Flashcards in Reform So That You May Preserve: Change And Continuity After 1832 Deck (22)
Elections after 1832: percentage increase in amount of people voting in 1832
It is estimated that the number of people actually voting in 1832 increased by 500%
Elections after 1832: why was there such a large increase in amount of people voting?
Because there were more contested elections
Elections after 1832: Why were elections not contested
When the number of candidates = number of seats
Elections after 1832: was there still corruption?
Yes 'treating' of voters was still a large problem. Also there were many tricks to try and thwart efforts of rival candidates.
Some commentators at the time seemed to think that it got worse.
Elections after 1832: what was treating?
Treating was the practice of giving 'treats' to electors in the form of meals/alcohol in hope of persuading them to vote for a certain candidate
Elections after 1832: voting behaviour
Voting behaviour depended on the type of borough
Elections after 1832: outrageous behaviour by candidates and electors
The outrageous behaviour by candidates and voters provided many Victorian writers with lots of material (e.g Charles Dickens' "The Pick Wick Papers")
Tamworth Manifesto: When was it published and who was it published by?
It was published by the Tories in December 1834
Tamworth Manifesto: What was important about it?
It was the first time that a party wrote to the general public about their aims and ideas rather than just bribery.
What was the Chandos Clause?
Essentially gave vote to tenants. But these tenants could have their tenancy terminated at any time by their landlords. So the tenants were highly likely to vote for the same person as their (most commonly Tory) Landlord.
What did the Chandos Clause do for the Tories?
It helped offset the original loss of the Tory boroughs, so the Tories didn't lose as Manu voters
£10 householder qualification, what did it mean for the franchise?
That it was slightly irregular, in London some working class might get the vote. Whereas in some parts of wales or Cornwall, shopkeepers might not qualify.
After general election of 1832, what percentage of MPs represented the landed interest?
After 1832 70% - 80% still represented the landed interest
How many rotten or public boroughs were disenfranchised in the 1832 reform act
How many MPs after 1832 still depended on patronage
60/70 MPs still depended directly on patronage
But some boroughs
Were not disenfranchised such as Thetford, Calne and Westbury , the boroughs that were disenfranchised were the well known ones that reformers used as examples of what was wrong with the old system
How many MPs now represented counties?
144 (previously 92)
Why were county MPs preferred by most of aristocracy (including Whigs and Tories)
County MPs were seen as less corrupt, more independent and more likely to be motivated by the interests of the country
How else were seats redistributed? (apart from increasing county representation)
Large towns in north given representation in parliament but also small towns were given seats because they represented particular interests. E.g Froome (wool) and Whitby and Sunderland (shipping)
What percentage of males could vote before and after the 1832 Reform Act
Before the 1832 Reform act around 1 in 10 males could vote
After the 1832 reform act around 1 in 5 males could vote
What percentage of males could vote before and after the 1832 Reform Act in Scotland
Before Act 1 in 50 males could vote
After Act 1 in 8 males could vote