U1 LAB: SPECIMEN COLLECTION AND HANDLING Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Specimen should be collected prior to administration of antibiotics.

A

True

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1
Q

Specimen collection should be done in what phase?

A

Acute phase (Early phase)

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2
Q

What is the result when specimen collection is done after administration of antibiotics?

A

False negative result

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3
Q

Specimens should be properly labeled with:

A
  • Name
  • Birthday
  • Date & Time of collection
  • Anatomic site
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4
Q

Specimens should be accompanied by a?

A

laboratory request

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5
Q

CS stands for?

A

Culture & Sensitivity

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6
Q

ARD stands for?

A

Antibiotic Removal Device

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7
Q

These may be possible contaminants

A

Normal flora

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8
Q

Blood is considered as a?

A

sterile site

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9
Q

What must you do when the blood culture is positive?

A

Report immediately (there should be no bacteria in blood)

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10
Q

Bacteria that is Gram + which is mistaken for Anthrax

A

Bacillus

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11
Q

Examples of anatomic site

A

Wound discharge, swab

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12
Q

The use of sterile leak proof containers must be observed in all body fluids except for?

A

stool

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13
Q

What are primarily used for aerobic bacteria?

A

Swabs

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14
Q

What are primarily used for anaerobic bacteria?

A

Aspirates

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15
Q

Where should you collect lesions, wounds, and abscesses?

A

at the margin (swabs)

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16
Q

Swabs are collected in?

A

superficial wounds

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17
Q

Aspirates are collected in?

A

deep wounds

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18
Q

This is a transport medium to maintain the viability of organisms.

A

Tube/vial

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19
Q

This is appropriate for the recovery of aerobic organisms

A

Swabs

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20
Q

Types of Swabs

for Bacterial Culture

A

Dacron, Calcium, Alginate, Rayon

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21
Q

Types of Swabs

for Viral Culture

A

Cotton and Dacron

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22
Q

This has fatty acids that have antibacterial properties.

A

Cotton

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23
Q

Types of Swabs

Nasopharyngeal swab

A

flexible swabs

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24
The shaft of the swab must be made up of?
plastic or wooden material
25
This part of the swab absorbs the fatty acid.
Charcoal (black)
26
T/F: You can place back the swab in its cover to prevent drying.
True
27
Upper Respiratory Tract for swab
- Throat cultures - Nasopharyngeal cultures - Nasal
28
Throat cultures isolate what bacteria?
Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes)
29
Nasopharyngeal cultures are used to diagnose?
Pertussis, middle ear infections
30
Nasopharyngeal cultures are used to see carrier states of?
- Staphylococcus aureus - Neisseria meningitidis - Haemophilus influenzae
31
Urogenital swabs are used to diagnosis?
Gonococcal urethritis, Vaginosis, Vaginitis
32
Other than the URT, swabs can also be used in the?
External ear, eyes
33
Minimum swabs
2
34
2 swabs are for?
1. Direct Microscopy (Gram Staining) 2. Culture & Sensitivity
35
If there is only one swab, who will decide what test it should be used for?
Physician
36
UTIs stand for?
Urinary Tract Infections
37
This connects the kidney to the bladder.
Ureter
38
UTIs are more prone to who, and why?
Females, have shorter urethra
39
UTIs include?
- Cystitis - Urethritis - Pyelonephritis (kidney) - Pyelitis - Glomerulonephritis
40
This refers to the inflammation of the bladder.
Cystitis
41
Etiologic agents in Urine specimens (PEKPEKS)
- Escherichia coli Gram - - Enterics (Proteus, Enterobacter, Klebsiella) - Pseudomonas aeruginosa Gram + - Enterococcus faecalis - Staphylococcus aureus - Staphylococcus saphrophyticus
42
What is the preferred urine specimen?
Clean catch midstream
43
First portion of the urine contains organisms from the?
Urethra
44
Which etiologic agent in urine appears as bluish/greenish?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
45
Other urine collection methods
- Straight catheterized urine - Suprapubic aspirates - Cytoscopy
46
This refers to the method in which the syringe is directly punctured in the bladder.
Suprapubic aspiration
47
What urine should be avoided?
Random voided urine, Foley catheters
48
Best urine specimens
- First morning (concentrated) - Clean Catch Midstream
49
Urine from a newborn is collected through a?
plastic bag
50
CFU stands for?
Colony Forming Unit
51
What value is indicative of UTI?
> 100,000 CFU/ml
52
This is used for quantitative procedure, and has measurements in its loop (diameter)
Calibrated loop
53
This is used for diagnosis of lower respiratory tract infections.
Sputum
54
Examples of LRT infections
Bacterial pneumonia, PTB
55
Recommended volume for sputum
5-10ml
56
Collection of sputum is done through:
- Expectorated - Induced - Gastric contents (children)
57
Recommended number of sputum specimens
2
58
Other specimens for PTB:
- Transtracheal aspirate - Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) - Bronchial washings
59
T/F: Bronchoalveolar lavage is done by the medical technologist.
False Physician ang gagawa
60
What specimen may be used for other sputum-related infections?
Early morning specimen
61
What stain is used in microscopic examination for sputum?
Gram Stain
62
This refers to the values of acceptable sputum.
Bartlett's Classification
63
Bartlett's Classification
> 25 WBCs/LPF <10 Epithelial cells/LPF
64
LPF stands for?
Low power field
65
Specimen of choice for diagnosis of gastrointestinal pathogens
Stool
66
This can be used if stool is present on swab during collection.
Rectal Swab
67
Stool pathogens
- Campylobacter jejuni - Salmonella - Shigella - Escherichia coli (EHEC, ETEC, EPEC, EIEC) - Vibrio - Yersinia enterocolitica - Listeria monocytogenes - Clostridium difficile - Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
68
Strains of E. coli as stool pathogens
- EHEC (Hemorrhagic) - ETEC (Toxigenic) - EPEC (Pathogenic) - EIEC (Invasive)
69
This refers to the normal flora of stool and carries no infection.
Escherichia coli
70
T/F: Identification of E. coli in water analysis is often caused by fecal contamination.
True
71
This specimen is used to determine fever of unknown origin.
Blood
72
Blood is used for the diagnosis of the following:
- Fever of unknown origin (FUO) - Septicemia - Bacteremia - Typhoid Fever - Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE)
73
Collection of blood must be done when?
before and right after fever spike (to isolate organism), an hour apart
74
If culture bottle is not possible to be used, aspirate using what?
syringe
75
Collection of blood must be done where and when?
2 to 3 different sights (left/right arm/foot) within 24 hours
76
Disinfecting with venipuncture is done with?
70% alcohol, iodine/clorhexidine
77
Volume of blood collection in adults
20ml
78
Volume of blood collection in pediatrics
1-20 (1-5ml)
79
Blood to media ratio
1:10
80
Media of choice for blood
Broth, Isolator system
81
Types of broth
- Brain heart infusion (BHI) - Tryptic soy broth (TSB) - Biphasic media - Thioglycollate Broth
82
This media contains both agar and broth.
Biphasic Media
83
What percent of SPS is recommended?
0.025 to 0.030%
84
Mainly used anticoagulant for blood
Sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS)
85
Other anticoagulants for blood
- Heparin - Sodium amylosulfate - Sodium citrate
86
This anticoagulant is used for mycobacteria cultivation.
Heparin
87
T/F: EDTA inhibits growth of microorganisms.
True
88
This property refers to inhibition of growth.
Bacteriostatic
89
This property refers to killing of organisms.
Bacteriocidal
90
Body Fluids include
- Abdominal fluid - Amniotic fluid - Ascitic fluid - Bile - Synovial fluid - Pleural fluid - Pericardial fluid
91
Body fluids are collected by?
needle aspiration
92
Body fluids must be placed in culture media?
immediately
93
What gastric tubes must be used for gastric specimens?
Levine and Rehfuss
94
CSF stands for?
Cerebrospinal Fluid
95
CSF is used for diagnosis of?
Meningitis or Menincoencephalitis
96
Agents of Meningitis
- Haemophilus influenzae - Neisseria meningitidis - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Streptococcus agalactiae - Listeria
97
Collection of CSF
Lumbar Tap (3rd-4th Lumbar Vertebra)
98
How many tubes can be collected for CSF?
3-4
99
What tube for CSF is used in microbiology?
2nd tube or 4th tube
100
If there is only 1 CSF tube, where should it be used?
CS (Microbiology)
101
Volume of CSF
>/= 1mL
102
Tissue specimens are collected thru?
Biopsy
103
Two types of Biopsy
Excisional and Incisional
104
This refers to biopsy wherein the whole lesion is removed.
Excisional
105
This refers to biopsy wherein only a portion of the lesion is removed.
Incisional
106
Aspirates must be placed in a container with tight lid or in an?
anaerobic transport system
107
Ideal time for specimen transport
30 minutes
108
Two common preservatives
Boric Acid, Refrigeration
109
This is used to preserve urine when there are delays
Boric Acid
110
In cold temperatures
Yersinia enterocolitica
111
This is an antiphagocytic, anticomplementary anticoagulant
SPS
112
T/F: SPS may inhibit aminoglycosides.
True
113
SPS inhibits bacteria such as?
- Neisseria - Gardnerella vaginalis - Streptobacillus moniliformis - Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
114
Refrigerator temp at 4 degrees
- Catheter tips - CSF FOR VIRUSES - Outer ear swab - Unpreserved feces and urine - Feces (C. diffinale) - Sputum, swabs
115
Ambient / Room temp at 22 degrees
- CSF FOR BACTERIA - Abscess, lesion, wound - Body fluid - Inner ear - Preserved urine and stool - Nasal specimens - Tissues
116
Body temperature (37 degrees)
- Normal CSF
117
Freezer temperature (-20 or -70 degrees)
- 20: serum for Serology - 70: long term storage
118
QNS stands for?
Quantity not sufficient
119
This refers to dead organisms collected.
Fixed specimens
120
Specimen Priority Level 1 (Critical/Invasive)
- CSF - aminiotic fluid - blood - pericardial fluid
121
Specimen Priority Level 2 (Unpreserved)
- Feces - Sputum - Tissue
122
Specimen Priority Level 3 (Quantitation required)
- Urine - Tissue for quantification
123
Specimen Priority Level 4 (Preserved)
- Feces and urine in preservative - Swabs in holding/transport medium
124
Specimen Priority Level 5 (Batch processing)
- Sputum - AFB Culture
125
Incubation condition 18-24 hours at 37 degrees
for most bacteria, AFB
126
Incubation condition 4 degrees (Cold enrichment medium)
- Listeria monocytogenes - Yersinia enterocolitica
127
Incubation condition 5-10% Carbon Dioxide (15% O2), candle jar
Capnophiles
128
Incubation condition takes months
Mycobacteria
129
Incubation condition Aerobic bacteria
21% O2, 0.03% CO2
130
Incubation condition Anaerobe
0% O2
131
Incubation condition Microaerophiles
5-6% or 5-10% O2
132