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PPQ2 Flashcards

1
Q

which of the following is the permanent data of the animal

A

Species; Breed; Sex; Colour; Colour pattern; Nose/muzzle impression; Blood group;
Marks – Whorls, blemishes or defects

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2
Q

what colour is the mucosa in case of hypovolaemic shock

A

dirty red

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3
Q

what to check when you inspect the testes

A

Location; Size; Shape; Structure; Surface; Painfulness; Symmetry; Movability;
Consistency; Cryptorchidism (should descend by 6 months of age → sertoli cell tumour)

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4
Q

LMN lesions signs

A

Diminished or absent reflexes; Decreased or absent tone

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5
Q

physical exam of the kidney

A

Enlarged kidney size is always associated with renal disease in cats; Painful kidney may
indicate acute disease, renal stone, or tumour.

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6
Q

common causes of kidney shrinkage

A

congenital renal dysplasia; end stage kidney disease; chronic pyelonephritis

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7
Q

what can B mode echocardiography show

A

DCM & HCM

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8
Q

what is a pathognomic symptom

A

Specific. Characteristic for a particular disease. Sign whose presence means that the
disease is present without any doubt

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9
Q

instruments needed for neurological exam

A

reflex hammer; penlight; arterial clamp; needle

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10
Q

what is anisocoria

A

unequal pupil size

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11
Q

what can be examined by the inspection of joints

A

skin; angle; swelling; deformities; symmetry

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12
Q

what are the methods of neurological examination

A

X-ray; EEG; CT; MRI; Blood count; Pathogen detection; CSF analysis

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13
Q

type of exam commonly carried out together with an ECG

A

phonocardiography (PCG) (heart sounds)

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14
Q

choose the correct statement

A

CT is an X-ray tube that rotates around the patient to obtain multiple images that are
then replayed to a computer that reconstructs the image

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15
Q

what is an election of the skin with fluid and volume under 1cm without epitheal surrounding

A

vesicle

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16
Q

what is part of status praesens

A

nutritional status; general impression

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17
Q

what is not part of status praesens

A

history

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18
Q

indications of tracheoscopy or bronchoscopy

A

Acute cough in cases of suspected foreign body; Chronic cough if the cause is unknown
or the patient doesn’t respond to therapy; Unexplained abnormal breathing pattern;
Tracheal collapse → Confirmation & staging; Chronic bronchitis → Staging & sample
collection; Stridor; Removal of mucoid obstruction in atelectatic lung lobes; Suspected
narrowing of the airway; Suspected metastatic pulmonary neoplasia; Haemoptoe

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19
Q

signs of conscious pain perception in the dog

A

crying; biting towards the examiner

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20
Q

indications for colonscopy

A

Large bowel diarrhoea; Haematochezia; Blood in faeces; Increased faecal mucous;
Tenesmus; Dyschezia; Palpable rectal masses

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21
Q

where does the basic value belong to

A

status praesens

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22
Q

what could cause a cardiac beat dislocation

A

pneumothorax; hydrothorax; abscess; tumour

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23
Q

what is not transient data

A

type of coat; cropped/docked tail

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24
Q

what is transient data

A

age; body weight; brand marks; tattoos; micro- chips

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25
what are the reduced mental statuses
dementia; stupor; indolentia (freedom from pain); somnolentia (sleepy/drowsy); delerium; coma
26
in dogs LSHF can lead to
dyspnoe; coughing; tachypnoea
27
when is RDW (red cell distribution width) elevated
regenerative anaemia
28
a papule is
small; solid elevation <1cm
29
acoustic impedance
density of product x acoustic velocity
30
in case of hepatopathy, AST is
sometimes increased; not liver specific; only used together with ALT; 'useless' is apparently the correct answer
31
in what condition would you hear a stronger heartbeat
Thin thoracic wall
32
what is ataxia
incoordination of movement
33
what is true about angiodema and urticaria
usually due to vaccination, blood transfusion or bee stings (allergic reaction)
34
how can you categorise the heart sounds by auscultation
FRIDA: frequency; rhythm; intensity; demarcation of heart sounds; adventitious murmur
35
which of the following findings indicate that your patient might have lower urinary tract disease
Pollakiuria; Dysuria; Stranguria; Periuria; Haematuria
36
regarding its origin, a seizure can be
generalised; extracerebral
37
which are most specific symptoms to heart disease/ failure
murmur; arrhythmia' dyspnoea
38
which are not indications for rhinoscopy
salivation; vomitus
39
what are indications for rhinoscopy
Sneezing; Reverse sneezing; Nasal discharge; Epistaxis; Facial swelling/distortion; Suspicion of foreign body
40
which is a directly audible respiratory sound
Tooting/honking sound in tracheal collapse; Snoring sound in case of tracheal obstruction
41
what is not classed as an additional exam
percussion
42
what is classed as an additional exam
Biopsy; cyctocentesis; FNA
43
Basic clinical values
temperature; pulse; respiratory rate (TPR)
44
main characteristics of endoscopy
complementary diagnostic procedure; semi invasive procedure
45
characteristic of normal cardiac dullness during percussion on the left side
dog: Absolute dullness, cat; Relative dullness
46
normal HR of cats in the clinic
140-180bpm
47
normal HR of dogs in the clinic
60-140 bpm
48
the bronchial respiratory sound can be heard under normal conditions
above larynx and below trachea
49
which sentence is false
In dogs, the cough in chronic bronchitis, emphysema is high, intensive, explosive & barking-like
50
which sentences are true
In dogs, the cough originating from the larynx that is retching-gagging like tends to vomit; In dog, tracheitis is loud, explosive & barking like; In dogs, the cough in tracheal collapse is goose-honking-like
51
alopecia is
The loss of hair and may vary from partial to complete; A primary skin lesion in endocrine disorders & follicular dysplasia; A secondary skin lesion to trauma or inflammation; Physiologic in the case of trauma
52
which sentence is not true
the narrowed upper airways cause mostly held expiration
53
which sentences are true
held inspiration can be due to narrowed upper airways and increased abdominal pressure
54
which sentences are true
held expiration can be due to decreased lung elasticity and micro-bronchitis
55
which sentences are true
Intermittent inspiration can be due to excitement, long exhausting work or during a painful chest disorder
56
which statement is false
The pH of the regurgitated content is usually alkalic
57
which statement is true
Regurgitation is passive and a consequence of disorder to the oesophagus & pharynx; Vomiting is characterised by active abdominal movement and preceded by nausea; The vomited content is always digested and the pH is always acidic.
58
which parameters cannot be examined my palpation
colour; smell/odour; percussion sound
59
which parameters can be examined by palpation
painfulness; consistency; movability; size
60
which sentences are true
Intermittent inspiration can be due to excitement, long exhausting work or during a painful chest disorder
61
what are the appropriate tests to examine the endocrine function of the pancreas
fructosamine; insulin
62
method of the hepatojugular reflux test
compress the epigastrium and observe the v.jugularis
63
part of the brain responsible for mental status
thalmocortex
64
premedication
pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anaesthesia
65
calming
sedation
66
reduction of fear
anxiolysis
67
catalepsy may be caused by
ketamine
68
neuroleptanalgesia
superficial sleeping; analgesia; caused by phenothiazine + opioid combination
69
pain relief
analgesia
70
neuroleptanalgesia is not caused by
benzodiazepine + opioid
71
types of anaesthesia
local; regional; general; total IV
72
general anaesthesia criteria
hypnosis; analgesia; muscle relaxants
73
general anaesthesia doesnt need to be
inhalational
74
balanced anaesthesia
Consciousness may be steered with anaesthetics; Pain may be controlled by analgesics; Muscle relaxation may be altered via muscle relaxants
75
balanced anaesthesia
is not achievable with a single 'mono-anaesthetic' drug
76
dissociative anaesthesia
Thalamocortical dissociation; Peripheral analgesia; Alteration of consciousness
77
dissociative anaesthesia
doesnt lead to limbic depression
78
phenothiazines may cause life threatening hypotension in
Boxers
79
brachycephalic breeds need
Pre-oxygenation; short induction; fast intubation
80
Brachycephalic breeds dont require
early extubation
81
MDR-1 gene defect is detected in
Australian shepherd; English shepherd; German shepherd
82
preanesthetic circulatory examination
mucous membranes; CRT; pulse frequency and quality
83
preanesthetic heart function examination
auscultation; ECG; US
84
preanesthetic minimal laboratory exam
WBC count; Haematocrit; TPP; urea; creatinine; ALT
85
ASA 1
healthy state; symptom- free state; low anaesthesia risk; 6 weeks- 5years
86
ASA 2
mild systemic disease; no apparent functional disorder; 3 days- 6 weeks; 5-8 years
87
ASA 3
severe systemic disease with visible functional impairement; non-life threatening status; 8-10 years
88
ASA 4
severe systemic disease; constant threat to patients life; high anaesthesia risk; 0-3 days; over 10 years of age
89
ASA 5
Moribund status; Patient is very likely to die withing 24 hours, with or without the surgery
90
CEPOD classification
CEPOD I -Immediate, life-saving intervention; CEPOD II – Urgent intervention; CEPOD III – Intervention planned for near future; CEPOD IV – Delayable intervention
91
pre-anaesthetic fasting
Usually 6 hours; Less than 6 hours in very young patients; Only 2 hours in emergency patients
92
advantages of premedication
Decreases stress, fear & aggression; Lowers anaesthetic demand; Decreases drug expenditure; Elimination of the excitation stage; Balanced anaesthesia
93
steps of general anaesthesia
premedication; induction; recovery
94
effects of premedication
Decreases pain, stress, fear & aggression; Decreases anaesthetic dosage, side-effects & costs; Eliminated the excitation
95
reasons for vein cannulation
drug admin; fluid therapy; emergency access
96
preferred drugs for induction
Anaesthetics with moderate (or no) side effects; Rapid onset of action; Short duration or counteractable
97
maintenance of general anaesthesia
intramuscular; intravenous; inhalational
98
role of anaesthesiologist
Control the depth of anaesthesia; Patient monitoring; Maintain homeostasis
99
stages of narcosis (I-IV)
I – Stadium analgesiae (induction phase); II – Stadium excitationis (excitatory phase); III – Stadium tolerantiae (surgical narcosis); IV – Stadium asphyxiae (overdose & asphyxia)
100
characteristics of general anaesthesia
Unconsciousness; Lack of perception; Analgesia

SAM (11 decks)

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