Reproduction Flashcards

(118 cards)

1
Q

What are the three types of sex?

A

Chromosomal
Gonadal
Phenotypic

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2
Q

__________________ ducts lead to MALE development

A

Mesonephric (wolfian)

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3
Q

_______________ ducts lead to FEMALE development

A

Paramesonephric (mullerian)

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4
Q

Animals that have gonads of both sexes

A

Hermaphrodites

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5
Q

Animals with an inconsistency with gonads and tubular genitalia

A

Pseudohermaphrodites

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6
Q

What can occur where there are male and female town fetuses ?

A

A sterile co-twin female > freemartin

Exchange of blood between male and female-> male hormones transferred to female-> sterile

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7
Q

Follicular cysts can arise from??

A

Estrogen -> prolonged estrus or anoestrus

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8
Q

Leutenized cysts can arise from?

A

Progesterone -> anoestrum

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9
Q

What are the ovarian neoplasms??

A
  1. Sex chord tumors- granulosa - theca cell tumors
  2. Epithelial tumors- adenoma and adenocarcinoma
  3. Germ cell tumors- dysgerminoma and teratoma
  4. Nongonadal tumors
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10
Q

What is the most common ovarian tumor in cows and mares?

A

Granulosa cell tumor

  • generally unilateral, large and nonmalignatn
  • solid or poly cystic with hemorrhage and necrosis
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11
Q

What is diagnostic of a granulosa cell tumor ?

A

Call-exner bodies (rosettes of granulosa cells surrounding pink proteinaceous fluid)

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12
Q

Mass containing cells for two or more germ cell lines: ectoderm/mesoderm/endoderm

A

Teratoma

  • can include hair, cartilage, bone, liver, kidney
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13
Q

What are tumors of primordial germ cells of the embryonic gonad, all are considered malignant

A

Dysgerminoma

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14
Q

Tumor of the epithelial cells of the ovary

A

Ovarian adenoma

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15
Q

Inflammationof the ovary

A

Oophoritis

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16
Q

What animal has two cervices?

A

Rabbit

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17
Q

What animal has proportionally longer horns compared to the cervix

A

Sow

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18
Q

Uterine tube is distended and filled with clear watery mucus

A

Hydrosalpinx

Usually secondary to obstruction

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19
Q

Accumulation of pus in the uterine tube

A

Pyosalpinx

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20
Q

Uterine torsion most commonly occurs in __________ uterus and accounts for 5-10% of dystocia in mares

A

Enlarged (pregnancy, pyometra, or mucometra)

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21
Q

When the uterus has exeriorized and exposed to the environment

A

Uterine prolapse

-> dystocia, forced traction, retained placental post parturent hypocalcemia

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22
Q

Rupture of the uterus can occur from??

A

Obstetrical manipulations
Dystocia
Fluid infusions

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23
Q

Accumulation of thin or viscous fluid in the uterus, secondary to endometrial hyperplasia or congenital obstruction

A

Hydrometra

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24
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia is often due to _____________________

A

Prolonged hyperestrogenism or excess progesterone

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25
Estrogen sources leading to endometrial hyperplasia could be??
``` Cystic ovarian follicles Granulosa cell tumors Estrogenic pastures (clover-sheep) Zearalenone (mycotoxin) ```
26
What are the most frequent disorders of the uterus in middle aged and older intact dogs?
Cystic endometrial hyperplasia Pyometra -> abnormal response of uterus to prolonged periods of high serum progesterone during luteal phase
27
Fluid filled distention of endometrial glands is called?
Cystic endometrial hyperplasia -> if endometrial secretions accumulate -> infection -> pyometra
28
What causes endometrial hyperplasia in female dogs?
Estrogen -> receptor on endometrium -> synthesisi of progesterone receptors-> progesterone binding -> accumulations of endometrial secretions -> progesterone immunosuppresses -> bacterial growth causing pyometra -> low grade infection causing endometrial hyperplasia
29
Dog Depressed and anorexic PU/PD Vaginal discharge Dx?
Pyometra
30
What extragenital lesions are associated with pyometra in dogs?
Bone marrow depression and anemia Marked EMH in spleen and liverr Marked leucocytoisis Immune complex glomerulonephritis
31
Contagious equine metritis is a congenital disease in mares caused by ____________
Taylorella equigenitalis (gram neg)
32
Contagious equine metritis clinically manifests as??
Temporary infertility and mild to moderate inflmmation of endometrium Stallions transmit but do not develop clinical disease
33
T/F: CEM is reportable
Yes, in many states
34
Endometrial biopsy are evaluated on ID and scoring of what 4 microscopic lesions ?
Inflammation Dilation of lymphatic Loss of glands Fibrosis
35
_____________ from endometrial inflammation and edema results in endometrial glands forming nests
Fibrosis -> lack of fertility due to a lack of attachment of the concepts or failure of formation of normal microcotyledons and reduced placental area
36
Presence of endometrial glands and stroma between the muscle bundles of the myometrium
Uterus adenomyosis
37
Actively growing endometrial tissues that are explained to Ab era the sites within and outside the uterus
Endometriosis (ectopic endometrial glands) -> humans and primates
38
A smooth muscle tumor of the uterus is called?
Uterine leiomyoma
39
What uterine neoplasm is very common in rabbits?
Uterine adenocarcinoma
40
What is the most common metastatic neoplasm found in the uterus of the cow?
Lympocarcoma | Bovine leukosis virus -positive cows
41
A malignant smooth muscle tumor is called?
Leiomyosarcoma
42
In cattle, the corpus luteum is maintained by the blastoderm secreting ___________ to inhibit PGF2 and luteolysis
IFNy
43
_________________ is secreted from endometrial cups in the mare stimulates corpus luteum and the fetal chorion takes over progesterone production
Chorionic gonadotropin
44
Layer that contacts the mother, in most species is fused with the allanotis
Chorion
45
Contains the fetal urine and other fluids arising from the membrane itself
Allanotis
46
Smooth translucent membrane that surrounds the fetus and hold amniotic fluid, the fetal side can be identified by amniotic plaques
Amnion
47
Dome shaped areas in the uterus of the ruminat
Caruncles
48
___________ attaches the the caruncle to form the placentome, where maternal-fetal blood is exchanged
Cotyledons
49
Ruminants have the maximum number of cell layers on both maternal and fetal side of the placenta, what is the significance?
Low permeability for large molecules -> antibodies will not cross => newborns need colostrum
50
What are amniotic plaques and what is their significance in pathology?
Foci of squamous epithelium on the internal surface of aminion, common in bovine Incidental finding
51
What species has a diffuse placenta?
Swine and horse
52
In horses, a non glandular area of placenta near the cervix, made of stratified squamous epithelium
Cervical star
53
What species have a zonary placenta?
Cat and dog
54
What species have a discoid placenta?
Mice, rates, primates
55
What are the types of placenta from most to least number of layers between the mother and the fetus
Cotyledonary = diffuse > zonary > discoid
56
____________ are flat, smooth, and rubbery congregates of proteins and minerals found in the allantoic fluid of all herbivores
Hippomanes Incidental finding
57
Placental insufficiency is seen in cases of:
``` Twinning Endometrial fibrosis Premature placental separation Uterine body pregnancy Torsion of the umbilical cord ```
58
What is adventitial Placentation ?
Development of intercotyledonary placentation in cattle as a mechanism of compensation for inadequate development of placentomes
59
What do you call an excessive accumulation of fluid in the amniotic or allantoic sacs? What are each of these conditions associated with?
Hydramnios -> associated with malformation of the foetus Hydroallantois -> associated with uterine disease with inadequate numbers of caruncles and the development of Adventist placentation in cattle
60
When the placenta is not expelled with the fetus at birth
Retained placental -> leads to bacterial infection due to patent cervix -> endometritis
61
In a dog.. multiple segmental thickening visible form the serosal surface endometrium is hemorrhagic and thickened Placental sites are raised, rough, gray-brown plaques Uterine lumen contains small amounts of seroanguinous fluid Endometrium between sites is normal Dx?
Subinvolution of placental sites Can have rupture -> hemoperitoneum
62
Loss of pregnancy during the early stage of gestation is called?? What infectious agents can cause this?
Early embryonic death Leptospirosis Campylobacter fetus subsp venerealis Tritrichomonas fetus
63
______________ is the expulsion of a fetus prior to the expected viability
Abortion
64
________________is the death of the fetus in the last part of gestation during the period where it is independently viable
Stillbirth
65
_____________ is when a fetus is retain indefinitely and becomes dehydrated
Mummification
66
______________ is when a fetus is retained and is infected by bacteria
Maceration -> dystocia or incomplete abortion
67
What are the criteria for submission of aborted bovine fetuses for diagnostic evaluation ?
1. When abortion rate exceeds 3% (max tolerable abortion rate) 2. When a number of animals abort over a short period of time
68
What gross placental lesions can be found in campylobacter foetus subsp venerealis ?
Intercotyledoary placentitis and necrosis of the cotyledons
69
For diagnostic testing, where can tritrichomonas foetus be found?
Preputial washes Vaginal mucus Aborted fetus -> stomach contents
70
What abnormalities can be seen with the umbilical cord?
Longer cords -> foal strangulation and necrosis of the cervical pole of the placenta Short cord -> premature separate of placenta at site of attachment Umbilical cord torsion
71
What is the normal length of the umbilical cord?
36-38cm long
72
What infectous organisms can be responsible for pregnancy failure in pigs??
``` Actinomyces pyogenes E.coli Staph aureus Aspergillus Erysipelothrix Pasturella Salmonella Strep spp ``` Brucellosis suis Porcine parvovirus -> SMEDI Enteroviruses
73
What infectious agents can cause pregnancy failure in dogs
Salmonella | Brucella canis
74
What is the protocol for assessing aborted fetuses?
``` Gross examination Sample collection (placenta and fetal organs) Histopathology Culture Virus isolation Serology fetus and mother ```
75
Aborted fetus and placenta has a leathery plaque like lesions is associated with ___________
Mycotic abortion
76
What protozoan is associated with cotyledonary necrosis ?
Toxoplasma gondii Cats carry in GI tract -> ruminants come ingest fecal material
77
Aborted fetus | -> liver with multifocal necrotizing hepatitis
Campylobacter fetus subsp fetus OR C. Jejuni
78
Multifocal liver necrosis in a horse | Histopathology shows intranuclear inclusion bodies
Equine herpesvirus 1
79
_______________________ from a cow is covered in hair, is the remnant of a twin fetus and is attached to the placenta of the normal twin by a stalk
Acardiac monster (bovine amorphous globosus)
80
What are teratogens
Toxins, drugs, infectious agents leading to fetal abnormalities
81
What reproductive organ functions as a reservoir for spermatozoa in some animal species?
Cervix
82
What do you call inflammation of the cervix?
Cervicitis Result of injury and secondary infection or extension from endometrium
83
What are the female glands called that are anatomical analogs of the bulbourethral (Cowpers) glands in males?
Bartholins gland (cystic ) --> incidental findings
84
What do you call cysts of the vagina? Are they significant?
Nabothian cysts Not dangerous/significant
85
You go to a farm and find that the female pigs and cattle have hyperplastic vulvas. In your history you discover the farmer has been feeding these animals corn? what do you suspend the is wrong?
Moldy corn contaminated with Fusarium fungus -> produce toxin called zearaleone -> mimics estrogen and causes vulva hyperplasia
86
What is another name for vulvuar hyperplasia ?
Tumefaction
87
Cow You see 1-2mm raised, white nodules on the vulval mucosa-> appears granular What is your Dx?
Infection of vulva or vagina with Ureplasma diversum Lymphocytic --> white nodules
88
You go to a goat farm and see necrosis and ulceration of the mucosa of the vestibule. Histopathology shows intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies. You recall that you have seen similar lesions in a cow before, what would be the etiology for these lesions in each species?
Cow - bovine herpes virus 1 Goat- caprine herpes virus 1
89
Horse Large, full-thickness ulcers around the perinum and on the valvular skin. Healed regions are depigmented Etiology?
Equine herpes virus 3
90
What species can have transmissible venereal tumors?
Dogs -transfer of cells that implant
91
Lucky you.. you have been selected to work as an unpaid intern at a zoo in Australia... Your first patient is a Tasmanian devil and as a species on the edge of extinction, their fate lies in you hands... This poor dude has a mass in his buccal cavity. You decide to take a cytology sample.. Cytology shows round cell with a few mitotic figures.. What would be you Dx? What can you tell the children anxiously waiting to see this Tasmanian devil at the zoo??
Devil facial tumor disease Transmitted through biting ... unfortunately your news is not good.. you have to tell the loyal fans of this Tasmanian devil that they usually die within months of the tumor becoming visible. :(
92
T/F: Mastitis is usually due to infectious agents like bacteria or fungi that gain access though the teat canal
True
93
In a cow.. | severe necrotic mastitis is usually caused by what bacteria
Coliform bacteria Eg Ecoli Klebsiella Enterobacter
94
What is the MDx for a cow that has yellow, viscous pus filling the lactiferous sinus and ducts?
Supperative mastitis
95
Infection of nocardia in the mammary glands will lead to what lesions?
Chronic mastitis and galactophoritis Pyogranulomatous and abscessation
96
What are the contagious causes of mastitis?
Streptococcus agalactinae Staphylococcus aureus Mycoplasma spp
97
What are the environmental causes of mastitis?
Coliforms | Environmental streptococci
98
Staph aureus produces _______________ that causes gangrenous mastitis due to vasoconstriction and ischemia
A-toxin
99
Coliform mastitis cause damage through __________ that causes vascular damage leading to fluid exudate, hemorrhage, thrombosis, and necrosis
Endotoxin
100
Coliform mastitis usually is most severe in ??
Newly calved cows who are transiently immunosuppressed
101
What organisms can cause a granulomatous mastitis?
Mycobacterium Nocardia Candida
102
What is usually the abuse of a diffuse interstitial mastitis that is not visible grossly?
Viral disease Eg ovine progressive pneumonia (Maedi-Visna) or caprine arthritis virus (CAE)
103
Mammary gland neoplasms are most commonly seen in what sp?
Cat and dog
104
Most (90%) canine mammary neoplasms are ____________ cell tumors while the remained are _____________ types of tumors
Epithelial; sarcomas and mixed
105
What has show to significantly reduce the risk of mammary tumor development in dogs
Ovariohysterectomy at early age
106
A __________________ is a proliferation of a well-differentiated luminal epithelial cells of the mammary gland
Simple adenoma
107
A ________________ is a mixed proliferation of secretory epithelial cells an myoepitheial cells of a mammary gland
Complex adenoma
108
____________ is a mixture of epithelial and stromal cells of a mammary gland
Fibroadenoma
109
___________________ is a proliferation of glandular and mesenchymal elements
Benign mixed tumor
110
________________ is a papillomatous projection in distended ducts of the mammary
Duct papilloma
111
What is the most common site of extraskeletal soft tissue osteosarcomas in dogs?
Mammary glands
112
Carcinosarcomas are also called ?
Malignant mixed tumors -> mix of malignant epithelial and mesenchymal components
113
What are used as prognonstic factors for canine mammary tumors?
``` Histologically type Degree of invasion Degree of nuclear differentiation Lymphoid cellular reactivity Size Ulceration Inflammation Estrogen and progesterone receptor status ```
114
T/F:younger dogs are more likely to have benign neoplasms than older dogs
True
115
T/F: most mammary neoplasms in cats are malignant
True
116
Most feline mammary neoplasms are what type of tumor?
Adenocarcinoma -> rapid growth and common metastases
117
What is the single most important prognostic factor for mammary gland neoplasia in cats?
Tumor size Tumors <2cm have better prognosis
118
A mammary gland neoplasia in rats are almost always a _________
Fibroadenoma