Renal Disease Flashcards

(36 cards)

1
Q

What are the most common causes of renal disease?

A

diabetes and hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The primary functional unit of the kidney (nephron), job is to control the concentration of:

A

sodium and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the afferent arteriole delivers blood into/out of the glomerulus

A

into

efferent = exit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is used to assess the severity of kidney disease?

A

the amount of albumin in the urine along with the GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is the proximal tubule closest to the bowman’s capsule?

A

yes (where SGLT2 inhibitors work)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where do loops diuretics work?

A

they inhibit the NA-K pump in the ascending lime of the loop of henle (cause Ca depletion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where do thiazides work?

A

the distal convoluted tubule - they inhibit the NaCl pump (increase Ca reabsorption – protective for bones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

aldosterone works where?

A

in the DCT and collecting duct to increase Na and water reabsorption and decrease K reabsorption. (aldosterone antagonists work against this - more Na and water excreted and serum K increases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are common key drugs that cause kidney disease?

A

AG

ampho B

cisplatin
cyclosporine

loops
NSAIDs

polymyxins

radiographic dye

tacrolimus

vanc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is first line to prevent progression of disease in patients with CKD, diabetes and or HTN if albuminuria is present?

A

ACE or ARBs

inhibits RAAS, causing efferent arteriolar dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When starting treatment with an ACE or ARB, the baseline SCr can increase by up to…

A

30% - this is expected and treatment should NOT be stopped. however, if >30%, the treatment should be D/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should be monitored after starting ACE/ARBs?

A

potassium - up to 1-2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are common key drugs that require dose increase or increase in CKD?
Anti-infectives:

A

anti-infectives-

AG (increase dosing)
beta lactam (except anti staphylococcal PCNs and ceftriaxone)
fluconazole
quinolones (except moxi)
Vancomycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are common key drugs that require dose increase or increase in CKD?
CV drugs:

A

LMWH (enoxaprin)
rivaroxaban (afib)
apixaban (afib)
dabigatran (afib)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are common key drugs that require dose increase or increase in CKD?
GI drugs

A

H2RAs (famotidine, ranitidine)

metoclopramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are select drugs that are contraindicated in CKD?

CrCl <60

A

nitrofurantoin

17
Q

What are select drugs that are contraindicated in CKD?

CrCl <50

A

tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (Stribild, Complera, Atripla, symfi, symfi lo)

voriconazole IV

18
Q

What are select drugs that are contraindicated in CKD?

CrCl <30

A

tenofovir alafenamide (renvoya, biktarvy, descovy, odefsey, symtuza)

NSAIDs

dabigatran (DVT/PE)
rivaroxaban (DVT/PE)

19
Q

What are select drugs that are contraindicated in CKD?

GFR <30

A

SGLT2 metformin

20
Q

Patients with advanced kidney disease require monitoring of

A

PTH
phosphorus (phosphate and PO4)
Ca & vitamin D

21
Q

when restricting dietary phosphate, what do patients avoid?

A

dairy products
cola
chocolate
nuts

22
Q

What is first line in phosphate binders?

A

calcium-based: Phoslyra, PhosLo, Tums

TID with meals

23
Q

What is the name of the non-calcium, non-aluminum based phosphate binder that is not systemically absorbed?

A

sevelamer carbonate (Renvela)

can lower LDL too

24
Q

After controlling hyperphosphatemia, elevations in PTH are treated primarily with

25
What is the primary dietary source of vitamin d?
d2, ergocalciferol
26
this drug, _____, is the active form of vitamin D3
calcitriol (Rocatrol)
27
this drug mimics the actions of calcium on the parathyroid gland and causes further reduction in PTH, only used in dialysis patients
cinacalcet (Sensipar) *hypocalcemia
28
ESAs are only effective if adequate ____ is available to make hemoglobin
iron | *need iron panel (iron, ferritin, and TSAT)
29
Renal potassium excretion is increased by the hormone_____, and this drug
aldosterone loops (loops>thiazides)
30
what does insulin do to potassium?
causes potassium to shift into cells *reasons why ESRD are at risk for hyperkalemia
31
what are symptoms of hyperkalemia?
muscle weakness, bradycardia and fatal arrhythmias
32
What are select drugs that increase potassium levels?
ACE/ARBs aldosterone receptor antagonists aliskiren canagliflozin dropirenone-containing COCs Bactrim transplant drugs
33
When treating severe hyperkalemia, what is the intervention when you want to stabilize the heart?
administer IV calcium gluconate works by stabilizing myocardial cells - does not decrease potassium 1-2 min onset
34
When treating severe hyperkalemia, what is the intervention when you want to shift potassium back into the cells?
regular insulin IV -- co-administered with glucose/dextrose dextrose IV -- stimulates insulin sectarian sodium bicarb IV -- when metabolic acidosis is present albuterol (nebulized) onset 30 mins
35
When treating severe hyperkalemia, what is the intervention when you want to remove potassium from the body?
furosemide IV, 5 mins********* for acute sodium polystyrene sulfonate oral or rectal, ONE HOUR patiromer oral - SEVEN HOURS sodium zirconium cyclosilicate oral - ONE HOUR hemodialysis - immediate
36
Brand: SPS, Kayexalate
generic: sodium polystyrene sulfonate