonged skin tuberculosis due to hypovolaemic dehydrated hypovolaemic and dehydrated old age. “In case of hypovolaemic shock, the first choice for starting infusion therapy is”…
HAES infusion
48
at what age is it recommended to start vaccinating dogs
6-8 weeks
49
which is part of the canal cartilage is fixed during | CAL surgery
none
50
prognath bite is normal in
cat; bulldog; boxer; pug
51
if wound infection is suspected
bacterial culture and antibiotic resistance testing should be performed
52
closed system blood collection
for mandatory blood count
53
vena cava syndrome caused by heartworm can be clearly identified
echocardiography
54
cyanotic mucous membranes
gastric dilation & volvulus (GDV); shock
55
recommended treatment in weighty FORL (Feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions)
usually tooth extraction
56
what are the typical CSx of gastric disease
vomitus; haematemesis; anorexia
57
give antibiotic in case of diarrhoea
only in case of sepsis
58
an additional test is recommended for mild acute small bowel diarrhoea
faecal parasitical examination
59
which statement is false? eosinophilic granuloma complex
is only diagnosable by x-ray
60
which is true for gastric disease
stomach ulcers are often caused/exacerbated by NSAID's
61
what sickness causes portal hypertension
Connected to hepatic arterio-venosus fistula (also hepatic venous outflow)/ Arterioportal fistula
62
which statement is true
feline ALP isoenzymes: liver; boene
63
which statement is false? hepatic lipidosis in cats
increased lipoprotein synthesis, therefore decreased triglyceride levels int he liver
64
tonsillectomy should not be an indication
chronic tonsillitis; tonsil tumour
65
this is not true for the perianal adenoma
in males it starts mainly from the perianal sinuses
66
which statement is true
Excessive inflation of the stomach may interfere with gastroscopic examination of the antrum and pylorus
67
an indication for lobectomy may be one of the following
acute extra-hepatobiliary obstruction (EHBO)
68
characteristic of lymphangiecasia
ascites; hydrothorax; weight loss; emaciation
69
not true for EPI
satiety & returning colon origin diarrhoea
70
which BOAS surgery technique could make you soft palate more thin
folded flap palatoplasty
71
which one is false in primary Cu storage disease
cholestasis causes Cu accumulation
72
what is gastropexy
Surgical procedure where the stomach is sutured to the abdominal wall or the diaphragm
73
which is true for oesophageal disease
appetite
74
infiltrating tonsillectomy during anaesthesia
adrenaline
75
how to diagnose deep pain
the patient pulls finger tight; turns head; vocalisation; tries to bite
76
this is not true for acute abdominal 'disasters'
determination of exact organ involvement is necessary for surgical intervention
77
why dont we use multifilament suture material for stomach and gastropexy
risk of septic complication is higher due to bacteria travelling along the fibres
78
in case of congenital cerebrovascular disease, which is true
Ventriculoperitoneal shunt can be used as palliative, symptomatic treatment
79
it is not true for acute domestic diasters
The exact organ involvement needs to be determined for the indication of an ambulatory operation
80
what is the most common region for flexion in a young dog
antlantoaxial joint (C1-C2) causing luxation
81
what is true for hydrocephalus
ventricular system dilation within cranium
82
what is not a non-regenerative anaemia
the regenerative forms are: blood loss and haemolysis
83
which drug can cause bone marrow damage
phenobarbital; imepitoin
84
which one does not cause immune haemolytic anaemia
microsporum
85
which cause immune haemolytic anaemia
Hemangiosarcoma; Babesia; Mycoplasma
86
which is the best surgical technique for Hansen I disc hernaition
hemilaminectomy
87
which blood parameter is good to test in case of anaemia
RBC; PCV
88
Case study: The owner of a 3-year-old Labrador has experienced him having 2 seizures in the last 2 months. Apart from this, no other symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?
idiopathic epilepsy (breed dispostion)
89
what causes cats to be sensitive to pyrethrin
Ca/Mg ATPase inhibitor; In cats, hepatic glucuronidase activity is very low
90
what situation does taking CSF samples help diagnosis
Meningitis; Meningoencephalitis; Bleeding; Inflammatory changes
91
Which of the following diseases with non-regenerative anaemia has the best prognosis?
addison's/ hypothyroidism
92
what is the most common cause for seizures in a young adult dog
primary seizure
93
enterotomy suture
Monofilament with non-absorbable suture material; Simple interrupted/continuous suture pattern in 1 layer
94
Which disease requires an absolute surgical indication/intervention (hemilaminectomy)
Acute Hansen type-I disc prolapse with paraplegia without deep pain perception
95
which one means cervical malformation & misarticulation
Wobbler syndrome
96
The modified Glasgow coma scale appreciated the state of the traumatic brain injury by
motor activity; brainstem reflexes; level of consciousness
97
the modified Glasgow coma scale is based on the following
pupil size; motor activity; state of consciousness
98
what is not true for the acute stomach catastrophe
The precise diagnosis of organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication (you can perform an explorative laparotomy if you don’t know what the main lesion is!)
99
which disease requires surgery
acute hansen-I
100
which of the following statements is not true for splenic hemangiosarcoma
The ruptured nature of the tumour does not significantly impair the prognosis