PPQ5 Flashcards

1
Q

which part of the long bones is radiolucent

A

growth plate in young animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

sunburst-like periosteal reaction is typical for which disorder?

A

Malignant bone tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which statement is true

A

the joint capsule is not visible on the radiograph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which abnormality can be connected to clinical signs

A

hemivertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which abnormality cannot be connected to clinical signs

A

calcified nucleus pulposus; SH-2 epipysiolysis; Spondylosis deformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the number of vertebrae in a dog

A

C7;Th13;L7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which answer is true? radiographic sign of a Wobbler-syndrome

A

deformed cervical vertebra; C2-C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hansen type 1 discus hernia

A

Is a generally acute clinical process; Chondrodystrophic breeds; Nucleus pulposis
calcification; Annulus fibrosis rupture; Extrusion; Rapid deterioration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which statement is false regarding discospondylosis

A

it is an aseptic process

calcification of ventral vertebral ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which statements are true regarding discospondylosis

A

It is characterised by osteolytic changes; The end plates of the vertebrae are effected; It
generally goes with pain and pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which of the following features defines the suture materials drainage ability

A

monofilament vs multifilament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which statement is correct regarding intra and post operative hypothermia

A

there is decreased anaesthesia demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which statement is correct concerning the maintenance phase of anaesthesia

A

the goal is to maintain the ‘surgical tolerance’ depth of anaesthesia using the lowest sufficient dose of anaesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the normal value of Norberg angle in healthy dogs

A

higher than 105 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which statements are true

A

acids cause coagulation necrosis; alkalises can cause colliquation necorsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the number of permanent teeth in a dog

A

42

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the number of permanent teeth in cats

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which of the following USP numbers indicates the thinnest suture material

A

4-0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which statement is correct regarding the imaging of spinal cord compression (SCC)

A

myelography is a useful tool in the diagnosis of SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which of the following suture materials are non-absorbable

A

polypropylene; polyamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the proper name of the ‘oxspring’ view for the examination of the navicular bone

A

dorsoproximal-palmarodorsal oblique view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which parameter decreases in DIC

A

Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which of the following features makes polyproylene the most popular cardiovascular suture material

A

good tensile strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what does ‘2-metric’ mean on a suture material pack

A

suture material is 0.2mm in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
current concepts of pain management/analgesia is
pre-emptice (prophylatic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)
26
what is spongostan
gelatine sponge
27
which statement is correct regarding physiology of the paediatric patient
the vegetative innervation of the heart and the vasomotor function is immature
28
which statement is correct
clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis
29
which one is an opioid antagonist
naloxone
30
phase of wound healing are
acute inflammation- resorption- proliferation- remodelling
31
what is the main shock organ of the cat?
Lung
32
What is the main shock organ of the dog?
GI tract
33
which statement is correct regarding dentine in the dog
it is capable of repair in living tooth
34
Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated leading to acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia?
urinary bladder
35
what is false? an active drain
it is not recommended as flushing drain
36
which statements are true? an active drain
is used as a flushing drain; can be open suction-drain; can be closed suction-drain
37
what does 'epulis' mean
benign fibromatous mass on the gingivia
38
which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the salivary mucocele
its one of the effective treatments is puncture and content removal from the cyst
39
According to the Vasanjee et al Vet Surg paper (2006), which of the following liver biopsy techniques caused remarkable collateral tissue damage?
laparoscopic 'pinch' biopsy
40
which statement is true
injuries of the tongue are always regarded as contaminated
41
which of the following conditions doesnt cause hydronephrosis
ureteral torsion
42
which of the following conditions causes hydronephrosis
Ureteral stricture associated with previous surgery; Ureteral tumour; Ureterolithiasis
43
Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning gastric foreign body?
the gastrotomy is contaminated/septic procedure
44
which of the following statements is correct concerning gastric foreign body?
The success rate of the gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as 95%; Gastric foreign body may cause perforation; Oral feeding can be started 4-6 hours after gastrotomy
45
which approach is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic hernia repair
laparotomy
46
which of the following signs has the strongest diagnostic value in intestinal intussusception
palpation of the invaginated intestinal section
47
which statement is correct
glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins
48
which statement is correct concerning the endotracheal tube
Not only aspiration may be prevented by using endotracheal tubes, but it also allows for connection to the anaesthesia machine by the Y-piece and mechanical ventilation
49
which of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis
partial nephrectomy
50
which approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachycephalic dogs
ventral rhinotomy (due to lack of space dorsally)
51
which of the following arteries does not directly contribute to splenic blood supply
left gastric
52
Which of the following diseases cannot cause hindlimb lameness in skeletally immature dogs?
biceps tendon insertion tendinopathy
53
Which of the following diseases can cause hindlimb lameness in skeletally immature dogs?
panosteitis; perthes disease; achilles tendinopathy
54
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis?
dalmatians always for urate uroliths
55
which of the following statements is correct regarding nephrolithiasis
It can occur bilaterally; It can lead to ureterolithiasis; It can be caused by a congenital disorder
56
which sign reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (spO2 is <60mmHg)
cyanosis
57
which anal zone involves circumanal hepatoid glands
zona cutanea
58
which statement is incorrect concerning prostate US
it can differentiate cysts from abscesses
59
which statement is correct concerning prostate US
It can detect fluid accumulation within the organ; It can detect parenchymal hypertrophy; It provides possibility of core biopsy
60
which nerve is most prone to iatrogenic injury during TECA + LBO procedure
auriculopalpebral branch of the facial nerve
61
Which tool is next to be chosen in the case of uncertain radiographic findings in suspected diaphragmatic hernia?
ultrasound
62
intramedullary pinning is not good for
treatment of achilles tendon fracture
63
which type of small intestinal obstruction has usually the poorest prognosis
mesenteric torsion
64
which is correct regarding pelvic fractures
it is an absolute indication for surgical treatment
65
which is correct regarding pelvic fractures
It can be a result of major trauma; Commonly combined with a urinary tract injury; It could be associated with pneumothorax
66
Which of the following protocols is to be followed in case of acute obstruction form of feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD)?
stabilisation + urethral catheterisation
67
which of the following statements is incorrect regarding gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV)
GDV starts right after the last feeding
68
Which of the following statements is correct regarding gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV)?
The GDV may be caused by dietary disorders; There is also a chronic form of GDV; GDV is usually of acute onset
69
which suture material is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure
poliglecaprone
70
which suture materials can be used for cystotomy wound closure
PDS; Polyglyconate; Glycomer
71
which of the following is the most informative one for diagnosing ectopic ureters
IV urography + pneumocystography; + Negative contrast
72
what does 'skeletonisation' mean
Cassation of the mesenterial blood supply on the intestinal section to be resected
73
how many lung lobes does a dog have
7
74
how many lung lobes does a cat have
6
75
Which of the following procedures is not recommended for surgical resolution of prostatic cysts?
puncture
76
what is the advantage of scrotal uretrostomy
early dissectible urethral section, wider and safer stroma
77
which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe
The precise diagnosis of organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication
78
which of the following breeds is usually not affected by ectopic ureter
german shepherd
79
which of the following breeds is usually affected by ectopic ureters
labrador, husky, westie
80
which of the diagnostic findings indicated the diagnosis of urinary bladder rupture
if contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography
81
which statement is correct concerning diaphragmatic hernia
Hiatus hernia has 2 forms: Axial & paraoesophageal; The Peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited; They take 5-10% of diaphragmatic hernias
82
which statement is true regarding inguinal hernia
the indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one
83
ideal therapy in case of joint injury is
joint lavage within 6 hours
84
which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy
m. cutaneous trunci
85
Which of the following nerves are most prone to iatrogenic injury during ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO)?
hypoglossal nerve
86
Which of the following suture patterns is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure?
double layer (penetrating + lambert) suture
87
which of the following statements is correct
a penrose drain is a tube drain
88
which of the following decisions is correct in case of disuse gastric necrosis during GDV surgery
euthanasia
89
which urolith is surely radiodense
calcium oxalate
90
which brachycephalci disorder is not surgically curable
tracheal hyoplasia